HIV and HTLV Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of virus is HIV?

A

RNA retrovirus

Uses reverse transcriptase to convert RNA to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cells do HIV infect?

A

CD4+ T-Helper Cells

Also macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of genome does HIV have?

A

Diploid: Carries two copies of (+) stranded RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RNA is tightly bound to what key enzymes

A

Reverse Transcriptase: Makes DNA from RNA
Aspartate Protease: Cleavage of Proteins
Integrase: Integrate DNA into host cell DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe capsid of HIV.

A

Cone-shaped (conical) capsid

  • Composed of multiple copies of p24 proteins
  • Non-variable protein structure as virus replicates
  • Antibody response can be generated but it is not strong enough to neutralize virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the significance of p24 protein?

A

Antibodies for p24 can be used to detect HIV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is HIV naked or enveloped?

A

HIV is enveloped by by phospholipid from human cell membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What protein is in HIV envelope?

A

Env protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What glycoproteins does the cap of the env protein contain?

A

gp120: Attachment to T cells
gp41: Fusion and entry into T cells
Both formed as a single protein (gp160) and cleaved to become two smaller proteins (gp120 and gp41)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What accessory genes are necessary for HIV to replicate?

A

tat: activates gene transcription
rev: transports mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gene for gp120

A

Mutates rapidly (antigenic variation)
V3 loop portion is highly immunogenic (antibodies will be built against this portion)
Varies significantly during reproduction so antibody neutralization is difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gp120 glycoprotein is for

A

docking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gp41 transmembrane glycoprotein is for

A

fusion and entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 main genes that encode for HIV?

A

Gag: nucleocapsid
Pol: polymerase
Env: envelope proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are auxilliary genes?

A

Genes not required for replication
Nef, viv, vpr, vpu, vpx
Nef: decreases CD4 proteins and MHC I on T-cell surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CCR5 and CXCR4

A

Major lymphocyte receptors used by HIV to enter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CCR5-tropic viruses

A

Replicate in monocytes/macrophages (M-tropic)
Can also infect dendritic cells to traffick into lymph nodes (contain many CD4 cells -replication site)
Occur early: sexually transmitted to monocytes and macrophages in epithelial layer or urogenital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CXCR4-tropic viruses

A

Replicate more efficiently in T cells

Occur later after infection has developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mutations in which gene is associated with decreased susceptibility to HIV infection?

A

CCR5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe pathophysiology of HIV.

A
  1. HIV attacks cells that have CD4 on their surfaces
  2. gp120 (HIV surface glycoprotein) and CD4 bind
  3. gp120 then binds to co-receptor (either CCR5 or CXCR4)
  4. gp41 can now serve role as anchoring protein
  5. HIV can now gain entry into cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The glycoproteins on the surface of HIV are

A

gp120 with variable loop regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cells have CD4 on their surfaces?

A

T cells, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells

-All cell types that HIV can infect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HIV-1

A

Causes majority of infection worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HIV-2

A

Important cause of infection in West Africa

25
Q

Why do NNRTIs not affect HIV-2?

A

HIV-2 has a different reverse transcriptase

26
Q

What is typical progressor?

A

Pt not being treated with drugs

27
Q

CD4 T-cell count

A

Determined by flow cytometry
Normal = 1000cells/mm^3
AIDS < 200
Used to initiate prophylaxis against opportunistic infections

28
Q

Lower set point =

A

Lower level of viremia -better prognosis for pt

29
Q

HA, muscle aches, sore throat, fever, and swollen LN (flu-like sx) are due to

A

cytokine storm

30
Q

Diarrhea or other GI complaints are due to

A

Infection of GALT cells

31
Q

Macrophage is a professional

A

APC (antigen presenting cell)

32
Q

Macrophages present antigen peptides to T-cells in the form of

A

MHC

33
Q

T-cells generate cytokines that activate

A

B cells

34
Q

B cells differentiate into

A

plasma cells

35
Q

Plasma cells generate

A

antibodies

36
Q

CD4 T-cells secrete cytokines cytotoxic T cells which go after

A

Virus-infected cells

37
Q

Protozoal Opportunistic Infections

A

Toxoplasmosis, Crytosporidosis

38
Q

Fungal Opportunistic Infections

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci
Candidiadis, Crytococcosus
Histoplasmosis, Coccidiomycosis

39
Q

Opportunistic Bacterial Infections

A

Mycobacterium avium complex
Atypical mycobacterial disease
Salmonella septicemia
Multiple or recurrent pyogenic bacterial infection

40
Q

Viral Opportunistic Infections

A

CMV, HSV, VZV, EBV, JC virus (PML)

41
Q

Time between infection and onset of AIDs in typical progressor

A

10 years

42
Q

Time between infection and onset of AIDs in rapid progressor

A

2-3 years

43
Q

Viral Load

A

Quantification of HIV RNA

Used to monitor effect of drug therapy

44
Q

Initial HIV infection is asymptomatic in

A

10-60% of people

45
Q

Acute HIV syndrome

A

2-4 weeks after exposure
Fever, myalgias, sore throat, cervical adenopathy
Sometimes maculopapular rash
Similar to mononucleosis, EBV

46
Q

Severe immunosuppression

A

Occurs after acute infection and latency period.

Symptoms from opportunistic infections secondary to low CD4 count.

47
Q

Clinical Latency Period

A

Body is fighting virus but pt has no sx

CD8 T-cells

48
Q

Rare HIV features

A

Dementia: Virus infects macrophages to get into CNS. Also can infect microglial cells.
Pulmonary hypertension
Cardiomyopathy and HF

49
Q

ELISA Test

A

Screens for antibodies. Sensitive but many false positives.

50
Q

Western blot

A

Confirmatory for positive ELISA test. Specific.

51
Q

CDC Testing Recommendations

A

Combination antigen/antibody tests = 4th generation tests

Test for both p24 antigen and HIV antibodies

52
Q

HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation assay

A

Done if 4th generation test is positive

53
Q

For acute HIV (febrile mononucleosis-like illness) you can test for

A
HIV RNA (viral load)
p24 is not present yet
54
Q

Congenital HIV Test

A

PCR for babies b/c maternal HIV antibodies persist for months

55
Q

TMP-SMX

A

Prophylactic treatment for pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci
CD4 count less than 200

56
Q

Histoplasmosis occurs in

A

Mississippi and Ohio River valleys

57
Q

Newer guidelines recommend treating

A

All patients

58
Q

HAART =

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy