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Property Inspection Module 2 > Heating System > Flashcards

Heating System Flashcards

1
Q

_____ occurs when heat is transferred through solid matter.

A

conduction

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2
Q

_____ occurs when heat is transferred by circulation of gas (air) or liquid.

A

convection

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3
Q

_____ occurs when heat is transferred by absorption of electromagnetic energy in the infrared part of the spectrum.

A

radiation

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4
Q

Incomplete combustion produces more _____ _____ than complete combustion and other compounds such as _____ _____ and _____ also known as _____, which can indicate a significant combustion issue in a gas appliance.

A

water vapor
carbon monoxide
carbon
soot

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5
Q

Incomplete combustion in solid fuel burning appliances ,such as wood, can create _____, a flammable substance described as _____ (stage 1), _____ (stage 2), or _____ (stage 3). Stage 3 is highly _____ and quite _____ to _____.

A

creosote
light brown or black flaky ash
heavy tar-like ash
hard and shiny coating
flammable
difficult to remove

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6
Q

In modern construction combustion air should be drawn from _____ the house, since modern energy codes require homes to be _____ _____.

A

outside
air sealed

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7
Q

_____ _____ _____ is the area of an opening minus the space occupied by screens, louvers, or other obstructions. The minimum opening dimension is _____ inches for openings serving combustion air intake.

A

Net free area
3 1/2

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8
Q

Drawing combustion air from the same room is called the _____ _____ and requires at least ___ cubic ft. of volume in the room for every _____ BTU/H input of the appliances in the room.

A

standard method
50
1,000

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9
Q

If combustion air is drawn from adjacent rooms on the same story, there should be ___ openings between the rooms, one within ___ in. of the floor and the other within ___ in. of the ceiling. Each should have at least ___ sq in. net free opening area for every _____ BTU/H input from the appliances in the room.

A

2
12
12
1
1,000

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10
Q

If combustion air is drawn from different stories, there should be ___ or more openings having a total combined net free opening area of at least ___ sq in. for every _____ BTU/H input from the appliances in the room.

A

1
2
1,000

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11
Q

In gas appliances, combustion air may be provided from outside the house if provided by ___ openings in the wall or by ___ ___. One opening should be within ___ in. of the floor and another should be within ___ in. of the ceiling. Air net free opening area for openings and vertical ducts is ___ sq in. per _____ BTU/H input or ___ sq in. per _____ BTU/H input for horizontal ducts.

A

2
2
ducts
12
12
1 per 4,000
1 per 2,000

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12
Q

Gas appliances may be provided combustion air from outside the home using ___ opening(s) in the wall within ___ in. of the ceiling. The net free opening area should be at least ___ sq in. per _____ BTU/H input of the gas appliance in the room

A

1
12
1
3,000

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13
Q

Masonry fireplaces should have a combustion air duct that terminates _____ or in a _____ _____ _____ which should be _____ or _____ the firebox height. The interior termination may be on the _____ or _____ of the firebox or within ___ in. of the firebox opening.

A

outside
ventilated crawl space
at or below
back or sides
24

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14
Q

Combustion air ducts should be a minimum of ___ gauge galvanized steel. Minimum duct dimension is ___ inches. _____ _____ and _____ _____ may not be used. _____ and _____ cavities may be used if not more than ___ fire block is removed.

A

28
3
flexible duct and duct board
stud and joist
1

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15
Q

Gas burning or oil burning appliances should not be located in _____, _____, _____, or _____ unless the appliance is _____ _____ and obtains all combustion air from _____ or a space that is weather stripped and obtains all combustion air from _____.

A

bedrooms, bathrooms, closets, or spaces that open into these spaces
direct vented
outside
outside

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16
Q

Spaces with appliances competing for combustion air should be inspected for signs of _____ _____ and _____.

A

incomplete combustion
backdrafting

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17
Q

_____ _____ replaces air removed by appliances such as clothes dryers, kitchen exhaust hoods, and bathroom exhaust fans. It is especially necessary when these appliances are in the same space as _____ _____ _____.

A

makeup air
fuel burning appliances

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18
Q

Fuel burning appliance closets or compartments should be _____ and _____ when combustion air is drawn from outside.

A

sealed and insulated

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19
Q

HVAC loads are determined using protocol set forth in _____ _____. Those loads are then used to find recommended system capacity set forth in _____ _____.

A

ACCA Manual J
ACCA Manual S

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20
Q

_____ _____ _____ pump a heated liquid through pipes that may be installed in the floor or that run through radiators or similar devices.

A

Hydronic distribution systems

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21
Q

_____ _____ move heat by heating a material and allowing the heat to flow by radiation, conduction, and convection.

A

Radiant systems

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22
Q

_____ _____ and _____ _____ _____ systems often require significant effort and time to begin operation and obtain a reliable test observation, and for this reason inspectors may elect not to operate the system, however should report that it was not operated and why.

A

Hydronic systems
solid-fuel burning

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23
Q

Category __ appliances vent gas that is hot, around 300 degrees F, which rises through the vent by being less dense and more buoyant that’s surrounding air, also know as the _____ _____.

A

I
stack effect

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24
Q

Category ___ appliances vent gas that is hotter than 300 degrees F and their vents are under _____ _____. ______ can be a problem but these appliances are not considered condensing.

A

III
positive pressure
condensate

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25
Q

Category ___ appliances vent gas that is cool, around 140 degrees F and vent under _____ _____. These are _____ appliances and require _____ disposal

A

IV
positive pressure
condensing
condensate

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26
Q

The _____ _____ is the heart of a gas forced air furnace. It is heated by gas fire making it hot, and a fan pushes air across it. Any cracks in the _____ _____ can allow _____ _____ to enter the air flow of the house which is a major _____ _____.

A

heat exchanger
heat exchanger
combustion gases
safety concern

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27
Q

_____ gas connectors are not allowed to enter appliance cabinets.

A

Flexible

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28
Q

Draft hood type gas furnaces are Category ___ gas furnaces that are _____ efficiency, or about ___%. These furnaces often have 3 to 6 _____ _____.

A

I
low
65
ribbon burners

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29
Q

Induced draft type gas furnaces are the most common type of Category ___ furnace. They are _____ efficiency, about ___% and often have 2 to 6 _____ _____.

A

I
medium
80
inshot burners

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30
Q

In a gas furnace, the presence of wires spliced together near controls could indicate _____ _____ _____ _____, which is a reportable defect. Cables should enter the cabinet through a _____.

A

bypassed automatic safety controls
bushing or grommet

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31
Q

The ignition sequence for a draft hood type furnace consists of a click when the _____ _____ opens, _____ignition, and _____ _____.

A

gas valve
burner
fan activation

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32
Q

The ignition sequence for an induced draft type furnace consists of draft inducer _____ _____, _____ _____ activation, a _____ when the gas valve opens, _____ ignition, and then_____ activation.

A

fan activation
ignition device
click
burner
fan

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33
Q

Burners in a gas furnace that are burning properly will have a _____ flame which may possibly have a _____ tip. A _____ or _____ flame is a reportable defect which indicates an improperly adjusted _____ _____ or inadequate _____ _____.

A

blue
slightly yellow
yellow or orange
gas valve
combustion air

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34
Q

A flickering or distorted burner flame could indicate a cracked _____ _____, which is often more visible with _____ burners than _____ burners.

A

heat exchanger
ribbon
inshot

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35
Q

Inspecting Category ___ gas furnaces is similar to Category I, however these furnaces have one or two _____ _____ _____ that will connect to a collection _____ and then to the evaporator coil condensate drain. These tubes should not be _____ and should be _____ to drain towards the _____. The condensate is usually _____, which will cause damage to sheet metal enclosures.

A

IV
condensate drain tubes
tank
crimped
sloped
tank
acidic

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36
Q

When appliances are installed in garages, they should be protected from _____ _____ by framing or some type of _____ _____. Ignition sources such as burners should be located at least ___ inches above the garage floor.

A

vehicle impact
vehicle stop/bollard
18

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37
Q

Floor furnace _____ should be located in the same room as the furnace.

A

thermostats

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38
Q

Gas floor furnaces are Category ___ and should not be installed in _____ or _____. The furnace grille should be at least ___ in away from walls and at least ____ in away from at least one wall if placed in a corner. The grille should also be at least ___ in from materials such as curtains or any position that a door may reach.

A

I
bedrooms or bathrooms
6
18
12

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39
Q

Gas floor furnace grilles should be at least ___ ft below projecting combustibles such as shelves and the bottom of the furnace should be at least ___ in above the crawl space floor. The bottom should not project into _____ _____. The draft hood requires at least ___ in to combustibles such as floor joists.

A

5
6
habitable spaces
6

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40
Q

Gas floor furnaces require a type ___ vent and connector or appropriate _____. Oil floor furnaces require a type ____ vent and connector or appropriate _____. Single wall vent connectors may not be used in _____ _____.

A

B
chimney
L
chimney
crawl spaces

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41
Q

Wall furnaces should be ___ in from a door in any position, at least __ to __ in from wall corners, and at least __ to __ in from ceiling or other materials projecting from above. Most manufacturers recommend a _____ _____ and _____ _____ between the unit and carpet.

A

12
4 to 6
12 to 18
metal plate
physical distance

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42
Q

Most gas wall furnaces use a type ___ vent which resembles a type B vent with _____ shape. Wall furnaces may not use a _____ as a vent.

A

BW
oval
chimney

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43
Q

Vented room heaters may not be connected to _____ or _____ that serve other rooms. They may use a type ___ vent or a ____ if approved by manufacturer. The shut off valve may be located in another room if the valve is permanently _____, _____ _____, and _____ _____ _____ _____.

A

ducts or registers
B
chimney
labeled
readily accessible
serves no other appliance

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44
Q

Government estimates show that unvented gas appliances cause _____ fires and _____ deaths each year.

A

25,000
300

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45
Q

_____ gas appliances should not be installed in newer construction that adheres to modern energy codes, due to air sealing requirement in new homes.

A

unvented

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46
Q

Unvented room heaters require side clearances of ___ in, to combustible trim of at least ___ in, top clearances of at least __ in, hearth extension depth of __ in. A heat resistant material such as _____ or _____ should be installed ___ in vertically above firebox opening.

A

16
6
42
14
12

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47
Q

Unvented appliances should not be used in a room unless it contains at least __ cubic ft of volume for every ___ BTU/H input from the unit.

A

1
20

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48
Q

Unvented appliances may not be used in bedrooms or bathrooms except one wall mounted unit may be used in a bathroom if appliance BTU/H is _____ or less and bathroom has volume for combustion air, or in a bedroom if the appliance BTU/H is _____ or less and bedroom has sufficient volume for combustion air.

A

6,000
10,000

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49
Q

Category I vent systems consists of a manufactured _____ _____ or _____, a _____ _____, and a _____ _____.

A

vent pipe or chimney
vent cap
vent connector

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50
Q

Category I vent systems use a type ___ vent or _____. A _____ _____ _____ is allowed in warmer climates only, since these pipes lose heat more rapidly and do not conduct combustion gases out of the vent as effectively.

A

B
chimney
single wall pipe

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51
Q

A Category I vent system serving multiple gas appliances is called a ____ ____ ____.

A

common vent system

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52
Q

When using a masonry chimney as a Category I gas appliance vent the chimney must be _____ _____ the house until it _____ _____ _____.

A

enclosed within
penetrates the roof

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53
Q

A chimney being used as a Cat I vent may not serve as a vent for a single _____ _____ _____, however it may serve as the vent for multiple _____ _____ or _____ _____ equipped gas appliances.

A

induced draft furnace
induced draft
draft hood

54
Q

When used as a Cat I vent, a chimney must be at least as _____ as the vent connector area and smaller than _____ times the vent connector area if serving as vent for a single _____
_____ equipped appliance.

A

large
7
draft hood

55
Q

Cat I, type B vents require __ in clearance to combustibles. Single wall pipe vents require __ in. Combustible materials include _____, _____ _____, _____, and _____.

A

1
6
insulation
electrical cable
ducts not made from sheet metal
wood

56
Q

Type B vent terminations should have __ ft horizontal clearance from a vertical sidewall or __ ft vertical clearance of any obstruction within __ ft. Single wall pipe terminations requires __ ft vertical clearance above any obstruction within __ ft. Obstructions include all _____ _____ _____ _____ such as windows and eave ventilation.

A

8
2
10
2
10
gravity air intake openings

57
Q

All gas vents should terminate at least __ ft horizontally or __ ft vertically from mechanical air intake openings, such as an _____ _____ _____ _____ or _____ _____ _____ _____.

A

10
3
energy recovery ventilation system
Heat recovery ventilation system

58
Q

Sections of vent pipe should be secured together with at least ___ screws or a manufacturer approved _____. Disconnected or inadequately connected vent pipe components are a _____ hazard and an _____ _____ _____ due to _____ _____.

A

3
connector
fire
air quality hazard
carbon monoxide

59
Q

Vent systems should extend at least __ ft above the flue collar or draft hood, __ ft above the bottoms of a gas wall furnace and should not extend more than __ ft.

A

5
12
50

60
Q

Vent connector slope should be at least _____ upwards toward the vent.

A

1/4” per 12” (1/4 / 12)

61
Q

Single wall galvanized steel pipe of at least __ ga thickness may be used as vent and vent connectors.

A

28

62
Q

Flexible type B vents may not penetrate _____, _____, _____ nor may they be used in _____ or _____. Additionally, flex vents may not be bent more than ___ degrees, may not be _____ or _____, and may not be compressed more than __ in per foot.

A

walls, floors, ceilings
attics or crawl spaces
90
cut or modified
4

63
Q

In cold climates, single wall pipe may not be used as vent pipe in _____, _____ , or _____. In all climates, it may not penetrate _____ or _____, but may penetrate directly through the _____ if clearance to combustibles of __ in is maintained.

A

attics, crawl spaces, or garages
floors or ceilings
roof
6

64
Q

Many manufacturers do not recommend the use of _____ wall pipe. Unapproved use is a _____ _____ and a _____ _____.

A

single
fire hazard
backdrafting hazard

65
Q

If a vent connector length is _____ or _____ the vent system height or if the vent system contains elbows that total more than ___ degrees in bends, inspectors should recommend evaluation by a qualified _____ contractor.

A

equal to or greater than
180
HVAC

66
Q

A common vent connector should not be more than _____ times longer (IN FEET) than it’s diameter in inches.

A

1 1/2

67
Q

Common vent connectors may enter the vent at the same level horizontally but should do so at a ___ degree angle. Connectors may enter at ___ degree angles only if they do so at different levels horizontally.

A

45
90

68
Q

Appliances on different _____ should not share a common vent unless approved by an _____.

A

stories/floors
engineer

69
Q

A vent connector should not be closer than it’s own _____ to the opposite side of a chimney from the side in which it entered.

A

diameter

70
Q

Where a vent connector enters a chimney, it should be _____ and _____.

A

secured and sealed

71
Q

Cat III direct vented appliances use _____ _____ _____ pipe for vent systems. It often consists of __ concentric pipes, one inside the other, with the _____ in the center and _____ ___ drawn through the outer pipe. They must be sealed because the vent is under _____ _____. The pipe is often made of ______ _____.

A

manufacturer recommended metal
2
vent
combustion air
positive pressure
stainless steel

72
Q

Cat IV appliances use _____ pipe for venting and combustion air intake. Manufacturers recommend it be supported every ___ to ___ ft and sealed with _____ _____ using both _____ and _____.

A

plastic
3 to 5
solvent cement
primer and cement

73
Q

The vent and combustion air pipes in Cat III and IV appliances should terminate in the same _____ _____ and on the same _____ _____ or _____.

A

pressure zone
roof section or sidewall

74
Q

In regards to clearances, there are many different illustrations and charts for _____ _____ and _____ _____ appliances. Different _____ have different clearances and those clearances differ even further depending on the ___ input if the appliance.

A

direct vented and direct exhaust
manufacturers
BTU

75
Q

The only clearance requirement among Cat III and IV appliance vent terminations that is consistent among different manufacturers is that both vent and combustion air pipes should terminate at least ___ in above grade or above local snow accumulation height, whichever is _____.

A

12
higher

76
Q

The most common type of oil burner heating system is the _____ _____, also called the _____ _____ burner.

A

gun-type
atomizing-type

77
Q

The flame from a modern oil burner should be _____. A small amount of _____ is permissible. Flame colors between _____ and _____ indicate _____ flame temperature and oil burner issues. The flame should be uniform and consistently around __ in wide at the widest point and should not touch or _____ the surfaces of the _____ _____.

A

white
yellow
orange and red
cooler
5
impinge
refractory chamber

78
Q

Absence of an oil burner _____ _____ _____ _____ is a significant safety defect. This sensor detects the presence of a _____. It shuts off the _____ if not detected. Newer sensors are called _____ _____ _____ or _____ _____ _____ and detect _____. Older sensors are called _____ _____ and detect heat.

A

flame shut off sensor
flame
burner
cadmium cell sensors
fire eye sensors
light
stack relays

79
Q

Oil can collect in the refractory and ignite causing _____ if the ___________ sensor is not working. The sensor has a _____ _____ switch, which can only be pressed once before attempting to re-ignite. If it continues to fail after this, a _____ _____ should evaluate. Inspectors should _____ press this switch.

A

puff back
Oil burner flame shutoff
red reset
HVAC technician
never

80
Q

An ___ ___ ___ ___ is a fire safety device that shuts off oil flow if there is a fire.

A

oil line safety valve

81
Q

An oil burner electrical shutoff switch should be located at the ___ ___ ___ ___ when an oil burner is located in a basement.

A

top of basement stairs

82
Q

Oil burners may use a type __ vent, a _____, or _____ _____ metal pipe that is at least __ ga thickness. If using a _____ it should be equipped with a _____ _____. Oil burners may not use a type __ vent.

A

L
chimney
single-wall
26
barometric damper
B

83
Q

The purpose of a _____ _____ is to control draft conditions in the vent system.

A

barometric damper

84
Q

In oil burning appliances, type L vents should have at least __ in clearance to combustibles. Single wall pipe should have __ in. The barometric damper should have __ in clearance.

A

3
9
18

85
Q

The vent system of oil burning appliances should be at least __ ft above the highest flue collar or draft hood and at least __ ft above the bottom of the appliance.

A

5
12

86
Q

Distributed electric heaters should be served by a _____ _____ _____.

A

dedicated electrical circuit

87
Q

Electric radiant heaters require a _____ circuit when installed in a bathroom, kitchen, or near massage tubs, spas, or hot tubs

A

GFCI

88
Q

Modern hot water heating systems are _____ systems, and once the system is filled with water it should be _____. The normal operating pressure of the these systems is around __ psig to below __ psig. The normal operating temperature is between ___ F and ___ F, with a range between ___ F and ___ F being most common.

A

closed
sealed
20 to 30
120 degrees to 200 degrees
160 degrees to 180 degrees

89
Q

Boilers sometimes provide domestic hot water through components such as _____ _____, _____ _____ water heaters, or _____ _____.

A

tankless coils
Indirect-fire
Range boilers

90
Q

A device that controls when a hot water boiler activates or fires is called an _____.

A

aquastat

91
Q

Residential boilers usually have a _____ _____ _____ set for __ psi. Inspectors should confirm that the correct _____ is being used by checking the boiler rating plate.

A

Pressure relief valve
30
Valve

92
Q

Boilers should have a relief valve extension pipe that may terminate within __ in above the floor to an _____ _____ _____. All other requirements for this pipe are the same as water heaters.

A

18
Open waste receptor

93
Q

All components of a hot water heating system should be _____ _____ _____ _____. There should be a method for bleeding air from the system, but lack of one is not a deficiency.

A

Completely filled with water

94
Q

Hot water heating systems should have an _____ _____ and shut off _____ near the boiler.

A

Expansion tank
Valve

95
Q

Steam heating systems are divided into ___ _____ systems with pressure between __ psig to __ psig, _____ _____ systems, which are less than __ psig, and _____ _____ systems, which are over ___ psig.

A

Low pressure: 1/2 to 2 psig
Vapor pressure: less than 2 psig
High pressure: over 15 psig

96
Q

The normal standby temp for steam heating systems is between _____ and _____F. Operating temp is around _____F.

A

180 and 200 degrees F
212 degrees F

97
Q

A steam heater pipe must be sloped a minimum of _____ toward the boiler for effective flow of water back to the boiler.

A

1 in per 10 ft

98
Q

_____ _____ _____ systems have a high potential for a fight between steam and water.

A

One pipe counter-flow

99
Q

In a _____ _____ _____ _____ system, water and steam travel in the same pipe until the last distribution device, then the water is carried back to the boiler in a separate pipe from the steam. A minimum slope of _____ is recommended toward the boiler.

A

One pipe parallel flow
1 in per 20 ft

100
Q

In a one pipe parallel flow system, the water return pipe is below the water level of the boiler, and is therefore called the _____ _____. If this component leaks the boiler could _____ _____.

A

Wet return
Run dry

101
Q

All steam heating systems with wet returns should have a _____ _____ and a _____ _____ to prevent the boiler from _____ _____.

A

Equalizer pipe
Hartford loop
Running dry

102
Q

Steam pipes are required to be _____, while water return pipes _____. Insulation on older pipes could contain _____.

A

insulated
are not
asbestos

103
Q

Steam heating systems should have at least one _____ _____, which may be a _____ _____ _____ or an _____ _____ _____, one of which should be located within __ in above the boiler water line and _____ in above the dry return pipe.

A

Main vent
Ball float trap
Inverted bucket trap
18
6 to 10

104
Q

Each heat distribution device in a one pipe steam system should be equipped with an _____ _____ near the _____ _____ of the device. A _____ or _____ after the heating cycle starts indicates a reportable defect as it indicates that it may be blocked.

A

Air vent
Vertical center
Hissing or sputtering

105
Q

Each heat distribution device in a two pipe steam system should be equipped with a _____ _____. A _____ _____ coming from it could indicate that it is defective. It’s service life is between __ and __ years.

A

thermostatic trap
Rapid sound
3 and 5

106
Q

Two pipe steam heating systems should be equipped with a ____ and _____ trap or ___ trap. The purpose of this trap is to allow ___ and ___ that collects in the steam supply to pass, but not allow ___ to escape.

A

float and thermostatic
F&T
air and water
steam

107
Q

A ___ ___ ___ ___ should be installed on boilers to shut off the boiler if water ___ ___ ___ level.

A

Low water shutoff switch
drops below minimum

108
Q

A ___ ___ ___ or a ___ ___ ___ ___ should be installed on boilers. This valve is usually a ___ psi/___F valve. The valve requires an extension pipe that may terminate within ___ in of the floor or to an ___ ___ ___.

A

pressure relief valve
temperature/pressure relief
15 psi/250 degree F
18
open waste receptor

109
Q

The device that controls steam pressure in a steam heating system is usually a _____ or a _____.

A

pressuretrol or vaporstat

110
Q

Banging in pipes is also known as _____ _____. This condition is a ___ and should be ___.

A

water hammer
deficiency
reported

111
Q

A humidifier should not be installed on a _____ _____, but instead on a _____. Humidifiers should not be installed in _____ areas subject to _____. If equipped with a bypass duct it should be made of _____ and not ____ ____ ____. The bypass duct should be equipped with a _____ that should be inserted or closed when the air conditioner is _____.

A

furnace cabinet
plenum
unconditioned
freezing
metal
flexible plastic duct
damper
operating

112
Q

Shower and bathtub valves should be equipped with a device that limits max water temp to ___ F, however home inspectors are not required to test this function.

A

120° F

113
Q

Single handle shower valves should have ____ set so that the valve handle does not turn past a ____ ____ and so that the water temperature is ____ over a reasonable ____.

A

stops
certain point
adjustable
range

114
Q

Hose connection faucets are commonly called ____ ____, ____ ____, ____ or ____ ____ depending on the region. These valves are designed for attachment to a ____ ____ such as a ____or ____. They are usually ____ valves.

A

hose-bibs, sill-cocks, spigots, or hose- cocks.
permanent support
building or post
compression

115
Q

A ____ ____ is a hose connection valve that is intended to be self-supporting and installed away from buildings in areas where structural support is not available. They are common in rural areas.

A

yard hydrant

116
Q

Hose connections subject to freezing should have a ____-____-____ valve, which enables the homeowner to shut off the water from an area not subject to freezing and allows the remainder of the valve mechanism to drain ahead of a freezing event or season. An alternative to this is the ____ ____ ____ ____, which have a long valve stem and pipe that extends into a warmer area that prevents the faucet from freezing.

A

stop-and-waste valve
frost proof hose connection

117
Q

Inspectors who practice in cold climates should report the presence of ____ ____ ____ that do not have a means to shut off and drain.

A

hose connection faucets

118
Q

An ____ injects air into the water stream from a faucet. This helps prevent water from ____ when ____ the sink surface. This component can become blocked causing ____ ____ ____.

A

aerator
splashing when hitting
low functional flow

119
Q

A ____ ____ is often installed in a faucet to limit the water flow rate. It is described as a plastic disc with ____ ____. This component can become blocked causing ____ ____
____.

A

flow restrictor
small holes
low functional flow

120
Q

Sink faucets have a maximum water flow rate of ___ gallons per minute. Shower heads have a max flow rate of ___ gallons per minute.

A

2.2
2.5

121
Q

Faucets and valves that supply hot and cold water should have the hot valve or setting on the ____ and the cold valve or setting on the ____. This can be reversed, but only if the valves or settings are ____ to indicate hot or cold.

A

left
right
labeled

122
Q

A bathtub equipped with a pump and motor and sometimes a water heater is known as a ____ ____ or ____ ____. Inspectors should not refer to these fixtures by the brand name ____.

A

whirlpool tub or hydro-massage tub
jacuzzi

123
Q

Common bathtub size is ___ by ___.

A

30” by 60”

124
Q

Bathtub drain outlets should be at least ___ “ in diameter and should include a ____ underneath. The fixture drain length should be no more than ___ ‘ long.

A

1 1/2”
p-trap
6’

125
Q

Bathtubs should have adequate ____. Excessive ____ can cause movement of plumbing causing leaks, can cause the tub to crack, and can cause the tub to ____ away from the drain. Inspectors should ____ ____ bathtubs and report any significant ____.

A

support
deflection
slope
step inside
deflection

126
Q

A whirlpool bathtub should bear completely on floor ____, on a platform that completely ____ the bathtub bottom, or on a bed of ____ or ____.

A

sheathing
supports
concrete or plaster

127
Q

Floor joists supporting a bathtub should not be ____ or ____. This is a reportable defect and is commonly seen in order to accommodate the ____ ____.

A

cut or notched
bathtub drain

128
Q

Bathtubs should be equipped with a water tight ____, and an ____ ____. ____ ____ should be tested, ____ should not.

A

stopper
overflow opening
mechanical stoppers
overflow openings

129
Q

Whirlpool bathtub pump should be readily ____ for ____ and ____. The minimum clear opening size is ___ by ___ or ___ by ___ if the pump is 2 or more feet from the opening. There should be no ____ between the opening and the pump.

A

accessible for service and repair
12” x 12”
18” x 18”
obstructions

130
Q

A shower drain outlet should be at least ___ in diameter. A drain not more than ___ ft long requires a 1 1/2” p-trap, and drains not more than ___ ft long require a 2” trap.

A

1 1/2”
6
8

131
Q

Minimum diameter shower size from finished wall to center of curb or threshold is ___ if the total floor area is at least ____ sq in. The minimum diameter drops to ___ in if the total floor area is at least ____ sq in.

A

30”
900 sq in.
25”
1,300 sq in.

Property Inspection Module 2 (14 decks)

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