Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biol > Heart + Circulatory System > Flashcards

Heart + Circulatory System Flashcards

1
Q

How many chambers does the heart have and what are they?

A

4 chambers
2 upper (Atria) and 2 lower (Ventricles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 3 parts does the Cardiovascular System consist of

A

Heart
Circulation - blood vessels
Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many times does the heart b/day

A

100,000 b/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the location and difference between the foreman ovale and the fossa ovalis?

A

The upper chambers. The foreman ovals exists until the first breath or for the first 24 hours of life.
It then becomes the fossa ovalis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many liters of blood does the heart pump per day

A

3784 Liters of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are the Atria seperated?

A

The interatrial septum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many miles of blood vessels per day

A

60,000 miles of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the auricles located and what is their purpose?

A

They are part of and above the Atria and they allow for additional expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does oxygenated blood operate regarding the heart

A

O2 is transported through the heart/aorta > into the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are the pectinate muscles located and what is their function?

A

It is on the outer surface of the Atria and is used for contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does deoxygenated blood operate regarding the heart

A

CO2 travels through the SVC, into the pulmonary trunk, which then is released into the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Heart location

A

Anterior to vertebral column
Posterior to sternum
1/3 is to the right of midline
2/3 left of midline
Found within the Mediastinum (area between lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does the right atria recieve blood from and what kind of blood is it?

A

From the body and heart wall. The blood is low in O2 and high in Co2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heart size

A

340g=11oz
12-14cm=5in long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which structures does the right Atria get blood from and where do those structures get that blood from?

A

Superior Vena Cava (all regions above the axillar (armpit))
Inferior Vena Cava (all regions lower than the axilla (armpit))
Coronary Sinus (from the myocardum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does the Heart sit in the thoracic cavity

A

Right side:
Rib 2
Base of heart

Left side:
Rib 5-6 intercostal space
Apex of heart - midclavicular line
PMI - point of maximal intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does the left Atria get its blood, by which structure does that give said blood, and what kind of blood is it?

A

It receives blood from the lungs, via the pulmonary veins, and the blood is O2 rich and Co2 poor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Cardiomegaly disease

A

Enlargement of heart - extends beyond parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are the ventricles separated from each and the atria?

A

Interventricular septum; atrioventricular valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do the ventricles receive blood from?

A

The atria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are the papillary muscles found, where are they attached and how, and what is there purpose?

A

They are located in the ventricles.
They are attached to the valves by chordae tendineae.
They prevent regurgitation (blood backflow into atria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 layered Protective coverings of the heart

A
  1. Fibrous Pericardium
  2. Serous Pericardium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is trabeculae carneae found and what is its purpose?

A

It is found at the ends of coordinate tendoneae and is for the strength of contraction of the ventricles wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Location and function of the Fibrous Pericardium

A

Outermost layer of heart
No elasticity
Prevents heart from over filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where do you find the atrioventricukar groove and the interventricular sulcus?

A

AV groove: between the atrium/ventricles
IV Sulcus: by the Great coronary vein and the Ant. IV Artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of blood is recieved by the right ventricles ND how does it relieve it?

A

O2 poor Co2 rich blood by way of the tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a Cardiac Tamponade

A

Fluid filling sac/bag around heart, preventing full contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does the right ventricles send blood out?

A

Through the pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary trunk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Serous Pericardium includes?

A

Simple squamous epi
Serous membrane
Serous fluid - lubricant/free movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What kind of blood does the left ventricles receive and where does it get the blood?

A

O2 rich/ Co2 poor blood from the Left atrium via bicuspid valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where does the blood from the left ventricles get sent?

A

To the aorta by way of the aortic semilunar valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What layers are within the Serous Pericardium outer to inner layer

A

Parietal layer
Pericardial cavity
Visceral layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where does the aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk send blood to?

A

The body and the lungs respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Wall of the heart contains what 3 layers

A

Epicardium - visceral layer of serous pericardium
Myocardium - Cardiac Muscle
Endocardium - Lines all inner surfaces of heart & valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the percentage breakdown of the myocardium?

A

1% Intrinsic conduction system (ICS) and 99% the contractile tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Functional Syncytium is defined as

A

a group of cells that work together as a single unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What similar qualities does the Myocardium have to skeletal muscle

A

Similar to skeletal muscle - actin/myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 3 key features of the ICS?

A

Unstable resting membrane potential (leaks Na+)
Does not need outside stimulation
Is self-depolorizing (self excititory) resulting in pacemaker potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myocardium differences from skeletal muscle

A

Minimum Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
2 sources of Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Chordae Tendineae prevents what

A

Prolapse of the AV valves - Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 2 key features in the Contractile tissue?

A

Receives stimulation from the ICS
Stable resting membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Trabeculae Carneae provides?

A

Strength for muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens in ventricular Systole?

A

The pressure is higher - contraction
AV valves close
—>S1 heart sound aka LUBB
SL valves open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens in ventricular Diastole?

A

The pressure is lower - relaxation
Av valves open
SL valves closes
—>S2 heart sound aka DUBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

SA Node name and function

A

Sinoatrial node
Pacemaker of the heart
Normal Sinus Rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does autorythmicity relate to the heart?

A

Autorythmicity is an organs ability to generate its own rhythm without outside stimuli. The heart beats at roughly 100/min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

SA Node Depolarization Rate

A

100x/min due to leakiest Na channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How long do contractions take and long long is the refractory period of the heart.

A

Contractions last 250 mS
Refractory period lasts 250 mS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

SA Node location

A

Base of Superior Vena Cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the SA Node Stimulate

A

The Atria - Contraction
The AV node (Atrioventricular node)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does each number represent?

A
  1. Resting membrane potential (-60mV)
  2. Na+ influx causes depolirazation
  3. Ca2+ channels open as threshold is reached (-40mV)
  4. Depolorization of the pacemaker potential
  5. K+ Efflux causes repolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

AV Node Depolarization Rate

A

50x/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

AV Node location

A

At top of Interventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the name when AV Node becomes pacemaker

A

Junctional Rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Junctional Rhythm is?

A

an abnormal heart rhythm that originates from the AV node or His bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens if SA Node fails

A

The AV Node will act as the new pacemaker, but an artificial pacemaker will be needed to speed up the AV Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

AV bundles Depolarization rate

A

30x/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Purkinje Fibers Depolarization Rate

A

30x/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Intrinsic Conduction System pathway regarding the Nodes

A

SA Node > AV Node > AV Bundles > R/L Bundle Branches > Purkinje Fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the range of normal Sinus Rhythm is?

A

between 60 and 100 beats per minute (BPM) in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Time from SA Node to Purkinje Fibers?

A

0.22 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What happens if we exceed the SA Node > Purkinje fibers time of 0.22 sec cycle

A

This results in a heart block
Primary heart block
1st degree block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does each number represent?

A
  1. Resting membrane potential
  2. Voltage regulated Na+ channels open, influx causes depolarization (there is no threshold)
  3. Extracellular Ca2+ channels open
  4. Brief K+ Efflux causes dip In mV as attempted repolarization occurs
  5. Plateau; Sarcoplasmic Reticulum Ca2+ channels (Intercellular) open, maintaining depolarization.
  6. Efflux of K+ causes repolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cardiac Output (CO) =

A

SV x HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Stroke Volume (SV) =

A

70ml/beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Heart Rate (HR) =

A

75beat/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

SV x HR =

A

70ml/beat x 75beat/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

70ml/beat x 75beat/min

A

5250 ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What two systems have an influence on regulating SV & HR

A

ANS -
-Limbic System,
-Cerebral Cortex,
-Chemoreceptors - pH (CO2)
-Baroreceptors - Pressure
Endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does this graph and the numbers on it represent?

A

ECG/EKG
1. P-Wave: Atrial depolarization
2-4. QRS: Ventricular depolarization
5. T-Wave: Ventricular repolarization
6. ST Segment
7. PQ/PR interval
8. QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What occurs during mid-late diastole, where does it occur, and how does it present on an ECG/EKG?

A

Left Ventricle, presents as P-Wave (P-Wave is Atriole depolarization (Systole))
Ventricles pressure is low and AV Valve is open
Blood from atrium is passively moving into ventricle (70% of the blood in the heart)
Semilunar valve is closed (Ventricular pressure is less arterial pressure)
Atrial pressure increases, pushing last 30% of the blood into the ventricles resulting in End Diastolic Volume (EDV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What happens during ventricle systole and how is that represented on the ECG/EKG?

A

Ventricular systole presents as the QRS complex
This is the Ventricular depolarization resulting in contraction
Ventricle pressure increases, becoming greater than Atrial pressure as the atria enters diastole
The closing of the AV valves result in the first sound we hear; the “lubb”
All 4 valves close in isovolumetric contraction
Ventricle pressure continues to build even greater than Arterial pressure
SL valves open, causing an ejection of blood we experience as the “feel” of a pulse, also called the Ventricular ejection phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What occurs during Ventricular diastole and how does it present on an ekg/ecg?

A

This presents as the T-Wave
The ventricles relax, dropping ventricular pressure lower than Arterial pressure
SL valves close, resulting in the second sound we hear; the “dubb”
All 4 valves close in isovolumetric relaxation
We see the dictrotic notch, a surge in pressure w/I the aorta when the SL valves close that marks the end of systole/the start of diastole.
A small amount of blood remains in the ventricles (end systolic volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What Is stroke volume and what is the typical value for stroke volume?

A

Stroke volume (SV) is the End Diastolic Value (EDV) subtracted from the End Systolic Volume (ESV)
EDV is usually 120 ml and the ESV is usually 50 ml
120ml - 50ml = 70ml (SV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the Sympathetic Division use

A

Neurotransmitter - Norepinephrine/Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the center cavity of a blood vessel called?

A

Lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the effects of Norepinephrine on the SA & AV Nodes

A
  • Increase Na Permeability/Decrease K Permeability which will increase rate of depolarization to threshold > Increasing HR
80
Q

What are the 3 layers of the vessels called?

A

The three tunics.
Tunica international (intima)
Tunica media
Tunica externa (adventitia)

81
Q

What are the effects of Norepinephrine on the Contractile Fibers - the 99%

A
  • Increase permeability of Ca which results in more crossbridges and Stronger contraction > Increasing SV
82
Q

What are the layers of the 1st tunic of the vessels?

A
  1. Endothelium (in the endocardium as well) (simple squamous epithelial)
  2. Sub endothelium/sub epithelium (basal layer)
  3. Internal elastic membrane (arteries only)
83
Q

What does the Parasympathetic Division use

A

Neurotransmitter - Acetylcholine

84
Q

What are the layers of the 2nd vessel tunic, what are their functions and how are they controlled?

A
  1. Smooth muscle, controlled by the ANS and Endocrine systems, for vasodilation and vasoconstriction
  2. External elastic membrane (in arteries only)
85
Q

What are the effects of Acetylcholine in regards to the heart

A

-Increases Permeability of K
-Effects SA/AV Nodes ONLY
-Decreases HR and has no DIRECT effect on SV

86
Q

What happens when increasing Permeability of K

A

Hyperpolarization, which takes longer for the ICS to reach threshold

87
Q

Frank Starling’s Law of the Heart?

A

Stroke Volume Remains Unchanged

88
Q

Other than a neurotransmitter, what is Epinephrine/Norepinephrine known as?

A

Hormones (Adrenal glands) - Has same effect as the Sympathetic Division of ANS

89
Q

What is the 3rd vessel tunic comprised of?

A

Loose connective tissue to act as the anchor
Nerves
Vaso vasorum (smaller blood vessels that provide nutrients and molecules for cellular activity to the larger vessel.

90
Q

What does the thyroid hormone/gland do?

A
  • Increases cell metabolism
  • Increases HR & SV
91
Q

What are 3 examples of elastic arteries, what is the purpose of that elasticity, what is the responsiveness to the ANS and Endocrine and what is the typical size range?

A

Aorta, subclavian, common carotid
The elasticity is to absorb energy and expand and contract
2.5 - 1 cm in diameter
Minimal response to the ANS and Hormones

92
Q

Hyperthyroidism is?

A
  • Tachycardia - Fast HR - Individuals tend to be thinner
93
Q

Hypothyroidism is?

A

Bradycardia - Slower HR - Individuals tend to be more over weight, w/o energy

94
Q

What are Blood vessels?

A

A network of dynamic tubes, which can be modified/changed

95
Q

How are the muscular arteries controlled and what is there size range?

A

ANS and Hormones control these
1cm - .3mm

96
Q

What is the size range for arterioles and what do they respond to?

A

Size range is 3mm - 10 microbes
Responsive to ANS and Hormones

97
Q

What is it called when blood vessel contracts

A

Vasoconstriction

98
Q

What does Vasoconstriction cause?

A

The Lumen diameter to decrease resulting in an increase in pressure

99
Q

What is it called when blood vessel wall relaxes

A

Vasodilation

100
Q

What does Vasodilation cause?

A

The Lumen diameter to increase resulting in a decrease in pressure

101
Q

What is the general sequence of the circulatory system?

A

Heart > Arteries > Arterioles > Capilary beds > Venules > Veins

102
Q

What 2 components does Microcirculation contain?

A
  1. Vascular Shunts = Meta-arterioles
  2. Continuous Capillaries
103
Q

What does each number indicated? Are veins pulsitile or non pulsitile and what happens if a venous valve fails?

A
  1. Venule
  2. Small-medium vein
  3. Large vein.
    Veins are non pulsitile (arteries are pulsitile) and if a venous valve fails through blood backflows causing a varicose vein.
104
Q

Both components of Microcirculation together =

A

Precapillary Sphincters (Valves/Gates to the capillary beds)

105
Q

What can the Vascular shunt do when precapillary sphincter valve/gates are closed?

A

It can bypass from the arteriole to the venule when the precapillary sphincters are closed.

106
Q

What happens when Precapillary sphincter valve/gates are open?

A

Sends blood into capillary beds and into the tissue

107
Q

Why do we need valves/gates for capillary beds?

A

Because there are so many capillary beds, our body will open and close these valves/gates for better circulation and to keep blood pressure up.

108
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries

A

Continuous
Fenestrated
Sinusoidal caps

109
Q

Fenestrated

A

Fenestra - more permeable found in kidneys for filtering blood

110
Q
A
111
Q
A
112
Q

What purpose does the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism serve?

A

Long term indirect maintainable of blood pressure

113
Q

What 3 hormones does our body use to maintain blood pressure?

A
  1. Adrenal Medulla
  2. Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)
  3. Antiduretic hormone (ADH)
114
Q

What is the F=DeltaP/R formula

A

F= Flow of blood
DeltaP = change of pressure
R = peripheral Resistance - Friction

115
Q

Where is the adrenal medulla?

A

The adrenal medulla is in the middle of the adrenal gland

116
Q

Explain Adrenal Medulla?
Whats the stimulus for it to be produced?
What hormone does it produce?
What does the hormone do?

A

Stimulus to produce this hormone= low BP

Produce hormones =Epinephrine/ Norepinephrine

Hormones (Epi/ Norepi) cause vasocostriction which increases BP

117
Q

What does Pressure have influence on?

A

Cardiac output (CO) - ^CO > ^P

Vessel wall compliance - ^Compliance > decrease in P

Lumen diameter - ^Lumen > decrease in P

118
Q

What factors go into Resistance in circulation

A

Hydration/blood viscosity - decrease in viscosity > decrease in resistance

Vessel length - ^Length > ^Resistance

Lumen diameter - decrease in diameter > ^Resistance

119
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
Where is this hormone produced?
What stimulation for it to be produced?
Where does this target?
What does it do?

A

Produced by atria

Stimulus = high BP

targets kidneys

Increases the excretion of Na+ and H20. This causes blood volume to decrease and then BP to lower

120
Q

Outline the steps of the renin angiotensin aldosterone mechanism

A

Lowered blood pressure
The kidneys sense the drop in BP
Kidneys release renin (enzyme)
Renin enters the blood
Renin converts any inactive protein (angiotensinogen) in the blood into angiotensin 1
Angiotensin 1 makes it’s way into the lungs
Lungs contain an enzyme that converts angiotensin 1 into angiotensen 2

121
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Where is this produced?
Where does this target?
What does it do?

A

Produced by the pituitary gland

target kidneys

Increases reabsorption of H20 from kidneys into blood. This increases blood volume, which increases BP.

122
Q

What does angiotensin 2 cause?

A

Vasoconstriction (increasing bp)
Stimulates release of antiduretic hormone (ADH) (increasing bp)
Stimulates the adrenal glands to release aldosterone (increasing bp)

123
Q

Pulsatile contraction and relaxation regarding blood pressure

A

Contraction = ^P = Systolic P (120mmHg)

Relaxation = decrease in P = Diastolic P (70-80mmHg)

124
Q

How to calculate Pulse Pressure

A

Systolic P - Diastolic P
120mmHg - 80mmHg

Pulse Pressure = 40mmHg

125
Q

What blocks the Antiduretic hormone?

A

Ethyl Alcohol (ETOH)
This is why you get dehydrated when drinking alcohol because ADH which increases blood hydration and blood pressure is blocked.

126
Q

How does aldosterone affect bp?

A

Aldosterone Stimulates the kidneys to reabsorption sodium into the blood, drawing water into the blood after the sodium

127
Q

How does aldosterone affect bp?

A

Aldosterone Stimulates the kidneys to reabsorption sodium into the blood, drawing water into the blood after the sodium

128
Q

Why would an ACE inhibitor be prescribed?

A

ACE inhibitors block production of Angiotensen 2 by prevents angiotensen 1 from reaching the lungs, preventing bp from increasing

129
Q

How does the body maintain blood pressure?

A

Maintains with feedback loop
receptor —>Integration—>effector

130
Q

How to calculate Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

A

Diastolic P + (Pulse Pressure/3)

80 + (40/3) MAP = 93mmHg - average

131
Q

What are the receptors of maintaining the blood pressure?

A

*baroreceptors
*chemoreceptors
thermoreceptors

132
Q

What happens to the pressure if the sum of diameter of ALL capillaries increases

A

Decreases pressure

133
Q

Where will you find baroreceptors?
What is the stimulus for this receptor?
What will it do in response?

A

Carotid sinus
(where common carotid artery bifurcates into internal and external carotid arteries)

Aortic arch

Stimulus= low BP
Will vasoconstrict to increase BP

134
Q

Explain high and low bp long term maintaince as it relates to blood volume.

A

Higher bp means higher filtration which leads to increase of H2O loss resulting in decrease of blood volume
Lower bp means lower filtration which leads to decrease of H2O loss resulting in Increase of blood volume

135
Q

What do the chemoreceptors monitor?
What is the stimulus?
What will it do in response?

A

pH and indirectly CO2

Stimulus= low pH (~acidic)
In response would increase BP to increase flow

136
Q

What is the integration center in the feedback loop of maintaining BP?

A

Medulla oblongata
(brainstem)
You will find vasomotor centers here

137
Q

What are the effectors in a feedback loop?

A

smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
glands

138
Q

What keeps the blood moving in the Venous System

A

Skeletal muscle pump
Respiratory Pump
Pulsation of nearby artery
Venous valves

139
Q

What happens when the diameter of capillaries increases too much?

A

The pressure drops.
If the pressure drops from 40mmHg to 20mmHg ot lower the capillaries become nonpulsitile

140
Q

Why is there no pulsation in the Venous System

A

The diameter is increased resulting in a decrease in pressure - 20mmHg

141
Q

How are the capillary beds permeable?

A

Permeable to gas exchange, losing nutrients and fluids to tissues.

142
Q

What does blood transport?

A

Oxegen (O2)
carbon dioxide (CO2)
Nutrients (ex. glucose, ions)
Hormones
Waste
(waste of metabolism like urea and uric acid)

143
Q

How does blood work as protection?

A

Carries anitbodies which provide immunity

144
Q

How does blood work in regulation?

A

Regulates pH, Temp. and Buffering

145
Q

In a test tube of blood what will you find and was are the percentages of the blood volume?

A

Plasma = 55%
Formed elements (Hematocrit) = 45%

146
Q

What’s hematocrit?

A

The formed elements in the blood which include:
–RBC = 45%
–WBC = >1%
–Platelets (thrombocytes)

147
Q

What’s a buffy coat?

A

the white/yellow layer of leukocytes between the hematocrit and plasma when blood is centrifuged.

148
Q

What would you find in plasma?

A

Fibers = Fibrinogen
Protiens =
–Antibodies (Ab)
–Electrolytes
–Albumen
(works to prevent water from leaving blood to interstitual fluid)

149
Q

What are the characteristics of blood?

A

pH = 7.35 to 7.45
Volume = 5 liters.
Temperature = 100.4 F.
Total body wt.= 8%.

150
Q

Whats an erythrocyte?

A

Red Blood Cell (RBC)

151
Q

What’s erythropoiesis?

A

RBC development

152
Q

Where does erythropoiesis occur?

A

Red bone marrow

153
Q

How is erythropoesis regulated?

A

Hormone Erythropoietin
> a hormone that is produced in kidney when O2 levels drop
> stimulates erythropoesis
—-> the reason low O2 levels stimulate erythropoesis is becuase when O2 is low, you want to be more efficentat carring O2

154
Q

How long does erythropoesis take?

A

3-5 days

155
Q

What is the erythrocyte structure?

A

-No nucleus
-Membrane bag containing hemoglobin = gas carrying and exchange.
-Biconcave morphology

156
Q

What is the lifespan of erythrocytes? What happens after?

A

120 days
Hemoglobin is broken to bilirubin in liver

157
Q

How many erythrocytes will you find in a µL

A

4 - 6 Million/ µL

158
Q

RBC devlopmental phases

A

Hemocytoblast
–> Erythroblast
–> Erythrocytes

159
Q

What are the two main types of anemia? What blood cells does this effect?

A

Microcytic anemia
Macrocytic anemia
This effects RBC

160
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

The RBC diameter is too SMALL

161
Q

What 4 arteries make up the circle of willis?

A

Anterior & Posterior cerebral artery
Anterior & Posterior communicating artery

162
Q

Iron (Fe) Deficiency Anemia

A

Fe is required for hemoglobin, so there is low hemoglobin, and smaller RBCs

163
Q

Macrocytic Anemia

A

RBC diameter is too LARGE

164
Q

Anemia

A

blood has an unusually low O2 carrying capacity

165
Q

Pernicious Anemia
What causes it?
Microcytic or macrocytic anemia?
Who is likely to have?

A

Macrocytic anemia
B12 deficiency
B12 is needed for proper development of RBC (RBC fail to divide -> enlarged cell)
- vegans because inproper diet
- those w/ low Intrinsic factor (helps absorb B12 in digestive system)

166
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia
Microcytic or Macrocytic anemia?

A

macrocytic anemia
hemorrhage = loss of blood from a damaged blood vessel
In response, increase RBC production (erythopoesis) and immature RBC are pushed into circulation.
Immature RBC are too large

167
Q

Hemalytic Anemia
Microcytic or Macrocytic anemia?
What’s happening?
What are causes?

A

macrocytic anemia
Abnormal breakdown of RBC —> LYSE
Cause: Mismatch transfusion or infection
As result RBC production ↑↑ and immature RBC in circulation (too big)

168
Q

What are globulins?

A

Antibodies in the plasma

169
Q

What’s a granulocyte?
What are the types?

A

WBC with cytoplasmic granules
Types:
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophiles
3. Basophils

170
Q

Leukocyte

A

White blood cell

171
Q

Neutrophil
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color

A

granulocyte
3,000 - 7,000 cells / µL
*Phagocytic (bacteria)
Mutilobed nucleus
Light Blue to Purple stain

172
Q

Eosinophiles
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color

A

granulocyte
100 - 400 cells /µL
* Phagocytic –> PARASITIC INFECTIONs
Biloped nucleus
Pink-redish stain

173
Q

Basophiles
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color

A

granulocyte
20 - 50 cells /µL
- produce Histamine which is involved in inflammation
deep blue-purple stain

174
Q

What are agranulocytes?
What are the types?

A

> leukocytes w/o cytoplasmic granules
Types:
- Monocytes (Macrophage)
- Lymphocytes

175
Q

What is a monocyte, how does it related to macrophages?
Characteristic(s)?
-Cells / µL
-Nucleus
-Color

A

agranulocyte
Monocytes mature into Macrophages
Macrophages are Phagocytic (general)
100 - 700 cells/ µL
“U” shaped nucleus
Light blue gray stain

176
Q

Lymphocytes
Characteristic(s)?
-Cells / µL
-Nucleus
-Color

A

agranulocytes
Produce Antibodies (which are involved in immunity & direct cell attack)
1500 - 3000 cells / µL
Nucleus is Large & spherical; taking most of the cell
Pale blue stain

177
Q

Leukopenia

A

penia = poverty
Disease where there is low WBC count
induced by drugs , infections, &diseases

178
Q

Leukemia

A

Mass increased WBC count
Cancerous condition where immature WBCs remain mitotically active

179
Q

What are Thrombocytes?
Function?
Amt per microliter?
Color?

A

Platelets = fragments of cell membrane (cytoplasm) of hemacytoblasts

function: initiates blood clotting

250,000 - 500,000 fragments/ µL

small Light blue-purple fragments

180
Q

Hemostasis
what are the 3 phases?

A

blockage of bleeding = clotting
Phases:
- Vascular Spam
- Platelet plug formation
- Coagulation

181
Q

Whats Hemostasis?

A

stoppage of bleeding

182
Q

What are the 3 steps of hemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular Spasm
  2. Platelet Plug Formation
  3. Coagulation
183
Q

Vascular Spasm

A

when injury happened to blood vessels, the smooth muscle vasconstricts to prevent loss of blood

184
Q

Platelet Plug Formation

A

Because the vessel wall in damaged including the endothelium, COLLEGEN fibers are exposed
Platelets STICK together and PLUG

185
Q

Coagulation

A
  • Plasma turns from a Fluid to a GEL
  • the Fibrinogen turns into a FIBRIN MESH
  • fribrinogen mesh TRAPS WBC & PLATELETS
  • creates a solid mass
  • clot plugs hole
186
Q

Antigens

A

surface protiens on the surface of cell membrane (blood cells) and works as an ID marker

187
Q

Antibodies

A

Specific protiens made to destroy an foreign substance with an ID marker or anitigen seen as a threat (not self or autoimmune disease)

188
Q

What are the blood types?

A

Type A (+/-)
Type B (+/-)
Type AB (+/-)
Type O (+/-)

189
Q

What are the population percentages of the basic blood types

A

Type A 41%
Type B 10%
Type AB 4%
Type O 45%

190
Q

Agglutination

A

when particles clump together as a result of an antigen - antibody reaction

191
Q

Universal Donor

A

Type O (-)
-has none of the 3 antigens

192
Q

Universal Recipient

A

Type AB (+)
- has all 3 antigens

193
Q

Explain Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

A

When a Rh postive father and a Rh negative mother are pregnant with a child. There is a statistical chance the fetus could be Rh postive. The mother would be exposed to blood of the child and mother during birth, and the mother would develope antibodies for the Rh antigen. If the mother become pregnant again with a Rh postive baby, the mother would develop immunity to Rh antigen. And when pregnant again, the mothers Rh antibodies would attach to fetus’ Rh antigens and this would cause fetal death.

194
Q

What does Rh stand for?

A

an antigen found first in a Rhesus money.

195
Q

What drug is now used to prevent Erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

RhoGAM
which blocks antibody prevntion

Biol (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions