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Human Anatomy > Histology, Embryology, and Integumentary System > Flashcards

Histology, Embryology, and Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

3 primary vesicles

A

Forebrain, Midbrain, Hindbrain

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2
Q

Forebrain

A

Telencephalon & Diecephalon

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3
Q

Midbrain

A

Mesencephalon

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4
Q

Hindbrain

A

Metencephalon, Myelencephalon

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5
Q

5 secondary vesicles

A

Telencephalon, Diecephalon, Mesencephalon, Metencephalon, Myelencephalon.

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6
Q

Telencephalon

A

Cerebral hemispheres, lateral ventricles

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7
Q

Diecephalon

A

Thalami, etc. Third ventricle

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8
Q

Mesencephalon

A

Midbrain, aqueduct

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9
Q

Metencephalon

A

Pons & Cerebellum, upper part of fourth ventricle.

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10
Q

Myelencephalon

A

Medulla, lower part of fourth ventricle.

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11
Q

Down Syndrome

A

3 copies of chromosome 21

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12
Q

Pluripotential Cells, choices of what a cell becomes are determined not as a consequence of cell lineage but rather in…

A

Response to cues from immediate surroundings

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13
Q

Normal development and function of Pluripotential cells require…

A

Architectural precision and coordination

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14
Q

Pluripotential cells, The interactions that lead to a change in the course of development of at least one of the
interactants are called…

A

Inductions

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15
Q

Most inducible tissues appear to pass through a __________ but more or less
sharply delimited ____________ _______ in which they are competent to respond to an inductive signal from the neighboring tissues.

A

Transient, physiologic state

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16
Q

Because this state of receptiveness is limited in time, ___________________________
of one or more components in an interacting system __________________________________.

A

A delay in the development; may lead to failure of an inductive interaction.

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17
Q

Oxygenated blood delivered
from placenta to fetus via…

A

umbilical vein

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18
Q

De-oxygenated blood returns to
placenta via

A

umbilical arteries

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19
Q

any agent that can produce a birth defect (congenital anomaly) or increase the incidence of a defect in the population.

A

teratogen

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20
Q

what is the most common form of an atrial septal defect?

A

Patent Foramen Ovale

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21
Q

Four types of tissue

A

Connective, Muscle, nervous, and epithelium

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22
Q

Primary Glycoaminoglycans in Compression Zones

A

Chondroitin 6 sulfate

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23
Q

Primary Glycoaminoglycans in Tensile Zones

A

Dermantan Sulfate

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24
Q

Ligaments and tendons adapt to decreased load by

A

decreasing their collagen content and crosslinking

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25
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

mixture of dense connective tissue and articular cartilage

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26
Q

Fibrocartilage provides what?

A

resilience and shock absorption of articular cartilage and the tensile strength of ligaments and tendons.

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27
Q

Structural subunit of compact
bone is the

A

osteon

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28
Q

Three main types of joints

A

Fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints, and synovial joints

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29
Q

An articulation that allows moderate to extensive motion

A

diarthrosis

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30
Q

What does Hyaluronate do?

A

reduces friction

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31
Q

What does lubricin do?

A

Lubrication

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32
Q

What does synovial fluid do?

A

Keeps joint surfaces lubricated, reduces friction, provides nourishment.

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33
Q

Hinge Joint

A

Humero-ulnar joint, Interphalangeal joint, Uniplanar motion

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34
Q

Pivot joint

A

Humeroradial joint, Atlanta-axial joint, single axis of rotation

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35
Q

Ellipsoid Joint

A

Radiocarpal joint, 2 axes of rotation

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36
Q

Ball and socket joint

A

Glenohumeral joint, Coxofemoral (hip) joint, 3 axes of rotation

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37
Q

Plane Joint

A

Slide or combination of slide and rotation, Intercarpal or intertarsal joints.

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38
Q

Saddle Joint

A

Thumb, sternoclavicular joint, biplaner motion

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39
Q

Condyloid Joint

A

Knee joint, Biplaner motion

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40
Q

Pluripotential cells, The interactions that lead to a change in the course of development of at least one of theinteractants are called…

A

Inductions

41
Q

what is the normal range of skin pH in healthy people?

A

4 to 6.5

42
Q

what helps to maintain a normal skin flora by serving as a protective barrier against bacterial and fungal infections

A

acid mantle

43
Q

Sterogenesis

A

ability to recognize an object by touch

44
Q

pacinian receptors

A

deep pressure & vibrational sensation

45
Q

Meissner’s corpuscles

A

responsible for sensing light touch

46
Q

superficial (acute) pain

A

usually transmitted by very rapid nerve impulses by A-Delta fibers and tends to be sharp but ceases when the pain stimulus stops

47
Q

deep (chronic) pain

A

pain impulses are transmitted slowly by C fibers

48
Q

which three sources does blood supply the skin?

A

Direct cutaneous, musculocutaneous, and fasciocutaneous systems

49
Q

what is the role of lymphoid tissue?

A

it is essential for adaptive immunity

50
Q

dermis

A

dense layer of interlacing collagen and elastic fibers

51
Q

reticular dermis

A

composed of collagen bundles that anchor the skin to subcutaneous tissue

52
Q

subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis)

A

function is to promote an ongoing blood supply, provides a cushion between skin layers, muscles, and bones. Also insulates the body.

53
Q

the superficial fascia is connected to the skin by…

A

fibrous septa (skin ligaments)

54
Q

retinaculum cutis superficialis

A

attaches the superficial fascia to the skin, perpendicular

55
Q

retinaculum cutis profundus

A

attaches the superficial fascia to the deep fascia, more oblique direction

56
Q

sebaceous glands

A

produce sebum, a key component of the epidermal barrier

57
Q

superficial burn (sunburn)

A

damage is limited to the epidermis

58
Q

partial-thickness burn

A

epidermis and superficial dermis are damaged with blistering

59
Q

Full-thickness burn

A

the entire thickness of the skin is damaged and often the subcutaneous tissue, sensory endings are destroyed

60
Q

4th-degree burn

A

damage extends through the entire thickness of the skin into underlying fascia, muscle, or bone.

61
Q

wound healing is often considered in four overlapping temporal phases:

A

hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling

62
Q

hemostasis

A

initiates fibrin-fibronectin clot formation

63
Q

inflammation

A

neutrophils and monocytes are recruited to wound sites within minutes of injury by a variety of chemotactic signals

64
Q

proliferation

A

involves re-epithelialization and granulation tissue formation which takes place more or less simultaneously

65
Q

remodeling

A

plays key role in wound contraction, thought to generate forces that pull normal dermal and adipose tissue into the wound defect.

66
Q

epimysium

A

surrounds entire muscle belly

67
Q

perimysium

A

divides muscles into fascicles

68
Q

endomysium

A

surrounds individual muscle fibers

69
Q

peripheral nerve

A

epineurium - encloses nerve trunk
perineurium - separates fascia
endoneurium - separates axons

70
Q

type 1 collagen

A

most prevalent type of collagen and constitutes about 90% of body collagen (gives connective tissues high tensile strength)

71
Q

type 2 collagen

A

main constituent of fibrillary component of cartilage

72
Q

loose connective tissue

A

creates a gliding surface between two muscles and permits their independent contraction

73
Q

white adipose tissue function

A

primary function is to store energy and act as a cushion

74
Q

brown adipose tissue function

A

thermogenesis

75
Q

Ruffini”s Nerve Endings

A

embedded in the fascial tissue allowing them to perceive the stretching of the superficial fasica

76
Q

pacinian corpuscles

A

sensitive to compression

77
Q

aponeurotic fascia

A

consists of a well-defined fibrous sheath, able to transmit muscular forces over a distance

78
Q

what is hyaluranan

A

lubricant that allows normal gliding of joint and connective tissues

79
Q

where is HA present in skeletal muscles?

A

epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

80
Q

retinacula

A

the most highly innervated fascial tissues, can sense bone movement and muscular contraction

81
Q

epimysial fascia

A

thinner than aponeurotic fasciae and their range of action is more localized (important feature is their tight adherence to underlying muscles)

82
Q

what key role does epimysial fascia play?

A

proprioception and peripheral motor coordination due to its close relationship with muscle spindles

83
Q

normal value of muscle pH

A

7.4

84
Q

what is the rectus sheath

A

region where various muscular forces converge

85
Q

role of vertebral column

A

protects spinal cord and spinal nerves, supports the weight of the body superior to the pelvis, and plays an important role in posture and locomotion

86
Q

occipitoatlantal (O-1) Joint

A

permits nodding of the head, flexion and extension

87
Q

atlantoaxial joint

A

rotates the head

88
Q

anterior longitudinal ligament

A

prevents hyperextension of the vertebral column, the only ligament that limits extension

89
Q

posterior longitudinal ligament

A

helps prevent or redirect posterior herniation of the nucleus pulposus

90
Q

ligamenta flava

A

flavus= yellow, elastic, limit abrupt flexion

91
Q

interspinous ligaments

A

weak, membranous

92
Q

supraspinous ligaments

A

strong, fibrous

93
Q

intertransverse ligaments

A

connect adjacent transverse processes

94
Q

joints of the vertebral bodies are…

A

symphyses

95
Q

Zygapophysial joints (facet joints)

A

permit gliding movements between articular processes

96
Q

Anulus Fibrosus

A

An outer fibrous part, composed of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage

97
Q

Nucleus pulposus

A

a gelatinous central mass

98
Q

the range of movement of the vertebral column is limited by the…

A

shape and orientation of the zygapophysial joints

99
Q

where is blood oxygenated in fetal circulation?

A

placenta

Human Anatomy (16 decks)

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