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Final Revision > Epilepsy PART1 (The Disease) > Flashcards

Epilepsy PART1 (The Disease) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of epilepsy?
a. High fever.
b. Loss of consciousness.
c. Rapid heartbeat.
d. Severe headache.

A

The correct answer is: b. Loss of consciousness.

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2
Q

Abnormal movements during an epileptic seizure can include:
a. Only muscle twitches.
b. Various involuntary movements.
c. Only tremors.
d. Only spasms.

A

The correct answer is: b. Various involuntary movements.

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3
Q

Atypical or odd behavior observed in epilepsy includes:
a. Strange or uncharacteristic actions.
b. Normal daily activities.
c. Excessive sleeping.
d. Increased appetite.

A

The correct answer is: a. Strange or uncharacteristic actions.

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4
Q

Distorted perception during an epileptic episode can manifest as:
a. Clearer vision.
b. Improved hearing.
c. Altered sensory experiences.
d. Enhanced sense of taste.

A

The correct answer is: c. Altered sensory experiences.

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5
Q

Loss of consciousness in epilepsy is primarily due to:
a. Abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
b. Heart problems.
c. Lung issues.
d. High blood pressure.

A

The correct answer is: a. Abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

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6
Q

True regarding symptoms of epilepsy:
a. Atypical or odd behavior is a common symptom.
b. Only physical symptoms occur.
c. Mental status remains unaffected.
d. Symptoms are always the same in every episode.

A

The correct answer is: a. Atypical or odd behavior is a common symptom.

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7
Q

Epilepsy affects approximately what percentage of individuals by the time they are 80 years old?
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%

A

The correct answer is: c. 3%.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the prevalence of epilepsy?
a. It affects 1% of the population.
b. It affects approximately 3% of individuals by the age of 80.
c. It is rare and affects less than 1% of the population.
d. It affects more than 5% of the population.

A

The correct answer is: b. It affects approximately 3% of individuals by the age of 80.

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9
Q

Epilepsy is the ___ most common neurological disorder after cardiovascular and Alzheimer diseases.
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 4th
d. 5th

A

The correct answer is: b. 3rd.

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10
Q

True regarding the common neurological disorders:
a. Epilepsy is the most common neurological disorder.
b. Epilepsy is the 3rd most common neurological disorder after cardiovascular and Alzheimer diseases.
c. Epilepsy is less common than multiple sclerosis.
d. Epilepsy is more common than cardiovascular diseases.

A

The correct answer is: b. Epilepsy is the 3rd most common neurological disorder after cardiovascular and Alzheimer diseases.

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11
Q

It is expected that what percentage of epilepsy cases can be controlled completely?
a. 50-60%
b. 60-70%
c. 70-80%
d. 80-90%

A

The correct answer is: c. 70-80%.

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12
Q

True regarding the control of epilepsy:
a. 70-80% of cases can be controlled completely.
b. Less than 50% of cases can be controlled.
c. Only 60% of cases can be controlled completely.
d. More than 90% of cases can be controlled completely.

A

The correct answer is: a. 70-80% of cases can be controlled completely.

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13
Q

What percentage of epilepsy patients require more than one drug for management?
a. 5-10%
b. 10-15%
c. 15-20%
d. 20-25%

A

The correct answer is: b. 10-15%.

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14
Q

True regarding the treatment of epilepsy:
a. 10-15% of patients require more than one drug.
b. All patients can be managed with a single drug.
c. Less than 5% of patients require more than one drug.
d. More than 20% of patients require multiple drugs.

A

The correct answer is: a. 10-15% of patients require more than one drug.

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15
Q

What percentage of epilepsy patients may not achieve complete seizure control?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

The correct answer is: b. 10%.

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16
Q

True regarding the prognosis of epilepsy:
a. All patients achieve complete seizure control.
b. 10% of patients may not achieve complete seizure control.
c. Only 5% of patients may not achieve complete seizure control.
d. 20% of patients may not achieve complete seizure control.

A

The correct answer is: b. 10% of patients may not achieve complete seizure control.

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17
Q

In most cases, epilepsy has:
a. No identifiable cause.
b. A specific genetic cause.
c. An identifiable anatomical cause.
d. A single triggering event.

A

The correct answer is: a. No identifiable cause.

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18
Q

Epilepsy can be labeled as:
a. Primary and Secondary
b. Idiopathic and Symptomatic
c. Acute and Chronic
d. Simple and Complex

A

The correct answer is: b. Idiopathic and Symptomatic

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19
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy is characterized by:
a. Identifiable structural brain abnormalities.
b. Unknown etiology.
c. Being caused by infections.
d. Resulting from trauma.

A

The correct answer is: b. Unknown etiology.

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20
Q

Symptomatic epilepsy is secondary to:
a. An identifiable condition.
b. Unknown causes.
c. Primary brain tumors only.
d. Genetic predisposition.

A

The correct answer is: a. An identifiable condition.

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21
Q

Symptomatic epilepsy can be caused by alterations in:
a. Only blood pressure.
b. Blood gases, pH, electrolytes, blood glucose levels, sleep deprivation, alcohol intake, and stress.
c. Only electrolytes.
d. Only blood glucose levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. Blood gases, pH, electrolytes, blood glucose levels, sleep deprivation, alcohol intake, and stress.

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22
Q

Which term is also used for idiopathic epilepsy?
a. Secondary epilepsy.
b. Cryptogenic epilepsy.
c. Symptomatic epilepsy.
d. Reflex epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: b. Cryptogenic epilepsy.

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23
Q

True regarding idiopathic epilepsy:
a. No specific anatomic cause for the seizure is evident.
b. Always caused by tumors.
c. Always secondary to another condition.
d. Caused by metabolic disturbances.

A

The correct answer is: a. No specific anatomic cause for the seizure is evident.

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24
Q

Inherited abnormality in which system is associated with idiopathic epilepsy?
a. Cardiovascular system.
b. Respiratory system.
c. Central nervous system.
d. Digestive system.

A

The correct answer is: c. Central nervous system.

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25
Q

Most cases of epilepsy are:
a. Symptomatic.
b. Reflex.
c. Idiopathic.
d. Secondary to tumors.

A

The correct answer is: c. Idiopathic.

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26
Q

Which of the following can cause symptomatic epilepsy?
a. Genetic mutations.
b. Illicit drug use.
c. Vitamin deficiencies.
d. Healthy lifestyle.

A

The correct answer is: b. Illicit drug use.

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27
Q

Symptomatic epilepsy can result from:
a. Only head injury.
b. Only tumors.
c. Only hypoglycemia.
d. Tumors, head injury, hypoglycemia, meningeal infection, and rapid withdrawal of alcohol.

A

The correct answer is: d. Tumors, head injury, hypoglycemia, meningeal infection, and rapid withdrawal of alcohol.

28
Q

True about symptomatic epilepsy:
a. It always has an unknown cause.
b. It cannot be triggered by stress.
c. It is secondary to an identifiable condition.
d. It is the same as idiopathic epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: c. It is secondary to an identifiable condition.

29
Q

Partial seizures affect:
a. Only a portion of the brain (one lobe of one hemisphere).
b. The entire brain.
c. Both hemispheres equally.
d. The spinal cord only.

A

The correct answer is: a. Only a portion of the brain (one lobe of one hemisphere).

30
Q

Symptoms of partial seizures depend on:
a. Only the patient’s age.
b. The site of neuronal discharge.
c. The patient’s diet.
d. The external environment.

A

The correct answer is: b. The site of neuronal discharge.

31
Q

Symptoms of partial seizures also depend on:
a. The extent to which the electrical activity spreads to other neurons.
b. The time of day.
c. The patient’s physical activity.
d. The patient’s sleep patterns.

A

The correct answer is: a. The extent to which the electrical activity spreads to other neurons.

32
Q

True regarding consciousness in partial seizures:
a. It is always lost.
b. Consciousness is usually preserved.
c. Consciousness is always altered.
d. Consciousness is never affected.

A

The correct answer is: b. Consciousness is usually preserved.

33
Q

In simple partial seizures, hyperactive neurons are confined to:
a. Both hemispheres.
b. A single locus in the brain.
c. The spinal cord.
d. The peripheral nerves.

A

The correct answer is: b. A single locus in the brain.

34
Q

True about consciousness in simple partial seizures:
a. It is always lost.
b. It is frequently altered.
c. The patient does not lose consciousness.
d. It is always preserved.

A

The correct answer is: c. The patient does not lose consciousness.

35
Q

Abnormal activity in simple partial seizures affects:
a. A single limb or muscle group.
b. The entire body.
c. Multiple muscle groups.
d. The respiratory system.

A

The correct answer is: a. A single limb or muscle group.

36
Q

Sensory distortions in simple partial seizures include:
a. Enhanced vision.
b. Abnormal sensory experiences.
c. Improved hearing.
d. Heightened sense of taste.

A

The correct answer is: b. Abnormal sensory experiences.

37
Q

Complex partial seizures involve:
a. Simple sensory changes only.
b. Complex sensory hallucinations and mental distortion.
c. No sensory changes.
d. Enhanced mental clarity.

A

The correct answer si: b. Complex sensory hallucinations and mental distortion.

38
Q

Motor dysfunction in complex partial seizures can include:
a. Only muscle twitching.
b. Chewing movements, diarrhea, and/or urination.
c. Only tremors.
d. Only spasms.

A

The correct answer is: b. Chewing movements, diarrhea, and/or urination.

39
Q

True regarding consciousness in complex partial seizures:
a. It is always preserved.
b. It is never altered.
c. Consciousness is altered.
d. Consciousness is enhanced.

A

The correct answer is: c. Consciousness is altered.

40
Q

Generalized seizures may begin:
a. In the spinal cord.
b. Only in the peripheral nerves.
c. Locally and then progress to include abnormal electrical discharges throughout both hemispheres of the brain.
d. Only in one hemisphere and remain there.

A

The correct answer is: c. Locally and then progress to include abnormal electrical discharges throughout both hemispheres of the brain.

41
Q

True regarding consciousness in generalized seizures:
a. Consciousness is always preserved.
b. Consciousness is never affected.
c. Patient usually has an immediate loss of consciousness.
d. Consciousness is enhanced.

A

The correct answer is: c. Patient usually has an immediate loss of consciousness.

42
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures involve:
a. Only tonic phases.
b. Only clonic phases.
c. Loss of consciousness, followed by tonic (continuous contraction) and clonic (rapid contraction and relaxation) phases.
d. Only loss of consciousness.

A

The correct answer is: c. Loss of consciousness, followed by tonic (continuous contraction) and clonic (rapid contraction and relaxation) phases.

43
Q

Absence seizures are characterized by:
a. Brief, abrupt, and self-limiting loss of consciousness.
b. Prolonged periods of unconsciousness.
c. Continuous convulsions.
d. Gradual loss of consciousness.

A

The correct answer is: a. Brief, abrupt, and self-limiting loss of consciousness.

44
Q

The onset of absence seizures typically occurs at:
a. Birth.
b. 1-2 years old.
c. 3-5 years old.
d. 10-12 years old.

A

The correct answer is: c. 3-5 years old.

45
Q

During absence seizures, the patient exhibits:
a. Continuous muscle contractions.
b. Staring and rapid eye-blinking, which lasts for 3 to 5 seconds.
c. Loss of vision.
d. Severe headache.

A

The correct answer is: b. Staring and rapid eye-blinking, which lasts for 3 to 5 seconds.

46
Q

Myoclonic seizures involve:
a. Prolonged muscle contractions.
b. Short episodes of muscle contractions that may recur for several minutes.
c. No muscle involvement.
d. Continuous jerking of the whole body.

A

The correct answer is: b. Short episodes of muscle contractions that may recur for several minutes.

47
Q

Myoclonic seizures generally occur:
a. During sleep.
b. After awakening.
c. Before sleeping.
d. During intense physical activity.

A

The correct answer is: b. After awakening.

48
Q

Myoclonic seizures typically begin:
a. Only in adulthood.
b. Around puberty or early adulthood.
c. In infancy.
d. In old age.

A

The correct answer is: b. Around puberty or early adulthood.

49
Q

Febrile seizures are common in:
a. Adults.
b. Teenagers.
c. Young children.
d. Elderly individuals.

A

The correct answer is: c. Young children.

50
Q

Febrile seizures are associated with:
a. Low body temperature.
b. Seizures with illness accompanied by high fever.
c. Normal body temperature.
d. No change in body temperature.

A

The correct answer is: b. Seizures with illness accompanied by high fever.

51
Q

Febrile seizures typically involve:
a. Prolonged unconsciousness.
b. Generalized tonic-clonic convulsions of short duration.
c. Partial seizures.
d. Continuous muscle spasms.

A

The correct answer is: b. Generalized tonic-clonic convulsions of short duration.

52
Q

Status epilepticus is defined as:
a. A single short seizure.
b. Two or more seizures without recovery of full consciousness between them.
c. One seizure with full recovery of consciousness.
d. Multiple seizures with full recovery between them.

A

The correct answer is: b. Two or more seizures without recovery of full consciousness between them.

53
Q

Status epilepticus is:
a. Not life-threatening.
b. Easily managed without medical intervention.
c. Life-threatening and requires emergency treatment.
d. Self-limiting and resolves on its own.

A

The correct answer is: c. Life-threatening and requires emergency treatment.

54
Q

The choice of antiepileptic drugs is based on:
a. The patient’s diet.
b. The time of day.
c. The classification of the seizures.
d. The patient’s mood.

A

The correct answer is: c. The classification of the seizures.

55
Q

True regarding factors influencing drug choice for epilepsy:
a. Patient-specific variables (age, comorbid medical conditions, lifestyle, and personal preference) are considered.
b. Only the classification of seizures matters.
c. Only the cost of the drug is important.
d. The patient’s diet is the primary consideration.

A

The correct answer is: a. Patient-specific variables (age, comorbid medical conditions, lifestyle, and personal preference) are considered.

56
Q

Characteristics of the drug that influence the choice include:
a. Only the color of the medication.
b. The time it takes to manufacture.
c. Cost and interactions with other medications.
d. The shape of the pill.

A

The correct answer is: c. Cost and interactions with other medications.

57
Q

In newly diagnosed epilepsy patients, the initial treatment approach is:
a. Polytherapy with multiple drugs.
b. Monotherapy with a single agent.
c. No medication.
d. Only lifestyle changes.

A

The correct answer is: b. Monotherapy with a single agent.

58
Q

Monotherapy in epilepsy treatment is continued until:
a. Seizures are controlled or toxicity occurs.
b. The patient complains.
c. The patient wishes to stop.
d. A new medication is developed.

A

The correct answer is: a. Seizures are controlled or toxicity occurs.

59
Q

True regarding monotherapy in epilepsy:
a. Patients receiving monotherapy exhibit better adherence and fewer side effects.
b. It always requires higher doses.
c. It leads to more side effects.
d. It is only suitable for children.

A

The correct answer is: a. Patients receiving monotherapy exhibit better adherence and fewer side effects.

60
Q

For newly diagnosed epilepsy, therapy is considered after:
a. The second seizure.
b. The first seizure.
c. The third seizure.
d. Any seizure.

A

The correct answer is: a. The second seizure.

61
Q

The first-choice drug for epilepsy should be chosen based on:
a. The patient’s preference.
b. The doctor’s availability.
c. The patient’s type of seizure, considering toxicity and characteristics of the patient.
d. The color of the pill.

A

The correct answer is: c. The patient’s type of seizure, considering toxicity and characteristics of the patient.

62
Q

The dosage of the first-choice drug should be:
a. Kept constant.
b. Gradually titrated to the maximally tolerated level or optimal seizure control.
c. Randomly changed.
d. Reduced every week.

A

The correct answer is: b. Gradually titrated to the maximally tolerated level or optimal seizure control.

63
Q

If seizures persist with the first-choice drug:
a. Continue the same drug.
b. Stop all medications.
c. Introduce a second-choice drug and taper the first drug if adverse effects are significant.
d. Only monitor the patient without any changes.

A

The correct answer is: c. Introduce a second-choice drug and taper the first drug if adverse effects are significant.

64
Q

True regarding the use of a second-choice drug:
a. Always discontinue the first drug immediately.
b. Titrate the second drug to a therapeutic level before tapering and discontinuing the first drug.
c. Use both drugs at the highest doses.
d. Never introduce a second drug.

A

The correct answer is: b. Titrate the second drug to a therapeutic level before tapering and discontinuing the first drug.

65
Q

If seizures persist after introducing a second-choice drug:
a. Consider rational combination of two drugs.
b. Stop all medications.
c. Only increase the dose of the second drug.
d. Continue with the first drug only.

A

The correct answer is: a. Consider rational combination of two drugs.

66
Q

If seizures persist even with a combination of two drugs:
a. Consider vagal nerve stimulation.
b. Stop all treatments.
c. Introduce a third drug.
d. Increase the dose of both drugs.

A

The correct answer is: a. Consider vagal nerve stimulation.

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