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RMT AUG 2024 > HEMA > Flashcards

HEMA Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound healing may be associated with:

A

Factor XIII deficiency

Factor XIII deficiency can lead to impaired wound healing and may cause severe bleeding problems. Factor XIII is a fibrin stabilizing factor that changes the fibrinogen bonds in fibrin polymers to stable covalent bonds. Factor XIII is not involved in the process of fibrin formation and, therefore, the PT and APTT are both normal.

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3
Q

Which results are associated with hemophilia A?

A

Prolonged APTT, normal PT

Hemophilia A is associated with factor VIII deficiency. Factor VIII is a factor in the intrinsic coagulation pathway that is evaluated by the APTT and not the PT test. The PT test evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways.

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4
Q

Primary substrate of thrombin:

A

Fibrinogen

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5
Q

In which of the following lists the steps of hemostatic response in the correct order?

A

Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis → fibrinolysis

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6
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of:

A

Connective tissue

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7
Q

Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?

A

Alpha granule defect

Gray’s syndrome is a platelet granule defect associated with a decrease in alpha granules resulting in decreased production of alpha granule proteins such as platelet factor 4 and beta thromboglobulin. Alpha granule deficiency results in the appearance of agranular platelets when viewed on a Wright’s stained blood smear.

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8
Q

Normal platelet adhesion depends upon:

A

Glycoprotein Ib

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9
Q

In the Ivy method of bleeding time, the blood pressure cuff is inflated to:

A

40 mm. Hg

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10
Q

If an average of 10 platelets are seen per oil immersion field, what is the estimated platelet count?

A

200 x 10 9th/L

For platelet estimate on a wedge smear:
Factor is 20,000

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11
Q

To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets, should be observed per oil immersion field?

A

8 to 20

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12
Q

Primary PLATELET AGGREGATION disorders:

A

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and essential athrombia

Glanzmann thrombasthenia and essential athrombia are similar, rare, primary aggregation disorders.

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13
Q

In thrombocythemia, the platelets are:

A

Increased

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14
Q

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP):

A

Due to platelet antibodies

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15
Q

The normal range of platelets in the systemic circulation is:

A

150 – 400 x 10 9th/L

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16
Q

The normal range of platelets in the systemic circulation is:

A

150 – 400 x 10 9th/L

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17
Q

Approximately ___ of the total number of platelets circulate in the systemic circulation?

A

Two-thirds

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18
Q

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?

A

Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

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19
Q

Which of the following is a proper way to clean up a small blood spill that has dried on a countertop?

A

Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel

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20
Q

If a patient adamantly refuses to have blood drawn, you should:

A

Notify the patient’s nurse or physician

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21
Q

A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in both arms. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure?

A

Obtain sample from below the IV site with special restrictions.

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22
Q

Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood specimen:

A

Ecchymosis (bruise)

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23
Q

Which results would be expected for the PT and APTT in a patient with polycythemia?

A

Both prolonged

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24
Q

EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on blood smear by:

A

Finding platelets adhering to WBCs

Platelet satellitosis (platelet encircling the peripheral borders of neutrophils) is seen in a rare patient whose blood is anticoagulated with EDTA. This phenomenon is thought to be due to a serum factor which reacts in the presence of EDTA.

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25
Q

EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on blood smear by:

A

Finding platelets adhering to WBCs

Platelet satellitosis (platelet encircling the peripheral borders of neutrophils) is seen in a rare patient whose blood is anticoagulated with EDTA. This phenomenon is thought to be due to a serum factor which reacts in the presence of EDTA.

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26
Q

EDTA is used in concentrations of ___ mg/1 mL of whole blood.

A

1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

EDTA is used in concentrations of 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

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27
Q

Intrinsic factor

A

XII Hageman Factor
XI Rosenthal
IX Plasma thromboplastin component
VIII Antihemolytic factor

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28
Q

Hageman factor

A

XII Glass factor

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29
Q

Extrinsic factor

A

VII: Proconvertin
Serum prothrombin serum accelerator (SPCA)

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30
Q

Common pathway factor

A

X: Stuart-Prower factor
V: Labile factor
II: Prothrombin
I: Fibrinogen

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31
Q

Prolonged PT

A

Extrinsic Factor: VII (Stable factor)
Common factor: X, V, II, I, XIII

  • X: Stuart
  • V: Labile factor
    *II: Prothrombin
    *I: Fibrinogen
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32
Q

Prolonged APTT

A

Intrinsic: XII, XI, IX, VIII
*XII: Hageman (Glass)
*XI: Antihemophilic C
*IX: Plasma thromboplastin Component Antihemophilic C - Christmas factor
*VIII: Antihemophilic A

Common factor: X, V, II, I, XIII
* X: Stuart
* V: Labile factor
*II: Prothrombin
*I: Fibrinogen

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33
Q

Normal PT, APTT
Soluble in 5M Urea

A

Factor XIII

Urea solubility test: Duckerts sensitive

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34
Q

All factors are proteins except

A

Factor IV: Calcium

Mineral

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35
Q

No coagulation factor has been assigned to

A

Factor VI

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36
Q

AP, APTT are synthetic function of ________

A

Liver function test

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37
Q

Factor no activated form

A

Factor I: fibrinogen

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38
Q

Coagulation nomenclature are assigned according to their:

Pangalan nila in roman eme ay base saan//?

A

Order of their initial description or discovery

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39
Q

Most concentrated coagulation factor

A

Factor I: Fibrinogen

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40
Q

Activated factor V

A

Factor VI- non existent

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41
Q

Antihemophilic Factor A

A

VIIIC: Antihemophilic factor (AHF)

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42
Q

Antihemophilic Factor B

A

IX: Plasma thromboplastin COMPONENT

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43
Q

Antihemophilic Factor C

A

XI: Plasma thromboplastin ANTECEDENT

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44
Q

Glass factor
Contact factor

A

XII: Hageman

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45
Q

All coagulation factors are produced by the liver except

A

VIII complex: VIIIC (AHF) and vWF (Primary and larger than VIIC)

In Liver disease, VIII complex is unaffected
a. VIIIC - coagulant VIII:C
b. vWF - produced by megakaryocyte in endocells

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46
Q

vWF disease

A

Prolonged bleeding time and clotting time

no VIIIC AH-A (secondary: clot)
no vWf (primary: bleed)

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47
Q

Antihemophilic factor A disease (FactorVIII defeciency) prolonged _____

A

Clotting time
Secondary Coagulation

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48
Q

Coagulation factors prematurely activated by cold temperature:

A

VII: Stable factor
XI:

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49
Q

Labile factors

A

V: Proaccelerin — labile factor
VIIIC: Antihemophilic Factor A

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50
Q

Decreases on storage diseases:
(densed, granular)

A

V: Stable
VIIIC: AHF-A

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51
Q

Fibrinogen level increased in elderly every decade for ___

A

10mg/dl

a decade is 10years so 1mg/dl per year starting age 65-79

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52
Q

Prolonged APTT and AT when fibrinogen level is

A

less 100mg/dl

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53
Q

Level of fibrinogen marked decrease in end-stage of liver failure:

A

<100mg/dl

Prolonged APTT, PT

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54
Q

Fibrinogen normal range

A

200-400mg/dl

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55
Q

Transfer of blood from syringe to tube

A

19 gauge, slowly inject

also for adult who has good veins >25ml

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56
Q

PT storage conditions:

A

18-24C within 24hrs

citrated blood - PPP

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57
Q

PTT storage conditions:

A

18-24C within 4hrs

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58
Q

PT reagent to activate factor VII

A

Thromboplastin-calcium chloride

Thromboplastin is a source of phospholipoprotein

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59
Q

Source of thromboplastin
new
old

A

New: Human tissue, sensitive
Old: Rabbit’s brain or lungs

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60
Q

Prothrombin time: Normal value

A

12.6-14.6 seconds

Screening for extrinsic factor VII: stable factor PCC (convertin?)

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61
Q

A child ingested rat poison “coumarin-like substabce). what test should be performed to test the effect of poison/ eme

A

Prothrombin time

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62
Q

APTT: Activated partial thromboplastin time normal value

A

25-35s
26-38s

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63
Q

Therapeutic range for px receiving heparin therapy: APTT

A

60-100s

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64
Q

Specimen for platelet aggregometry

A

PRP: Platelet Rich Plasma

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65
Q

Specimen for clot-based test

A

PPP: Platelet poor plasma

  • PT & APTT
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66
Q

APTT reagent activator

A
  1. Kaolin, Celite and Ellagic Acid: Activates XII

AP RGNT:
1. activator
2. phospholipids: substitute for platelets
3. Calcium chloride: start of time on addtn on this for APTT

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67
Q

The only test that is sensitive for factor XIII

A

Duckert’s test
5M Urea solubitility test

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68
Q

Reagent of 5molar urea

A

2% acetic acid/ 1% monochloroacetic acid

Result:
Normal: there is clotting ` insoluble
Deficiency: dissolved in 24hrs

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69
Q

Most concentrated coagulated factor

A

FIbrinogen
200-400mg/dl

<100mg/dl - endstage liver disease prolonged PT,APTT

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70
Q

Primary risk factor for thrombotic disorders

A

fibrinogen

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71
Q

Hemarthrosis: Joint bleeding deficiency

A

Factor VIII deficiency
Hemophilia A

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72
Q

Rosenthal syndrome. Most common in Ashkenazi jews. Coag deficiency

A

Factor XI
Hemophilia c

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73
Q

Royal blood disease

A

Factor IX
Hemophilia B

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74
Q

Negative bleeding. No bleeding coag deficiency. Increased risk for thrombosis

A

Factor XII

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75
Q

Most common coagulopathy accounts for most fatal hemorrhage

A

Acute coagulopathy of trauma shock
(ACOTS)

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76
Q

Congenital bleeding disorders (4)

A

vWD (most common congenital bleeding)
Factor VIII: Hemophilia A
Factor IX: Hemophilia B
platelet fxn disorders

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77
Q

Initial workup for vWF

A

CBC: thrombocytopenia
PT: Primary hemostasis
APTT: Intrinsic coag (VIIIC)

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78
Q

Consumed during coagulation process; present in plasma but not in serum

A

Fibrinogen group
I,V,VIII and XIII

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79
Q

Prothrombin group: Vitamin K, calcium dependent. present in plasma, serum and ads plasma

A

II, VII, IX, X

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80
Q

Contact phase group factor: stable. present in serum, plasma, ad plasma BaSO4 (barium sulfate)

A

XI, XII, Prekallikren, HWMK

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81
Q

Major inhibitor of fibrinolysis

A

Alpha 2 antiplasmin

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82
Q
A
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83
Q

The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?

A

Factor VIII inhibitor titer

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84
Q

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?

A

VA and VIIIa

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85
Q

Which of the following is associated with multiple factor deficiencies?

A

Severe liver disease

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86
Q

Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by:

A

Hypofibrinogenemia

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87
Q

The D-dimer test is a specific test for:

A

Plasmin degradation of fibrin

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88
Q

Plasma thromboplastin or prothrombinase includes:

A

Complex of activated factors X and V, platelet factor 3 and calcium ions

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89
Q

Classic hemophilia is a condition in which there may be a:

A

Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time

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90
Q

Which one of the following factors typically shows an increase in liver disease?

A

Factor VIII

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91
Q

In which of the following diseases would you most likely find an abnormal prothrombin time:

92
Q

PTT measures all factors except for:

A

VII and XIII

Yung soloistts
EF x 5M

93
Q

A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(an):

A

Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count

Affected yung protrombin group Vit.k dependent

94
Q

The preferred blood product for a bleeding patient with von Willebrand’s disease is transfusion with:

A

Cryoprecipitated AHF
*fresh

95
Q

A 56-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a history of a moderate to severe BLEEDING tendency of a several years’ duration. Epistaxis and menorrhagia were reported. Prolonged APTT was corrected with fresh normal plasma, adsorbed plasma, and aged serum. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely?

A

Factor XI

Prolonged APTT corrected with normal plasma, adsorbed plasma and aged serum:
Deficiency of factor XI or XII
Factor XI deficiency - patient exhibits bleeding (hemophilia C)
Factor XII deficiency - negative bleeding

96
Q

The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged thrombin time is indicative of:

A

Presence of heparin

97
Q

The D-dimer test is a specific test for:

A

Plasmin degradation of fibrin

98
Q

Reticulocytes are decreased during

A

Aplastic anemia

BM is unresponsive

99
Q

Reticulocytes are increased during

A

Hemolysic
Hemorrhage

100
Q

Average percentage of retic on blood adult

A

0.5-1.5%

Neonates: 2-6%

101
Q

Supravital stain are used for

A

RHH ID

Reticulum
Heinz Body
HbH

102
Q

Present in BM and blood

A

reticulocyte

103
Q

Discocyte

A

Mature RBC

lifespan: 120 days
chromium 51: detects lifespan

104
Q

1 single pronormoblast produces

105
Q

First recognizable stage in the erythrocytic series

A

Pro-normoblast

106
Q

Late stage capable of cell division (mitosis) in Erythropoeisis

A

Poly-chromatophilic normoblast
Rubiocyte

107
Q

Begins to produce hemoglobin

A

Poly-chromatophilic normoblast

108
Q

Youngest cell in the series not anymore capable of cell division

A

Ortho-chromatophilic normoblast

109
Q

Last nucleated stage

A

Ortho-chromatophilic normoblast

110
Q

Pyknotic nucleus

A

Ortho-chromatophilic normoblast

111
Q

no nucleus but has mitchondria and ribosomes

A

Poly-chromatic erythrocyte
reticulocyte

112
Q

Last stage to synthesize hemoglobin

A

Poly-chromatic erythrocyte
reticulocyte

113
Q

last stage of bone marrow before release to the blood: RBC production

A

Poly-chromatic erythrocyte
reticulocyte

114
Q

Reticulum of RNA

A

Reticulocyte

115
Q

EPO and TPO are produced in

116
Q

Precursors of platelet production

A

1) MegakaryoBLAST
2) Pro-megakaryo-cyte
3)Megakaryocyte

117
Q

Production of platelets from bone marrow megakaryocyte

A

Thrombocytopoiesis
Thrombopoiesis

118
Q

Megakaryotcytes are released into the bloodstream, to the vascular sinuses of the bone marrow

A

by EXTENSION of pro-platelet processes

119
Q

granules of megakaryocyte

A

platelets
LIFESPAN: 8-11 days
Maturation: 4-5 days

120
Q

Three stages of platelet production accdg by Rodaks

A

MK-I : promegakaryoblast
MK-II: Pro-Megakaryocyte
MK-III: Megakaryocyte

121
Q

An invagination of the plasma membrane that becomes the future site of the platelet fragmentation

A

Demarcating Membrane System

First to appear in MK-I stage

122
Q

Largest cell in the bone marrow: 40-120um
has lots of nucleus because of endomitosis. and buds off granules to make platelets

A

Megakaryocytes

123
Q

This stage is the platelet shedding

A

MK-III Megakaryocyte

1 megakaryocyte = 2,000-4,000 platelets

124
Q

Disintegrated cell surrounded by platelets

A

metamegakaryocyte

125
Q

smallest platelet seen in

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

126
Q

Earliest thrombocyte stage where the nucleus divides without cytoplasmic division; process known to be:

A

endomitosis

nuclear mitosis without cyctoplasmic division
Starts in megakaryoblast Stage

127
Q

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis:

A

LD-CFU-Meg

128
Q

Megakaryocyte PROGENITORS

A
  1. BFU - Burst-forming unit meg
  2. CFU - Colony-forming unit-meg
  3. LD-CFU - Light density unit
129
Q

Least mature progenitor of megakaryocyte

A

BFU - Burst forming unit meg

130
Q

Most mature progenitor megakaryocyte

A

LD-CFU meg - light density forming unit meg

131
Q

All three progenitor of megakaryocyte resembles as:

A

small lymphocytes

132
Q

Terminal megakaryocyte differentiation stages
Precursors

A

MK-I
MK-II
MK-III

133
Q

The least differentiated megakaryocyte precursor is

A

MK-I Promegakaryoblast

Cannot be distinguished from myeloblasts or pronormoblast

134
Q

1/3 of platelets resides in

135
Q

Mostly physiologic cell death

136
Q

Pathologic cell death due to injury

137
Q

Evaluation in platelet differentiation
- mature stages

A

cytoplasmic appearance

138
Q

Responsible for platelet adhesion (attachment to tissues) and aggregation (attachment of platelets to each other)

A

Peripheral zone of platelet

139
Q

Function as a receptor for vWF and gp IIB and IIIa for for fibrinogenq

A

gplb

30 or more gp found in plasma membrane

140
Q

Provide a cytoskeleton to maintain platelet shape, and a contractile system

A

Sol-gel zone

141
Q

Important contractile protein found on sol-gel zone needed for clot formation

A

Thrombosthenin
Actomyosin

142
Q

dense granules contains of platelet:

A

CAPAS:
Calcium
ADP
Pyrophosphate
ATP
Serotonin

143
Q

Site of arachidonic acid metabolism

A

Membranous system

144
Q

Control center for the platelet activation

A

Dense tubular system

145
Q

For the release of platelet granules found in

A

Open canalicular system

146
Q

Portion of DNA that is inactive during transcription

A

Heterochromatin (dark)

147
Q

Portion of DNA that is active during transcription

A

Eurochromatin

148
Q

First cell type produced by the developing embryo?

A

Erythrocytes

149
Q

Preferrable site for BM asipiration and biopsy

A

Illiac crest

no muscle nerves, vessel
and most accessible

150
Q

Primary site of BM

151
Q

Stage of erythrocytic maturation where the cytoplasm has formed Hb pinkish

A

Poly-chromatic normoblast (Rubiocyte)

*last stage of mitosis
-chroma (color)

152
Q

Early and late stages of heme synthesis occur in RBC production

A

mitochondria

-no na sa mature cells
-hanggang reticulocyte lang heme

153
Q

Reticulocytosis usually indicates:

A

Red cell regeneration

*Retic count: index of BM prod of blood cell

154
Q

Reticulocyte count in adults in PB Normal

A

NV: 0-5%-1.5%
Average: 1%

155
Q

Reticulocyte count in neonates/infants

156
Q

<0.5% retic counts indicates

A

Aplastic anemia

-not responsing to BM

157
Q

> 1.5% retic count

A

Hemorrhage
Hemolysis

158
Q

Contained primary granules of the neutrophils

A

Myeloperoxidase

1`granules: My-Acid-Lysz
Myeloperoxidase
Acid phosphatase
Lysozyme

159
Q

Secondary and tertiary granules of neutrophils

A

Acid phosphatase
Collagenase
Lactoferrin
NADPH oxidase

160
Q

Secondary granules produced in what cell?

A

Myelocyte

-most matured granulocyte that can undergo mitosis

161
Q

Granulomitotic pool in the bone marrow contain

A

Myeloblast and promyeloblast

undergoes cell division in granulocytes

  1. Myeloblast
  2. Promyeloblast (primary gran)
  3. Myelocyte (secondary gran)
162
Q

Granulocyte circulation time

A

less than one day
7-10hrs

163
Q

Phagocytosis step; RODAKS

A

RIKFT

  1. Recognition
  2. Ingestion
  3. Killing and digestion
  4. Formation of Neutrophil Extracellular Traps (NET)
164
Q

Hemoglobin molecule is composed of

A

Four subunits
4 heme + 4 globin

165
Q

1 heme has

A

1 mole of oxygen

166
Q

1 Hb has

A

4 moles of Oxygen

167
Q

Early and late heme synthesis occur in

A

Mitochondria

168
Q

Hemoglobin to be functional to carry iron it should be what state

A

Ferrous state

169
Q

Ratio of heme portion iron to pyrrole rings

170
Q

Alpha and zeta glob chains found in

A

Chromosome 16

171
Q

beta, delta, epsiolon and gammar are found in

A

Chromosome 11

172
Q

Human hemogblobins found during embryonic stage

A

Gower 1: 2 zeta, 2 epsi
Portland: 2 zeta, 2 gamma
Gower 2: 2 alpha, 2 epsi

173
Q

Hemoglobins found in newborn and adult

A

A1: 2 alpha, 2 beta
A2: 2 alpha, 2 delta
F: 2 alpha, 2 gamma

174
Q

p50 in Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

175
Q

Shape of ODC curve

A

sigmoid shaped

176
Q

ODC: Shift to the left factors (letter L)

A

Increases:
Hb Affinity (low O2 to the tissue)
pH (alkalosis)

decreases:
2,3 DPG (Biphosphoglycerate)
CO2
Temp

177
Q

Shift to the right ODC

A

Decreases:
Hb affinity to O2 (high O2 delivery)
pH (acidosis)

Increases:
2,3 DPG
CO2
Temp

178
Q

Low affinity of O2, low pH

A

shift to the RIGHT
All increases:
O2 delivery
CO2
Temp
2,3 DGP

179
Q

Influences pH on the release of oxygen from Hb

A

Bohr effect

180
Q

OxyHB: HbO2

A

arterial blood

181
Q

Abnormal hemoglobin: no O2 carries
bound to Carbon monoxide. 210x affinity than normal

A

Carboxyhemoglobin
cherry red color
reversible

182
Q

Abnormal Hb:

ferric state Iron, nonfunctional Hb
Enzyme deficiency: meth reduct
exposure to chemical drugs: nitrate, nitrite, chlorate

A

Methemoglobin/Hemiglobin (Hi)
Chocolate brown color
reversible

183
Q

Methemoglobin determination anticoagulant

184
Q

Abnormal Hb; exposure to drugs: Cannot transport O2

  1. aromatic amines, sulfonamides
    associated with Clostridium perfringens
A

Sulfhemoglobin
Mauve-lavender color
Irreversible

185
Q

Hemoglobin glutamine subs by VALINE

A

Hb S: severe hemolytic anemia

186
Q

Hemoglobin Glutamin subs LYSINE

A

Hb C: Mild hemolytic anemia

187
Q

Depression of all cells due to not responding to bone marrow

A

Congenital: Fanconis anemia
Acquired: Radiation (chemical)

  • Aplastic anemia ^
188
Q

Virus associated with aplastic anemia

A

Parvovirus

189
Q

Normal erythrocyte diameter in normocytic

A

NV: 6-8 um
Ave: 7.2 um
MCV: 80-100fL

190
Q

Drugs causes aplastic anemia

A

Benzene
Chloramphenicol (last result ab)

192
Q

Which of the following is decreased in cases of intravascular hemolytic anemia?

A

Haptoglobin

193
Q

Basophils remain in the maturation-storage phase for:

194
Q

Basophils have an average circulation time of about ____ hours.

195
Q

Very clumped chromatin:

196
Q

Densely packed chromatin:

A

Segmented neutrophil

197
Q

The term for cell movement across the cellular membranes from the blood vessels to the tissues is called:

A

Diapedesis

198
Q

Alpha and dense granules of platelets:

A

In organelle zone

199
Q

Most reliable way to differentiate a mature from an immature granulocyte:

A

Chromatin pattern

200
Q

Reliable way to differentiate PLATELET PRECURSORS:

A

Cytoplasmic appearance

201
Q

Granulocytic cell with a sausage-shaped nucleus:

202
Q

Granulocytic precursor with an indented or kidney-shaped nucleus:

A

Metamyelocyte

203
Q

The red blood cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red blood cell is:

204
Q

Reagent for the solubility test: of hemoglobin

A

Sodium hydrosulfite (dithionite) and a detergent-based lysing agent (saponin)

205
Q

Iron is TRANSPORTED IN PLASMA via:

A

Transferrin

206
Q

Which erythrocyte metabolic pathway generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) via glycolysis?

A

Embden-Meyerhof

207
Q

Chondroitin sulfates such as heparan:

A

Basophil secondary granules

208
Q

Tertiary granules of the neutrophils are formed during the:

A

Band and segmented neutrophil stage

209
Q

Apoptosis is morphologically identified by:

A

Nuclear condensation

210
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow?

A

Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division

211
Q

All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:

A

Increased haptoglobin

212
Q

Which is the major hemoglobin found in the RBCs of patients with SICKLE CELL TRAIT?

A

Hemoglobin A1

213
Q

What is the last nucleated stage in development of erythrocyte?

A

Metarubricyte

214
Q

Which of the following hemoglobins is composed of four beta globin chains?

A

Hemoglobin H

215
Q

The degree of effective erythropoiesis is best assessed by:

A

Reticulocyte count

216
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the Rapoport-Leubering pathway?

A

It produces 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG)

217
Q

Which laboratory test is best used for DEFINITIVE diagnosis of sickle cell anemia?

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

218
Q

Which of the following is decreased in cases of intravascular hemolytic anemia?

A

Haptoglobin

219
Q

Autosomal disease or x-linked aplastic anemia: mental retardation, absence of the thumb and radius, small stature

A

Fanconi Anemia

220
Q

Condition that result in reduced hemoglobin synthesis; heme synthesis is diminished in iron deficiency, iron sequestration

A

microcytic RBC
<6um in diameter
MCV: <80fL

221
Q

Conditions that result in megaloblastic or non megaloblastic anemia development in bone marrow

A

Macrocytic
>8um
MCV: 100fL

222
Q

Non-megaloblastic anemia conditions are

A

Chronic disease
Alcohol abuse
Bone marrow failure

223
Q

Macrocytic RBC.
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
- Folate deficiency
- Myelodysplasia

A

Megaloblastic anemias

223
Q

Charecterized by oval macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils (6-7lobes) in the peripheral blood and by megaloblasts

+ Howell-Jolly bodies

A

Megaloblastic anemia

> 8um
MCV: 100fL- 150fL

Round - Nonmegaloblastic anemia

224
Q

ineffective erythropoiesis: Low retics, wbc, pH

A

Megaloblastic anemia

RMT AUG 2024 (12 decks)

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