Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NS > HY Questions > Flashcards

HY Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What proteins compose gap junctions that form electrical synapses between neurons?

A
  1. Connexons.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What second messenger is involved with all norepinephrine receptors?

A
  1. cAMP.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the degradation of cAMP?

A
  1. Phosphodiesterase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which muscle spindle afferent fibers transmit information about muscle contraction velocity?

A
  1. Ia afferent fibers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the response of Golgi tendon organs to muscle contraction?

A
  1. Marked increase in firing rate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What ion is primarily responsible for resting membrane potential in neurons and glia?

A
  1. Potassium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are the cell bodies of olfactory neurons located?

A
  1. Olfactory epithelium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MOA of Baclofen?

A
  1. GABA-B agonist.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the only sensory modality to bypass the thalamus?

A
  1. Smell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What enzyme generates diacylglycerol?

A
  1. Phospholipase C.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes the miniature end-plate potential?

A
  1. The spontaneous release of one quanta of ACh.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants?

A
  1. They block reuptake of NE and 5-HT.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is responsible for the BBB?

A
  1. Tight junctions between endothelial cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which circumventricular organ has an intact BBB?

A
  1. The subcommissural organ.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What ion is responsible for the initial depolarization of cochlear hair cells?

A
  1. Potassium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What obstructs the NMDA channel pore at resting membrane potential?

A
  1. Magnesium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What initiates contraction in smooth muscle?

A
  1. Calcium-calmodulin activation of myosin light chain kinase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in dopamine synthesis?

A
  1. Tyrosine hydroxlyase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A
  1. It increases transmembrane resistance and decreases membrane capacitance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What drug blocks voltage-gated Na channels?

A
  1. Tetrodotoxin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the macula of the utricle?

A
  1. Detect linear acceleration in the horizontal plane.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the shape of the receptive fields of primary visual cortex neurons?

A
  1. Rectangular.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fibers from the ipsilateral retina synapse in which layers of the lateral geniculate body?

A
  1. 2, 3, and 5.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What nerve fibers mediate the sensation of sharp pain?

A
  1. A-delta.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What protein mediates fast anterograde axonal transport?

A
  1. Kinesin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the primary target of dentate nucleus efferent fibers?

A
  1. VL nucleus of the thalamus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most excitatory fibers of the CNS?

A
  1. Climbing fibers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell?

A
  1. Glycine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of receptors are present on the Renshaw cell?

A
  1. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you differentiate a femoral neuropathy from a lumbar plexopathy?

A
  1. Hip adduction will be preserved in the former and absent in the latter.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the only output of the cerebellar cortex?

A
  1. The Purkinje cell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What nerve is compressed in the tarsal tunnel?

A
  1. Posterior tibial nerve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What structure contains the highest levels of substance P in the brain?

A
  1. The substantia nigra.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What structures are connected by the stria medullary thalami?

A
  1. The septal nuclei and the habenular nuclei.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What cranial nerve contains the nodosal ganglion?

A
  1. The vagus nerve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where do SVA fibers synapse in the brainstem?

A
  1. The nucleus of the solitary tract (gustatory nucleus).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where do the frontopontine fibers travel in the internal capsule?

A
  1. The anterior limb.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What nerve is compressed by Struther’s ligament?

A
  1. The median nerve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is the posterior interosseus nerve often entrapted?

A
  1. At the supinator (arcade of Frohse).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where do GVA fibers traveling in Hering’s nerve synapse?

A
  1. The inferior aspect of the solitary tract.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When does the posterior neuropore close?

A
  1. Post-ovulatory day 26.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where do first-order sympathetic neurons to the pupillary dilator originate?

A
  1. The hypothalamus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is the cortical area for macular vision located?

A
  1. Occipital poles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is the first site of binaural convergence in the auditory pathway?

A
  1. The superior olives.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What structures pass through the annulus of Zinn?

A
  1. CN II, III, VI, the ophthalmic artery and the nasociliary nerve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where do preganglionic parasympathetic fibers destined for the lacrimal glands synapse?

A
  1. The pterygopalatine ganglion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What innervates the cricothyroid?

A
  1. The superior laryngeal nerve (of CN X).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What fibers travel in the juxtarestiform body?

A
  1. Vestibulocerebellars and cerebellovestibulars.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What region of primary somesthetic cortex do muscle spindles project?

A
  1. 3a.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What artery perfuses the retrolenticular internal capsule?

A
  1. The anterior choroidal artery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the 5-year stroke risk of asymptomatic 80% carotid artery stenosis?

A
  1. 16.5% (3.3% per year x 5 years).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What gene is responsible for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Dystrophin (Xp21).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What cranial nerve is most commonly involved in neurosarcoidosis?

A
  1. CN VII.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the most common cause of aseptic (viral) meningitis?

A
  1. Enteroviruses.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What lesions result in downbeat nystagmus?

A
  1. Lesions of the cervicomedullary junction.
56
Q

What intestinal disease is associated with a hypercoagulable state?

A
  1. Ulcerative colitis.
57
Q

What is the most common cause of occult spinal dysraphism?

A
  1. Spinal lipoma.
58
Q

Maternal hyperglycemia is a risk factor for which spinal developmental disorder?

A
  1. Caudal regression syndrome.
59
Q

Trisomy 13 or 18 is associated with what developmental anomaly of the brain?

A
  1. Holoprosencephaly.
60
Q

What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with pre- and postcentral gyrus atrophy and focal arm dystonia?

A
  1. Corticobasal degeneration.
61
Q

What chromosome is abnormal in Huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Chromosome 4.
62
Q

What gene is abnormal in spinobulbar muscular atrophy (Kennedy’s disease)?

A
  1. The androgen receptor gene (X chromosome).
63
Q

What neurocutaneous syndrome is associated with sphenoid dysplasia and optic gliomas?

64
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

65
Q

What neurocutaneous syndrome often presents with epistaxis?

A
  1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber disease).
66
Q

What HLA allele is associated with multiple sclerosis?

67
Q

What abnormal compound accumulates in patients with metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A
  1. Sulfatide.
68
Q

What GI tract infection is associated with the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  1. Campylobacter jejuni infections.
69
Q

What stage of sleep is associated with night terrors?

A
  1. Stages 3 and 4 (deep sleep).
70
Q

What disorders are associated with incremental responses on repetitive nerve stimulation studies?

A
  1. Presynaptic disorders of the neuromuscular junction (Lambert-Eaton syndrome and botulism).
71
Q

What are the EEG findings of infantile spasms (West syndrome)?

A
  1. Hypsarrythmia.
72
Q

What is the most common pathogen associated with cerebral abscesses?

A
  1. Streptococcus milleri.
73
Q

What is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis in AIDS patients?

A
  1. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine.
74
Q

What arterial occlusion results in alexia without agraphia?

A
  1. Dominant PCA.
75
Q

What arterial occlusion is classically associated with lateral medullary infarction (Wallenberg’s syndrome)?

76
Q

What tumor exhibits desmosomes and is vimentin positive?

A
  1. Meningioma.
77
Q

What intracranial tumor is associated with polycythemia?

A
  1. Hemangioblastoma.
78
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of familial cavernomas?

A
  1. Autosomal dominant.
79
Q

What differentiates pituitary hyperplasia from a pituitary adenoma?

A
  1. The presence of reticulin with pituitary hyperplasia.
80
Q

What is the composition of the Lewy body?

A
  1. Ubiquitin, alpha synuclein, alphaB crystallin, and neurofilaments.
81
Q

What chromosome is abnormal in Huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Chromosome 4.
82
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Gaucher’s disease?

A
  1. Glucocerebrosidase.
83
Q

What is the most common isolate from cerebral abscesses?

A
  1. Streptococcus milleri.
84
Q

What leukodystrophy involves the subcortical U fibers and results from deficiencies of the enzyme aspartoacylase?

A
  1. Canavan’s disease.
85
Q

What allele is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis?

86
Q

What type of closed head injury often affects the splenium of the corpus callosum?

87
Q

What cranial nerve is most commonly involved with neurosarcoidosis?

88
Q

What type of CNS tumor is associated with syncytiotrophoblasts?

A
  1. Choriocarcinoma.
89
Q

What type of CNS tumor exhibits “stag horn” vasculature?

A
  1. Hemangiopericytoma.
90
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in meningiomas?

A
  1. Monosomy 22.
91
Q

What CNS tumor is often associated with prominent granulomatous inflammation?

A
  1. Germinoma.
92
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in GBM?

A
  1. Gains of chromosome 7 or 20.
93
Q

What is the most common molecular abnormality in GBM?

A
  1. Allelic loss of 10p and 10q.
94
Q

What disorder exhibits ballooned neurons and atrophy of the pre- and postcentral gyri?

A
  1. Corticobasal degeneration.
95
Q

What is the appearance of an acute intracerebral hematoma on T2WI?

A
  1. Markedly hypointense to surrounding brain.
96
Q

What is the most common location of a spinal meningioma?

A
  1. Thoracic spine.
97
Q

What is the most common location of choroid plexus papillomas in children?

A
  1. The lateral ventricles.
98
Q

What tumor has signal characteristics that are similar to CSF on T1 and T2 but also often exhibits increased signal on DWI?

A
  1. Epidermoid.
99
Q

What is the most common location for spinal cellular ependymomas?

A
  1. Intramedullary in the cervical spinal cord.
100
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in meningiomas?

A
  1. Monosomy 22.
101
Q

What intramedullary spinal cord tumor is associated with NF-2?

A
  1. Ependymoma.
102
Q

What is the only non-enhancing intraventricular tumor?

A
  1. Subependymoma.
103
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in Hangman’s fractures?

A
  1. Hyperextension.
104
Q

What blood vessel is most commonly responsible for compression of the trigeminal nerve with trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  1. Superior cerebellar artery.
105
Q

What is the method activity of BCNU?

A
  1. DNA alkylating agent.
106
Q

What is the primary contraindication to the surgical treatment of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. No significant response to prior medical therapy with L-dopa.
107
Q

What is the treatment of choice for chronic, intractable brachial plexus avulsion pain?

A
  1. DREZ lesioning.
108
Q

What is the most common mechanism of injury in patients with odontoid fractures?

A
  1. Hyperflexion injuries.
109
Q

What type of spinal AVM consists of a dural AV fistula and often presents with chronic neurological deterioration secondary to venous hypertension?

110
Q

What is the surgical treatment of choice in children with frequent atonic seizures that are refractory to medical therapies?

A
  1. Corpus callosotomy.
111
Q

What basal cisterns contain portions of the basal vein of Rosenthal?

A
  1. The ambient and crural cisterns.
112
Q

What structure separates the facial nerve from the superior vestibular nerve?

A
  1. Bill’s bar.
113
Q

What structure separates the chiasmatic cistern from the interpeduncular cistern?

A
  1. Liliequist’s membrane.
114
Q

What cranial nerve palsy is associated with Gradenigo’s syndrome?

115
Q

What is the most common cause of malignant cerebral edema within 24 hours of the initial closed head injury in the pediatric population?

A
  1. Hyperemia.
116
Q

What is unique about distal anterior cerebral artery aneurysms?

A
  1. They commonly result from trauma against the falx or are mycotic in nature.
117
Q

What is the annual hemorrhage risk of intracranial AVMs?

118
Q

Where is the mosts common intracranial location for dural AV fistulas?

A
  1. Along the transverse sinus.
119
Q

What feature of dural AV fistula necessitates treatment?

A
  1. The presence of retrograde cortical venous drainage.
120
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for familial cavernomas?

A
  1. Autosomal dominant.
121
Q

What cranial nerves are susceptible to injury during carotid endarterectomy?

A
  1. The hypoglossal nerve and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.
122
Q

What familial syndrome is associated with pituitary adenomas?

A
  1. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1.
123
Q

What is the most common pineal region tumor in children?

A
  1. Germinoma.
124
Q

What is the most common pattern of hearing loss in patients with acoustic neuromas?

A
  1. High frequency sensorineural hearing loss.
125
Q

What level is most commonly involved with degenerative isthmic spondylolisthesis?

126
Q

What approach is associated with the highest morbidity in the treatment of thoracic disc herniations?

A
  1. Dorsal laminectomy.
127
Q

What condition results in prominent lymphocyte casts on urinalysis?

A
  1. Acute interstitial nephritis.
128
Q

What EKG findings are associated with hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Peaked T waves and a prolonged PR interval and QRS duration.
129
Q

What is the treatment of choice for arsenic poisoning?

130
Q

What inhalational anesthetic is associated with a decreased seizure threshold?

A
  1. Enflurane.
131
Q

What blood product should be used in the treatment of coagulopathy associated with von Willebrand’s disease?

A
  1. Cryoprecipitate.
132
Q

What disorder exhibits prominent epithelial cell casts on urinalysis?

A
  1. Acute tubular necrosis.
133
Q

What is the most sensitive method of diagnosing an intraoperative venous air embolus?

A
  1. Transesophageal echo.
134
Q

What position is ideal to minimize complications from a venous air embolism?

A
  1. Left lateral decubitus.
135
Q

What barbiturate lowers seizure threshold?

A
  1. Methohexital.

NS (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions