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Final Revision > Drugs For Blood Coagulation > Flashcards

Drugs For Blood Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

True regarding thrombosis:
a. It is the formation of unwanted clot within the blood vessels or the heart.
b. It is the dissolution of blood clots.
c. It is the formation of a clot that adheres to the vessel wall.
d. It is the breakdown of fibrin.

A

The correct answer is: a. It is the formation of unwanted clot within the blood vessels or the heart.

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2
Q

A clot that adheres to a vessel wall is called:
a. Embolus.
b. Thrombus.
c. Fibrin clot.
d. Platelet plug.

A

The correct answer is: b. Thrombus.

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3
Q

A clot that floats within the blood is termed:
a. Thrombus.
b. Embolus.
c. Fibrin clot.
d. Platelet plug.

A

The correct answer is: b. Embolus.

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4
Q

Both thrombi and emboli are dangerous because:
a. They enhance blood flow.
b. They may occlude blood vessels.
c. They decrease platelet aggregation.
d. They reduce fibrin formation.

A

The correct answer is: b. They may occlude blood vessels.

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5
Q

Clot formation requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Platelet activation.
b. Platelet aggregation.
c. Formation of thrombin.
d. Breakdown of fibrin.

A

The correct answer is: d. Breakdown of fibrin.

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6
Q

Platelets respond to vascular trauma by:
a. Vasoconstriction.
b. Adhesion to the site of injury.
c. Release of cytokines.
d. Degradation of fibrin.

A

The correct answer is: b. Adhesion to the site of injury.

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7
Q

In platelet formation, following platelet adhesion, the next step is:
a. Dissolution of the clot.
b. Release of intracellular granules.
c. Formation of emboli.
d. Reduction in blood flow.

A

The correct answer is: b. Release of intracellular granules.

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8
Q

The final step in the platelet response to vascular trauma is:
a. Formation of a thrombus.
b. Activation of fibrinogen.
c. Aggregation of the platelets.
d. Vasodilation.

A

The correct answer is: c. Aggregation of the platelets.

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9
Q

The coagulation cascade results in the formation of:
a. Thrombin from fibrinogen.
b. Prothrombin from fibrin.
c. Thrombin from prothrombin.
d. Fibrin from thrombin.

A

The correct answer is: c. Thrombin from prothrombin.

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10
Q

Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of:
a. Fibrinogen to fibrin.
b. Prothrombin to fibrinogen.
c. Fibrin to fibrinogen.
d. Prothrombin to fibrin.

A

The correct answer is: a. Fibrinogen to fibrin.

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11
Q

The cross-linking of fibrin strands is essential for:
a. Fibrin degradation.
b. Stabilizing the clot.
c. Platelet disaggregation.
d. Reducing thrombin activity.

A

The correct answer is: b. Stabilizing the clot.

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12
Q

Endothelial cells maintain a nonthrombogenic lining in blood vessels by:
a. Increasing platelet aggregation.
b. Maintaining transmural negative electrical charge.
c. Activating fibrinolysis.
d. Degrading coagulation factors.

A

The correct answer is: b. Maintaining transmural negative electrical charge.

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13
Q

The release of plasminogen activators results in:
a. Increased platelet adhesion.
b. Activation of the fibrinolytic pathway.
c. Inhibition of coagulation.
d. Activation of protein C.

A

The correct answer is: b. Activation of the fibrinolytic pathway.

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14
Q

Protein C degrades:
a. Fibrin.
b. Coagulation factors.
c. Platelet granules.
d. Fibrinogen.

A

The correct answer is: b. Coagulation factors.

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15
Q

Heparin-like proteoglycans inhibit:
a. Platelet aggregation.
b. Coagulation.
c. Fibrinolysis.
d. Thrombin formation.

A

The correct answer is: b. Coagulation.

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16
Q

Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a potent inhibitor of:
a. Fibrin formation.
b. Coagulation factor activation.
c. Platelet aggregation.
d. Plasminogen activation.

A

The correct answer is: c. Platelet aggregation.

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17
Q

Which of the following categories do drugs affecting blood coagulation fall into?
a. Platelet inhibitors, anticoagulants, and thrombolytics
b. Platelet activators, anticoagulants, and fibrinolytics
c. Platelet inhibitors, procoagulants, and thrombolytics
d. Antiplatelet drugs, anticoagulants, and antifibrinolytics

A

The correct answer is: a. Platelet inhibitors, anticoagulants, and thrombolytics

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a platelet inhibitor?
a. Aspirin
b. Ticlopidine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Heparin

A

The correct answer is: d. Heparin

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19
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Vitamin K
b. Dabigatran
c. Urokinase
d. Altepase

A

The correct answer is: b. Dabigatran

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20
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Clopidogrel
b. Ticlopidine
c. Apixaban
d. Aspirin

A

The correct answer is: c. Apixaban

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21
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Alteplase
d. Warfarin

A

The correct answer is: b. Aspirin

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22
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Ticlopidine
b. Enoxaparin
c. Streptokinase
d. Bivalirudin

A

The correct answer is: a. Ticlopidine

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23
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Warfarin
b. Urokinase
c. Clopidogrel
d. Lepirudin

A

The correct answer is: c. Clopidogrel

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24
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Abciximab
b. Dalteparin
c. Alteplase
d. Rivaroxaban

A

The correct answer is: a. Abciximab

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25
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Heparin
b. Dipyridamole
c. Streptokinase
d. Bivalirudin

A

The correct answer is: b. Dipyridamole

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26
Q

Which of the following is a platelet inhibitor?
a. Eptifibatide
b. Warfarin
c. Urokinase
d. Enoxaparin

A

The correct answer is: a. Eptifibatide

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27
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Alteplase
d. Ticlopidine

A

The correct answer is: b. Heparin

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28
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Clopidogrel
b. Streptokinase
c. Warfarin
d. Abciximab

A

The correct answer is: c. Warfarin

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29
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Bivalirudin
b. Urokinase
c. Dipyridamole
d. Alteplase

A

The correct answer is: a. Bivalirudin

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30
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Eptifibatide
b. Lepirudin
c. Streptokinase
d. Aspirin

A

The correct answer is: b. Lepirudin

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31
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Ticlopidine
b. Enoxaparin
c. Alteplase
d. Clopidogrel

A

The correct answer is: b. Enoxaparin

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32
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Abciximab
b. Urokinase
c. Dalteparin
d. Dipyridamole

A

The correct answer is: c. Dalteparin

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33
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a. Rivaroxaban
b. Streptokinase
c. Eptifibatide
d. Aspirin

A

The correct answer is: a. Rivaroxaban

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34
Q

Which of the following is a thrombolytic?
a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Alteplase
d. Clopidogrel

A

The correct answer is: c. Alteplase

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35
Q

Which of the following is a thrombolytic?
a. Streptokinase
b. Bivalirudin
c. Enoxaparin
d. Abciximab

A

The correct answer is: a. Streptokinase

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36
Q

Which of the following is a thrombolytic?
a. Dalteparin
b. Urokinase
c. Rivaroxaban
d. Ticlopidine

A

The correct answer is: b. Urokinase

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37
Q

Which of the following is used in the treatment of bleeding?
a. Aminocaproic acid
b. Heparin
c. Alteplase
d. Warfarin

A

The correct answer is: a. Aminocaproic acid

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38
Q

Which of the following is used in the treatment of bleeding?
a. Clopidogrel
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Streptokinase
d. Enoxaparin

A

The correct answer is: b. Protamine sulfate

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39
Q

Which of the following is used in the treatment of bleeding?
a. Rivaroxaban
b. Urokinase
c. Vitamin K
d. Eptifibatide

A

The correct answer is: c. Vitamin K

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40
Q

Which of the following is used in the treatment of bleeding?
a. Tranexamic acid
b. Bivalirudin
c. Alteplase
d. Dipyridamole

A

The correct answer is: a. Tranexamic acid

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41
Q

Which of the following is used in the treatment of bleeding?
a. Lepirudin
b. Aprotinin
c. Dalteparin
d. Abciximab

A

The correct answer is: b. Aprotinin

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42
Q

What is the recommended time frame for initiating antiplatelet therapy after an infarction or stroke to obtain significant benefit?
a. Within 1 hour
b. Within 2 hours
c. Within 6 hours
d. Within 12 hours

A

The correct answer is: b. Within 2 hours

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43
Q

Antiplatelet drugs are administered along with which of the following therapies?
a. Antihypertensive therapy
b. Thrombolytic and anticoagulant therapy
c. Antibiotic therapy
d. Antidiabetic therapy

A

The correct answer is: b. Thrombolytic and anticoagulant therapy

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for platelet aggregation inhibitors?
a. Inhibiting COX-1
b. Blocking GPIIb,IIIa
c. Blocking ADP
d. Decreasing cAMP

A

The correct answer is: d. Decreasing cAMP

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45
Q

What is the primary goal of therapy with aspirin in platelet aggregation inhibition?
a. To selectively inhibit the synthesis of platelet thromboxane A2
b. To irreversibly activate cyclooxygenase enzyme
c. To increase platelet aggregation
d. To inhibit prostacyclin synthesis in endothelium

A

The correct answer is: a. To selectively inhibit the synthesis of platelet thromboxane A2

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46
Q

What is the recommended daily dose range of aspirin for platelet aggregation inhibition?
a. 25 to 75 mg per day
b. 81 to 325 mg per day
c. 400 to 600 mg per day
d. 1000 to 1500 mg per day

A

The correct answer is: b. 81 to 325 mg per day

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47
Q

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of aspirin as a platelet aggregation inhibitor?
a. Prophylactic treatment of transient cerebral ischemia
b. Reducing the incidence of recurrent myocardial infarction
c. Decreasing mortality in post myocardial infarction
d. Treating acute bacterial infections

A

The correct answer is: d. Treating acute bacterial infections

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48
Q

True or False: Aspirin therapy has no risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
a. True
b. False

A

The correct answer is: b. False

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49
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of aspirin when used as a platelet aggregation inhibitor?
a. Hypertension
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Bleeding
d. Weight gain

A

The correct answer is: c. Bleeding

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ticlopidine and Clopidogrel?
a. Reversibly inhibit platelet activation
b. Irreversibly inhibit platelet activation by blocking ADP receptors
c. Increase thromboxane A2 synthesis
d. Activate glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors

A

The correct answer is: b. Irreversibly inhibit platelet activation by blocking ADP receptors

51
Q

Which of the following is the most serious side effect of Ticlopidine?
a. Neutropenia
b. Hypertension
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hyperglycemia

A

The correct answer is: a. Neutropenia

52
Q

Clopidogrel is activated by which hepatic enzyme system?
a. UGT
b. CYP2C9
c. CYP450
d. None of the above

A

The correct answer is: c. CYP450

53
Q

Which drug can diminish the action of clopidogrel when co-administered?
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Omeprazole
d. Warfarin

A

The correct answer is: c. Omeprazole

54
Q

Which of the following drugs are ADP pathway inhibitors used as alternatives to aspirin in secondary prevention of stroke and myocardial infarction?
a. Ticlopidine and Clopidogrel
b. Abciximab and Eptifibatide
c. Dipyridamole and Warfarin
d. Heparin and Enoxaparin

A

The correct answer is: a. Ticlopidine and Clopidogrel

55
Q

What is the primary therapeutic use of Ticlopidine and Clopidogrel?
a. Primary prevention of stroke
b. Treatment of acute myocardial infarction
c. Alternative prophylactic therapy to aspirin in secondary prevention of stroke and myocardial infarction
d. Management of chronic stable angina

A

The correct answer is: c. Alternative prophylactic therapy to aspirin in secondary prevention of stroke and myocardial infarction

56
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically treated with ADP pathway inhibitors as an alternative to aspirin?
a. Secondary prevention of stroke
b. Secondary prevention of myocardial infarction
c. Unstable angina
d. Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

The correct answer is: d. Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease

57
Q

What is the most serious side effect associated with Ticlopidine?
a. Neutropenia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. All of the above

A

The correct answer is: d. All of the above

58
Q

What type of drug is Abciximab?
a. COX-1 inhibitor
b. ADP receptor blocker
c. Murine monoclonal antibody
d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

The correct answer is: c. Murine monoclonal antibody

59
Q

Why is the use of Abciximab limited?
a. It has severe side effects
b. It’s ineffective
c. It’s expensive
d. It requires frequent administration

A

The correct answer is: c. It’s expensive

60
Q

Eptifibatide is available only in which form due to its toxicity when given orally?
a. Intramuscular
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intravenous
d. Topical

A

The correct answer is: c. Intravenous

61
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Eptifibatide?
a. It irreversibly inhibits COX-1 enzyme
b. It blocks ADP receptors on platelet membranes
c. It’s a GP IIb/IIIa blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation
d. It increases cAMP in platelets through phosphodiesterase inhibition

A

The correct answer is: c. It’s a GP IIb/IIIa blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dipyridamole?
a. COX-1 inhibition
b. ADP receptor blockade
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
d. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa blockade

A

The correct answer is: c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of Dipyridamole?
a. Primary prophylaxis in patients with prosthetic heart valves
b. Prophylactic therapy for angina pectoris
c. Treatment of acute myocardial infarction
d. Combination therapy with warfarin

A

The correct answer is: c. Treatment of acute myocardial infarction

64
Q

What is the main advantage of Dipyridamole?
a. No risk of bleeding
b. No side effects
c. Rapid onset of action
d. Long duration of action

A

The correct answer is: a. No risk of bleeding

65
Q

How is Dipyridamole typically administered?
a. Intravenously
b. Subcutaneously
c. Intramuscularly
d. Taken orally

A

The correct answer is: d. Taken orally

66
Q

Which of the following is a primary use of Dipyridamole?
a. Acute treatment of myocardial infarction
b. Primary prophylaxis in patients with prosthetic heart valves
c. Treatment of bacterial endocarditis
d. Management of chronic stable angina

A

The correct answer is: b. Primary prophylaxis in patients with prosthetic heart valves

67
Q

With which drug is Dipyridamole often combined for primary prophylaxis in patients with prosthetic heart valves?
a. Aspirin
b. Clopidogrel
c. Heparin
d. Warfari

A

The correct answer is: d. Warfarin

68
Q

What is another therapeutic use of Dipyridamole?
a. Treatment of acute stroke
b. Management of hypertension
c. Prophylactic therapy to treat angina pectoris in combination with aspirin
d. Primary prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

The correct answer is: c. Prophylactic therapy to treat angina pectoris in combination with aspirin

69
Q

What is the main disadvantage associated with Dipyridamole use?
a. Severe bleeding
b. Neutropenia
c. Headache
d. Gastrointestinal ulceration

A

The correct answer is: c. Headache

70
Q

What is a significant advantage of Dipyridamole compared to other antiplatelet drugs?
a. Rapid onset of action
b. No excess risk of bleeding
c. No drug interactions
d. Can be used in pregnancy

A

The correct answer is: b. No excess risk of bleeding

71
Q

True or False: Dipyridamole is associated with a high risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
a. True
b. False

A

The correct answer is: b. False

72
Q

Which of the following statements about heparin is true?
a. Standard heparin is derived from low-molecular-weight heparin.
b. Low-molecular-weight heparin is an animal extract.
c. Standard heparin is the newer type of heparin.
d. Low-molecular-weight heparin is derived from standard heparin.

A

The correct answer is: d. Low-molecular-weight heparin is derived from standard heparin.

73
Q

Compared to standard heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) has:
a. Lower bioavailability and a shorter-lasting effect.
b. Lower bioavailability and a longer-lasting effect.
c. Greater bioavailability and a longer-lasting effect.
d. Greater bioavailability and a shorter-lasting effect.

A

The correct answer is: c. Greater bioavailability and a longer-lasting effect.

74
Q

In preventing and treating venous thromboembolism, which of the following is true?
a. Standard heparin is more effective than LMWH.
b. LMWH is more effective than standard heparin.
c. Standard heparin and LMWH are equally effective.
d. Neither standard heparin nor LMWH are effective.

A

The correct answer is: b. LMWH is more effective than standard heparin.

75
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the administration of LMWH?
a. It is only available for intravenous administration.
b. It is only available for intramuscular administration.
c. It is available for subcutaneous administration.
d. It is only available for oral administration.

A

The correct answer is: c. It is available for subcutaneous administration.

76
Q

Compared to standard heparin, LMWH requires:
a. More frequent monitoring.
b. The same level of monitoring.
c. Less monitoring.
d. No monitoring at all.

A

The correct answer is: c. Less monitoring.

77
Q

The mechanism of action of heparin involves:
a. Inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
b. Directly inhibiting thrombin formation.
c. Binding to antithrombin III and inducing conformational changes.
d. Activating fibrinolysis.

A

The correct answer is: c. Binding to antithrombin III and inducing conformational changes.

78
Q

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of heparin?
a. Deep vein thrombosis.
b. Pulmonary embolism.
c. Myocardial infarction.
d. Cerebral ischemia.

A

The correct answer is: d. Cerebral ischemia.

79
Q

Heparin is the anticoagulant of choice for treating which of the following conditions in pregnant women?
a. Deep vein thrombosis.
b. Pulmonary embolism.
c. Venous thromboembolism.
d. Arterial thrombosis.

A

The correct answer is: c. Venous thromboembolism.

80
Q

Which of the following routes of administration is contraindicated for heparin due to hematoma formation?
a. Subcutaneous.
b. Intravenous.
c. Intramuscular.
d. Oral.

A

The correct answer is: c. Intramuscular.

81
Q

The maximal anticoagulant effect of heparin occurs:
a. Within hours after IV injection.
b. Within minutes after IV injection.
c. Within days after IV injection.
d. Immediately upon IV injection.

A

The correct answer is: b. Within minutes after IV injection.

82
Q

Heparin is prescribed on:
a. Milligram basis.
b. Unit basis.
c. Gram basis.
d. Molar basis.

A

The correct answer is: b. Unit basis.

83
Q

Which of the following statements about heparin’s effect on blood clotting is true?
a. It inhibits only in-vitro clotting of blood.
b. It inhibits only in-vivo clotting of blood.
c. It inhibits both in-vitro and in-vivo clotting of blood.
d. It has no effect on blood clotting.

A

The correct answer is: c. It inhibits both in-vitro and in-vivo clotting of blood.

84
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of heparin?
a. Bleeding.
b. Thrombocytopenia.
c. Hypercoagulability.
d. Hematoma formation.

A

The correct answer is: c. Hypercoagulability.

85
Q

Heparin is contraindicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. Recent surgery.
b. Severe hypertension.
c. Liver disease.
d. Mild infection.

A

The correct answer is: d. Mild infection.

86
Q

Warfarin is classified as:
a. A direct thrombin inhibitor.
b. A heparin derivative.
c. A vitamin K antagonist.
d. A fibrinolytic agent.

A

The correct answer is: c. A vitamin K antagonist.

87
Q

Warfarin causes hypocoagulability by:
a. Increasing the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
b. Directly inhibiting thrombin.
c. Inducing the formation of structurally incomplete clotting factors.
d. Enhancing fibrinolysis.

A

The correct answer is: c. Inducing the formation of structurally incomplete clotting factors.

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of warfarin?
a. Treatment of venous thrombosis.
b. Treatment of pulmonary emboli.
c. Prevention of arterial thrombosis in pregnancy.
d. None of the above.

A

The correct answer is: c. Prevention of arterial thrombosis in pregnancy.

89
Q

Unlike heparin, warfarin:
a. Is administered parenterally.
b. Has a rapid onset of action.
c. Induces hypocoagulability both in-vitro and in-vivo.
d. Induces hypocoagulability only in-vivo.

A

The correct answer is: d. Induces hypocoagulability only in-vivo.

90
Q

Warfarin is contraindicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. Pregnancy.
b. Active gastrointestinal ulceration.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. Mild renal impairment.

A

The correct answer is: d. Mild renal impairment.

91
Q

The primary purpose of thrombolytic therapy is:
a. Prevention of clot formation.
b. Rapid lysis of already formed clots.
c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation.
d. Activation of coagulation factors.

A

The correct answer is: b. Rapid lysis of already formed clots.

92
Q

Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of thrombolytic drugs is correct?
a. Fibrinolysis is initiated by activation of prothrombin into thrombin.
b. Plasmin catalyzes the formation of fibrin.
c. Plasminogen activators convert plasminogen to plasmin.
d. Tissue-type plasminogen activator inhibits single chain urokinase type plasminogen activator.

A

The correct answer is: c. Plasminogen activators convert plasminogen to plasmin.

93
Q

Regarding first generation thrombolytic drugs:
a. They are highly selective.
b. They are not selective.
c. They have fewer side effects than second generation drugs.
d. They are only used for pulmonary embolism.

A

The correct answer is: b. They are not selective.

94
Q

Alteplase (tPA) is classified as:
a. First generation thrombolytic drug.
b. Second generation thrombolytic drug.
c. Third generation thrombolytic drug.
d. Not a thrombolytic drug.

A

The correct answer is: b. Second generation thrombolytic drug.

95
Q

Alteplase was previously known as:
a. Streptokinase.
b. Urokinase.
c. Tissue-type plasminogen activator.
d. Single chain urokinase type plasminogen activator.

A

The correct answer is: c. Tissue-type plasminogen activator.

96
Q

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of Alteplase?
a. Treatment of myocardial infarction.
b. Treatment of pulmonary embolism.
c. Treatment of acute ischaemic stroke.
d. Treatment of deep vein thrombosis.

A

The correct answer is: d. Treatment of deep vein thrombosis.

97
Q

Compared to streptokinase and urokinase, Alteplase is:
a. Inferior in dissolving older clots.
b. Superior in dissolving older clots.
c. Equally effective in dissolving older clots.
d. Not used for dissolving clots.

A

The correct answer is: b. Superior in dissolving older clots.

98
Q

In the treatment of ischemic stroke, Alteplase should be administered:
a. Within 1 hour of stroke onset.
b. Within 3 hours of stroke onset.
c. Within 6 hours of stroke onset.
d. Within 12 hours of stroke onset.

A

The correct answer is: b. Within 3 hours of stroke onset.

99
Q

The main adverse effects of Alteplase include:
a. Bleeding including gastrointestinal and cerebral hemorrhages.
b. Liver toxicity and renal failure.
c. Severe allergic reactions and anaphylaxis.
d. Cardiotoxicity and arrhythmias.

A

The correct answer is: a. Bleeding including gastrointestinal and cerebral hemorrhages.

100
Q

Streptokinase is classified as:
a. First generation thrombolytic drug.
b. Second generation thrombolytic drug.
c. Third generation thrombolytic drug.
d. Not a thrombolytic drug.

A

The correct answer is: a. First generation thrombolytic drug.

101
Q

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of Streptokinase?
a. Acute pulmonary embolism.
b. Venous thrombosis.
c. Arterial thrombosis.
d. Chronic stable angina.

A

The correct answer is: d. Chronic stable angina.

102
Q

The adverse effects of Streptokinase include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Bleeding.
b. Hypersensitivity.
c. Nephrotoxicity.
d. Allergic reactions.

A

The correct answer is: c. Nephrotoxicity.

103
Q

Urokinase is classified as:
a. First generation thrombolytic drug.
b. Second generation thrombolytic drug.
c. Third generation thrombolytic drug.
d. Not a thrombolytic drug.

A

The correct answer is: a. First generation thrombolytic drug.

104
Q

The therapeutic uses of Urokinase include:
a. Severe pulmonary emboli and deep vein thrombosis.
b. Acute myocardial infarction and stroke.
c. Peripheral arterial disease and angina.
d. Chronic venous insufficiency and varicose veins.

A

The correct answer is: a. Severe pulmonary emboli and deep vein thrombosis.

105
Q

The main adverse effect of Urokinase is:
a. Bleeding.
b. Liver toxicity.
c. Kidney failure.
d. Cardiac arrhythmias.

A

The correct answer is: a. Bleeding.

106
Q

Reteplase and Tenecteplase are classified as:
a. First generation thrombolytic drugs.
b. Second generation thrombolytic drugs.
c. Third generation thrombolytic drugs.
d. Not thrombolytic drugs.

A

The correct answer is: c. Third generation thrombolytic drugs.

107
Q

Anistreplase is:
a. A first generation thrombolytic drug.
b. A preformed complex of streptokinase and plasminogen.
c. A third generation thrombolytic drug.
d. Not a thrombolytic drug.

A

The correct answer is: b. A preformed complex of streptokinase and plasminogen.

108
Q

Anistreplase is considered:
a. An active drug.
b. A prodrug.
c. An enzyme.
d. A hormone.

A

The correct answer is: b. A prodrug.

109
Q

Thrombolytic drugs are contraindicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. Pregnancy.
b. Metastatic cancers.
c. History of cerebrovascular accidents.
d. Stable coronary artery disease.

A

The correct answer is: d. Stable coronary artery disease.

110
Q

Which of the following drugs are used to treat bleeding caused by alteplase, streptokinase, and urokinase?
a. Warfarin and heparin
b. Vitamin K and protamine sulfate
c. Aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid
d. Sodium bicarbonate and aprotinin

A

The correct answer is: c. Aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid

111
Q

The main adverse effect of aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid is:
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding
b. Intravenous thrombosis
c. Renal failure
d. Hepatotoxicity

A

The correct answer is: b. Intravenous thrombosis

112
Q

Protamine sulfate is primarily used to:
a. Reverse the effect of warfarin
b. Reverse the effect of heparin
c. Treat vitamin K deficiency
d. Inhibit streptokinase bleeding

A

The correct answer is: b. Reverse the effect of heparin

113
Q

The adverse effects of protamine sulfate include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Bradycardia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypotension
d. Flushing

A

The correct answer is: b. Hypertension

114
Q

Vitamin K is used therapeutically to:
a. Overcome the effect of heparin
b. Overcome the effect of warfarin
c. Treat aspirin toxicity
d. Inhibit streptokinase bleeding

A

The correct answer is: b. Overcome the effect of warfarin

115
Q

The response time for Vitamin K treatment is:
a. Immediate
b. Within 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

A

The correct answer is: c. 24 hours

116
Q

The time required for Vitamin K to be effective is related to:
a. Its absorption rate
b. Its elimination half-life
c. The synthesis of new coagulation factors
d. Its binding to plasma proteins

A

The correct answer is: c. The synthesis of new coagulation factors

117
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is used in the treatment of:
a. Warfarin toxicity
b. Heparin overdose
c. Aspirin toxicity
d. Streptokinase-induced bleeding

A

The correct answer is: c. Aspirin toxicity

118
Q

The mechanism of action of sodium bicarbonate in treating aspirin toxicity is:
a. Neutralizing the acidity of aspirin
b. Increasing renal elimination of aspirin
c. Inhibiting aspirin absorption in the gut
d. Enhancing aspirin metabolism in the liver

A

The correct answer is: b. Increasing renal elimination of aspirin

119
Q

Aprotinin is used to:
a. Inhibit warfarin-induced bleeding
b. Inhibit heparin-induced bleeding
c. Inhibit streptokinase bleeding
d. Inhibit aspirin-induced bleeding

A

The correct answer is: c. Inhibit streptokinase bleeding

120
Q

Which of the following statements about drugs used to treat bleeding is FALSE?
a. Aminocaproic acid can cause intravenous thrombosis
b. Protamine sulfate can cause bradycardia
c. Vitamin K has an immediate effect on coagulation
d. Sodium bicarbonate increases renal elimination of aspirin

A

The correct answer is: c. Vitamin K has an immediate effect on coagulation

121
Q

The primary purpose of drugs used to treat bleeding is:
a. To prevent clot formation
b. To dissolve existing clots
c. To reverse the effects of anticoagulants or thrombolytics
d. To stimulate platelet production

A

The correct answer is: c. To reverse the effects of anticoagulants or thrombolytics

Final Revision (9 decks)

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