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Final Revision > PAST EXAMS > Flashcards

PAST EXAMS Flashcards

1
Q

True regarding long-acting injectable antipsychotic drugs:
a. Duration up to 2 to 4 weeks.
b. Higher physical dependence.
c. Higher extrapyramidal symptoms.
d. Decrease patient compliance.

A

The correct answer is: a. Duration up to 2 to 4 weeks.

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2
Q

True regarding antipsychotic drugs:
a. Increase dopaminergic and/or serotonergic neurotransmission.
b. First generation agents have lower extrapyramidal symptoms than second generation.
c. Are curative.
d. Second-generation agents have a high incidence of weight gain.

A

The correct answer is: d. Second-generation agents have a high incidence of weight gain.

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3
Q

All of the following are correct regarding tardive dyskinesia EXCEPT:
a. Is a compensatory response to long neuroleptic treatment.
b. Fly-catching motion of the tongue is remarkable for tardive dyskinesia.
c. It is always an irreversible side effect of neuroleptic drugs even after discontinuation.
d. It is due to the overpower of cholinergic input.

A

The correct answer is: c. It is always an irreversible side effect of neuroleptic drugs even after discontinuation.

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4
Q

All are true corresponding properties, EXCEPT:
a. Levetiracetam has a postulated mechanism of action that is not shared by any other anti-epileptic drug
b. Felbamate is a hepatic enzyme inhibitor and inducer
c. Lamotrigine complete dose should be initiated to have successful control of epilepsy
d. Tiagabine may be convulsant in normal people
c. Lamotrigine complete dose should be initiated to have successful control of epilepsy

A

The correct answer is: c. Lamotrigine complete dose should be initiated to have successful control of epilepsy

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5
Q

Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has a high risk of potentially fatal agranulocytosis and risk of seizures at high doses?
a. Risperidone.
b. Chlorpromazine.
c. Clozapine.
d. Haloperidol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Clozapine.

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6
Q

The last extrapyramidal side effect observed in patients undergoing antipsychotic treatment is:
a. Akathisias.
b. Dystonias.
c. Bradykinesia.
d. Tardive dyskinesia.

A

The correct answer is: d. Tardive dyskinesia.

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7
Q

Risperidone has lower potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms and lower tardive dyskinesia making this new agent ahead of old agents in treating schizophrenia:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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8
Q

The risk of appearance of movement disorder is time and dose dependent:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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9
Q

False regarding long-acting injectable antipsychotic drugs:
a. Little physical dependence.
b. Decrease patient compliance.
c. Lower extrapyramidal symptoms.
d. Duration up to 2 to 4 weeks.

A

The correct answer is: b. Decrease patient compliance.

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10
Q

Which of the following drug(s) is/are not recommended to be combined with Pimozide?
a. Amphetamines.
b. Bromocriptine.
c. Levodopa.
d. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is: d. All of the above.

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11
Q

The most likely drug to be associated with movement disorders:
a. Clozapine.
b. Risperidone.
c. Chlorpromazine.
d. Haloperidol.

A

The correct answer is: d. Haloperidol.

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12
Q

False regarding Chlorpromazine:
a. It is used to treat intractable hiccups.
b. It is more likely to be associated with constipation and urinary retention than clozapine.
c. It is more likely to be associated with movement disorders than haloperidol.
d. It is used to treat bipolar disorder.

A

The correct answer is: c. It is more likely to be associated with movement disorders than haloperidol.

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13
Q

True regarding the therapeutic uses of antipsychotic drugs:
a. Chlorpromazine is commonly used to treat intractable hiccups.
b. Prochlorperazine is commonly used to treat nausea raised from motion.
d. Prochlorperazine is commonly used to treat intractable hiccups.
c. Promethazine is a good antipsychotic drugs.

A

The correct answer is: a. Chlorpromazine is commonly used to treat intractable hiccups.

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14
Q

Which of the following anti-epilepticus drugs is considered a GABA-reuptake inhibitor:
a. Phenobarbital.
b. Tiagabine.
c. Diazepam.
d. Gabapentin.

A

The correct answer is: b. Tiagabine.

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15
Q

Which drug used in the management of seizure disorders is most likely to elevate the plasma concentration of other concomitantly administered drugs?
a. Valproic acid.
b. Phenobarbital.
c. Carbamazepine.
d. Phenytoin.

A

The correct answer is: a. Valproic acid.

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16
Q

The drug with low drug-drug interaction:
a. Carbamazepine.
b. Valproic acid.
c. Felbamate.
d. Gabapentin.

A

The correct answer is: d. Gabapentin.

17
Q

The first-line drug used for treating status epilepsy:
a. Diazepam.
b. Phenytoin.
c. Phenobarbital.
d. Gabapentin.

A

The correct answer is: a. Diazepam.

18
Q

Which statement about phenytoin is accurate?
a. Not used in trigeminal neuralgia management.
b. Drug of choice in myoclonic seizure.
c. Toxic effects may occur with only small increments in dose.
d. Half-life is increased if used with phenobarbital.

A

The correct answer is: c. Toxic effects may occur with only small increments in dose.

19
Q

Which of the following drugs is recommended to be used for the management of seizure in pregnancy?
a. Valproate.
b. Lamotrigine.
c. Phenobarbital.
d. Topiramate.

A

The correct answer is: b. Lamotrigine.

20
Q

True about gabapentin:
a. It is metabolized mainly in the liver.
b. It has a high incidence of drug-drug interactions.
c. It has zero-order absorption.
d. It is a GABA receptor agonist.

A

The correct answer is: c. It has zero-order absorption.

21
Q

Which statement about phenytoin is accurate?
a. Drug of choice in myoclonic seizure.
b. Toxic effects may occur with only small increments in dose.
c. Half-life is increased if used with phenobarbital.
d. Not used in trigeminal neuralgia management.

A

The correct answer is: b. Toxic effects may occur with only small increments in dose.

22
Q

Which statement concerning the proposed mechanisms of action of anticonvulsant is inaccurate?
a. Zonisamide blocks both voltage-gated sodium channels and t-type calcium currents.
b. Ethosuximide selectively blocks potassium ion (K+) channels in thalamic neurons.
c. Phenytoin prolongs the inactivated state of the Na+ channel.
d. Benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-mediated inhibitory actions.

A

The correct answer is: b. Ethosuximide selectively blocks potassium ion (K+) channels in thalamic neurons.

23
Q

A young female patient suffers from absence seizures. Which of the following statements about her proposed drug management is NOT accurate?
a. Ethosuximide and Topiramate are preferred drugs.
b. GIT side effects are common with valproic acid.
c. She must be referred to her doctor if using ethinyl estradiol for birth control with topiramate.
d. The use of ethosuximide in pregnancy may cause congenital malformations.

A

The correct answer is: d. The use of ethosuximide in pregnancy may cause congenital malformations.

24
Q

Diazepam is the first-line treatment for status epilepsy.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

25
Q

If you know that Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet prodrug that has to be metabolized to an active metabolite by CYP2C19 enzyme, giving omeprazole concomitantly with clopidogrel will have:
a. No effect on clopidogrel action.
b. Omeprazole can reduce the antiplatelet effect of clopidogrel.
c. Omeprazole increases the concentration of clopidogrel.
d. Omeprazole will increase bleeding from clopidogrel.

A

The correct answer is: b. Omeprazole can reduce the antiplatelet effect of clopidogrel.

26
Q

Alternate-day chronic administration of corticosteroids suppresses hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: b. False.

27
Q

Glucocorticoids reduce rheumatoid and osteoarthritic inflammations:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

28
Q

All have minimal mineralocorticoid effects except:
a. Betamethasone.
b. Prednisolone.
c. Dexamethasone.
d. Triamcinolone.

A

The correct answer is: b. Prednisolone.

29
Q

Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs may increase the possibility of pregnancy in women taking oral contraceptives containing estrogen?
a. Metformin.
b. Rosiglitazone.
c. Miglitol.
d. Glyburide.

A

The correct answer is: b. Rosiglitazone.

30
Q

Which of the following sentences is NOT correct?
a. To avoid a risk of hypoglycemic shock, insulin dose should be reduced when taking pramlintide.
b. Pramlintide is a synthetic amylin analog.
c. GI disturbance is the main side effect of pramlintide.
d. Pramlintide decreases postprandial insulin secretion.

A

The correct answer is: d. Pramlintide decreases postprandial insulin secretion.

31
Q

Regarding canagliflozin, which of the following sentences is NOT correct?
a. Increase water excretion.
b. May cause female genital mycotic infections.
c. Is a sodium-glucose transporter 2 inhibitor.
d. Is commonly indicated for the treatment of hypertension.

A

The correct answer is: d. Is commonly indicated for the treatment of hypertension.

32
Q

The insulin that does NOT have a peak of action is:
a. Glargine.
b. Glulisine.
c. Isophane.
d. Aspart.

A

The correct answer is: a. Glargine.

33
Q

Adding protamine to insulin leads to:
a. Intravenous administration capability.
b. A delay in insulin absorption.
d. Ultra-short duration of action.
c. Rapid absorption.

A

The correct answer is: b. A delay in insulin absorption.

34
Q

All of the following are the properties of insulin glargine, EXCEPT:
a. It has a short duration of action.
b. It has no peak.
c. It is slower in onset than NPH insulin.
d. It causes prolonged hypoglycemia.

A

The correct answer is: a. It has a short duration of action.

35
Q

All of the following are adverse reactions to insulin, EXCEPT:
a. Allergic reactions at the site of injection.
b. Weight loss.
c. Lipodystrophy.
d. Hypoglycemia.

A

The correct answer is: b. Weight loss.

36
Q

Glyburide is safe alternative to insulin therapy for diabetes in pregnancy:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

37
Q

Glitazones are recommended as a second-line alternative for patients who fail or have contraindications to metformin therapy:
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

38
Q

The best indicator of blood glucose control is:
a. Fasting blood glucose.
b. HbA1c.
c. Oral glucose tolerance test.
d. Random blood glucose.

A

The correct answer is: b. HbA1c.

Final Revision (9 decks)

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