Heart + Circulatory System Flashcards
1
Q
How many chambers does the heart have and what are they?
A
4 chambers
2 upper (Atria) and 2 lower (Ventricles)
2
Q
What 3 parts does the Cardiovascular System consist of
A
Heart
Circulation - blood vessels
Blood
3
Q
How many times does the heart b/day
A
100,000 b/day
4
Q
What is the location and difference between the foreman ovale and the fossa ovalis?
A
The upper chambers. The foreman ovals exists until the first breath or for the first 24 hours of life.
It then becomes the fossa ovalis.
5
Q
How many liters of blood does the heart pump per day
A
3784 Liters of blood
6
Q
How are the Atria seperated?
A
The interatrial septum.
7
Q
How many miles of blood vessels per day
A
60,000 miles of vessels
8
Q
Where are the auricles located and what is their purpose?
A
They are part of and above the Atria and they allow for additional expansion.
9
Q
How does oxygenated blood operate regarding the heart
A
O2 is transported through the heart/aorta > into the rest of the body
10
Q
Where are the pectinate muscles located and what is their function?
A
It is on the outer surface of the Atria and is used for contraction.
11
Q
How does deoxygenated blood operate regarding the heart
A
CO2 travels through the SVC, into the pulmonary trunk, which then is released into the lungs
12
Q
Heart location
A
Anterior to vertebral column
Posterior to sternum
1/3 is to the right of midline
2/3 left of midline
Found within the Mediastinum (area between lungs)
13
Q
Where does the right atria recieve blood from and what kind of blood is it?
A
From the body and heart wall. The blood is low in O2 and high in Co2.
14
Q
Heart size
A
340g=11oz
12-14cm=5in long
15
Q
Which structures does the right Atria get blood from and where do those structures get that blood from?
A
Superior Vena Cava (all regions above the axillar (armpit))
Inferior Vena Cava (all regions lower than the axilla (armpit))
Coronary Sinus (from the myocardum)
16
Q
Where does the Heart sit in the thoracic cavity
A
Right side:
Rib 2
Base of heart
Left side:
Rib 5-6 intercostal space
Apex of heart - midclavicular line
PMI - point of maximal intensity
17
Q
Where does the left Atria get its blood, by which structure does that give said blood, and what kind of blood is it?
A
It receives blood from the lungs, via the pulmonary veins, and the blood is O2 rich and Co2 poor.
18
Q
What is Cardiomegaly disease
A
Enlargement of heart - extends beyond parameters
19
Q
How are the ventricles separated from each and the atria?
A
Interventricular septum; atrioventricular valves.
20
Q
Where do the ventricles receive blood from?
A
The atria.
21
Q
Where are the papillary muscles found, where are they attached and how, and what is there purpose?
A
They are located in the ventricles.
They are attached to the valves by chordae tendineae.
They prevent regurgitation (blood backflow into atria)
22
Q
2 layered Protective coverings of the heart
A
- Fibrous Pericardium
- Serous Pericardium
23
Q
Where is trabeculae carneae found and what is its purpose?
A
It is found at the ends of coordinate tendoneae and is for the strength of contraction of the ventricles wall.
24
Q
Location and function of the Fibrous Pericardium
A
Outermost layer of heart
No elasticity
Prevents heart from over filling
25
Where do you find the atrioventricukar groove and the interventricular sulcus?
AV groove: between the atrium/ventricles
IV Sulcus: by the Great coronary vein and the Ant. IV Artery.
26
What kind of blood is recieved by the right ventricles ND how does it relieve it?
O2 poor Co2 rich blood by way of the tricuspid valve
27
What is a Cardiac Tamponade
Fluid filling sac/bag around heart, preventing full contraction
28
How does the right ventricles send blood out?
Through the pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary trunk.
29
Serous Pericardium includes?
Simple squamous epi
Serous membrane
Serous fluid - lubricant/free movement
30
What kind of blood does the left ventricles receive and where does it get the blood?
O2 rich/ Co2 poor blood from the Left atrium via bicuspid valve.
31
Where does the blood from the left ventricles get sent?
To the aorta by way of the aortic semilunar valve.
32
What layers are within the Serous Pericardium outer to inner layer
Parietal layer
Pericardial cavity
Visceral layer
33
Where does the aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk send blood to?
The body and the lungs respectively.
34
Wall of the heart contains what 3 layers
Epicardium - visceral layer of serous pericardium
Myocardium - Cardiac Muscle
Endocardium - Lines all inner surfaces of heart & valves
35
What is the percentage breakdown of the myocardium?
1% Intrinsic conduction system (ICS) and 99% the contractile tissue.
36
Functional Syncytium is defined as
a group of cells that work together as a single unit
37
What similar qualities does the Myocardium have to skeletal muscle
Similar to skeletal muscle - actin/myosin
38
What are the 3 key features of the ICS?
Unstable resting membrane potential (leaks Na+)
Does not need outside stimulation
Is self-depolorizing (self excititory) resulting in pacemaker potential
39
Myocardium differences from skeletal muscle
Minimum Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
2 sources of Ca
40
Chordae Tendineae prevents what
Prolapse of the AV valves - Regurgitation
41
What are the 2 key features in the Contractile tissue?
Receives stimulation from the ICS
Stable resting membrane
42
Trabeculae Carneae provides?
Strength for muscle contraction
43
What happens in ventricular Systole?
The pressure is higher - contraction
AV valves close
—>S1 heart sound aka LUBB
SL valves open
44
What happens in ventricular Diastole?
The pressure is lower - relaxation
Av valves open
SL valves closes
—>S2 heart sound aka DUBB
45
SA Node name and function
Sinoatrial node
Pacemaker of the heart
Normal Sinus Rhythm
46
How does autorythmicity relate to the heart?
Autorythmicity is an organs ability to generate its own rhythm without outside stimuli. The heart beats at roughly 100/min.
47
SA Node Depolarization Rate
100x/min due to leakiest Na channels
48
How long do contractions take and long long is the refractory period of the heart.
Contractions last 250 mS
Refractory period lasts 250 mS
49
SA Node location
Base of Superior Vena Cava
50
What does the SA Node Stimulate
The Atria - Contraction
The AV node (Atrioventricular node)
51
What does each number represent?
1. Resting membrane potential (-60mV)
2. Na+ influx causes depolirazation
3. Ca2+ channels open as threshold is reached (-40mV)
4. Depolorization of the pacemaker potential
5. K+ Efflux causes repolarization
52
AV Node Depolarization Rate
50x/min
53
AV Node location
At top of Interventricular septum
54
What is the name when AV Node becomes pacemaker
Junctional Rhythm
55
Junctional Rhythm is?
an abnormal heart rhythm that originates from the AV node or His bundle
56
What happens if SA Node fails
The AV Node will act as the new pacemaker, but an artificial pacemaker will be needed to speed up the AV Node
57
AV bundles Depolarization rate
30x/min
58
Purkinje Fibers Depolarization Rate
30x/min
59
Intrinsic Conduction System pathway regarding the Nodes
SA Node > AV Node > AV Bundles > R/L Bundle Branches > Purkinje Fibers
60
What is the range of normal Sinus Rhythm is?
between 60 and 100 beats per minute (BPM) in adults
61
Time from SA Node to Purkinje Fibers?
0.22 Seconds
62
What happens if we exceed the SA Node > Purkinje fibers time of 0.22 sec cycle
This results in a heart block
Primary heart block
1st degree block
63
64
What does each number represent?
1. Resting membrane potential
2. Voltage regulated Na+ channels open, influx causes depolarization (there is no threshold)
3. Extracellular Ca2+ channels open
4. Brief K+ Efflux causes dip In mV as attempted repolarization occurs
5. Plateau; Sarcoplasmic Reticulum Ca2+ channels (Intercellular) open, maintaining depolarization.
6. Efflux of K+ causes repolarization
65
Cardiac Output (CO) =
SV x HR
66
Stroke Volume (SV) =
70ml/beat
67
Heart Rate (HR) =
75beat/min
68
SV x HR =
70ml/beat x 75beat/min
69
70ml/beat x 75beat/min
5250 ml/min
70
What two systems have an influence on regulating SV & HR
ANS -
-Limbic System,
-Cerebral Cortex,
-Chemoreceptors - pH (CO2)
-Baroreceptors - Pressure
Endocrine
71
What does this graph and the numbers on it represent?
ECG/EKG
1. P-Wave: Atrial depolarization
2-4. QRS: Ventricular depolarization
5. T-Wave: Ventricular repolarization
6. ST Segment
7. PQ/PR interval
8. QRS complex
72
73
What occurs during mid-late diastole, where does it occur, and how does it present on an ECG/EKG?
Left Ventricle, presents as P-Wave (P-Wave is Atriole depolarization (Systole))
Ventricles pressure is low and AV Valve is open
Blood from atrium is passively moving into ventricle (70% of the blood in the heart)
Semilunar valve is closed (Ventricular pressure is less arterial pressure)
Atrial pressure increases, pushing last 30% of the blood into the ventricles resulting in End Diastolic Volume (EDV)
74
What happens during ventricle systole and how is that represented on the ECG/EKG?
Ventricular systole presents as the QRS complex
This is the Ventricular depolarization resulting in contraction
Ventricle pressure increases, becoming greater than Atrial pressure as the atria enters diastole
The closing of the AV valves result in the first sound we hear; the "lubb"
All 4 valves close in isovolumetric contraction
Ventricle pressure continues to build even greater than Arterial pressure
SL valves open, causing an ejection of blood we experience as the "feel" of a pulse, also called the Ventricular ejection phase
75
What occurs during Ventricular diastole and how does it present on an ekg/ecg?
This presents as the T-Wave
The ventricles relax, dropping ventricular pressure lower than Arterial pressure
SL valves close, resulting in the second sound we hear; the "dubb"
All 4 valves close in isovolumetric relaxation
We see the dictrotic notch, a surge in pressure w/I the aorta when the SL valves close that marks the end of systole/the start of diastole.
A small amount of blood remains in the ventricles (end systolic volume)
76
What Is stroke volume and what is the typical value for stroke volume?
Stroke volume (SV) is the End Diastolic Value (EDV) subtracted from the End Systolic Volume (ESV)
EDV is usually 120 ml and the ESV is usually 50 ml
120ml - 50ml = 70ml (SV)
77
What does the Sympathetic Division use
Neurotransmitter - Norepinephrine/Epinephrine
78
What is the center cavity of a blood vessel called?
Lumen
79
What are the effects of Norepinephrine on the SA & AV Nodes
- Increase Na Permeability/Decrease K Permeability which will increase rate of depolarization to threshold > Increasing HR
80
What are the 3 layers of the vessels called?
The three tunics.
Tunica international (intima)
Tunica media
Tunica externa (adventitia)
81
What are the effects of Norepinephrine on the Contractile Fibers - the 99%
- Increase permeability of Ca which results in more crossbridges and Stronger contraction > Increasing SV
82
What are the layers of the 1st tunic of the vessels?
1. Endothelium (in the endocardium as well) (simple squamous epithelial)
2. Sub endothelium/sub epithelium (basal layer)
3. Internal elastic membrane (arteries only)
83
What does the Parasympathetic Division use
Neurotransmitter - Acetylcholine
84
What are the layers of the 2nd vessel tunic, what are their functions and how are they controlled?
1. Smooth muscle, controlled by the ANS and Endocrine systems, for vasodilation and vasoconstriction
2. External elastic membrane (in arteries only)
85
What are the effects of Acetylcholine in regards to the heart
-Increases Permeability of K
-Effects SA/AV Nodes ONLY
-Decreases HR and has no DIRECT effect on SV
86
What happens when increasing Permeability of K
Hyperpolarization, which takes longer for the ICS to reach threshold
87
Frank Starling's Law of the Heart?
Stroke Volume Remains Unchanged
88
Other than a neurotransmitter, what is Epinephrine/Norepinephrine known as?
Hormones (Adrenal glands) - Has same effect as the Sympathetic Division of ANS
89
What is the 3rd vessel tunic comprised of?
Loose connective tissue to act as the anchor
Nerves
Vaso vasorum (smaller blood vessels that provide nutrients and molecules for cellular activity to the larger vessel.
90
What does the thyroid hormone/gland do?
- Increases cell metabolism
- Increases HR & SV
91
What are 3 examples of elastic arteries, what is the purpose of that elasticity, what is the responsiveness to the ANS and Endocrine and what is the typical size range?
Aorta, subclavian, common carotid
The elasticity is to absorb energy and expand and contract
2.5 - 1 cm in diameter
Minimal response to the ANS and Hormones
92
Hyperthyroidism is?
- Tachycardia - Fast HR - Individuals tend to be thinner
93
Hypothyroidism is?
Bradycardia - Slower HR - Individuals tend to be more over weight, w/o energy
94
What are Blood vessels?
A network of dynamic tubes, which can be modified/changed
95
How are the muscular arteries controlled and what is there size range?
ANS and Hormones control these
1cm - .3mm
96
What is the size range for arterioles and what do they respond to?
Size range is 3mm - 10 microbes
Responsive to ANS and Hormones
97
What is it called when blood vessel contracts
Vasoconstriction
98
What does Vasoconstriction cause?
The Lumen diameter to decrease resulting in an increase in pressure
99
What is it called when blood vessel wall relaxes
Vasodilation
100
What does Vasodilation cause?
The Lumen diameter to increase resulting in a decrease in pressure
101
What is the general sequence of the circulatory system?
Heart > Arteries > Arterioles > Capilary beds > Venules > Veins
102
What 2 components does Microcirculation contain?
1. Vascular Shunts = Meta-arterioles
2. Continuous Capillaries
103
What does each number indicated? Are veins pulsitile or non pulsitile and what happens if a venous valve fails?
1. Venule
2. Small-medium vein
3. Large vein.
Veins are non pulsitile (arteries are pulsitile) and if a venous valve fails through blood backflows causing a varicose vein.
104
Both components of Microcirculation together =
Precapillary Sphincters (Valves/Gates to the capillary beds)
105
What can the Vascular shunt do when precapillary sphincter valve/gates are closed?
It can bypass from the arteriole to the venule when the precapillary sphincters are closed.
106
What happens when Precapillary sphincter valve/gates are open?
Sends blood into capillary beds and into the tissue
107
Why do we need valves/gates for capillary beds?
Because there are so many capillary beds, our body will open and close these valves/gates for better circulation and to keep blood pressure up.
108
What are the 3 types of capillaries
Continuous
Fenestrated
Sinusoidal caps
109
Fenestrated
Fenestra - more permeable found in kidneys for filtering blood
110
111
112
What purpose does the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism serve?
Long term indirect maintainable of blood pressure
113
What 3 hormones does our body use to maintain blood pressure?
1. Adrenal Medulla
2. Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)
3. Antiduretic hormone (ADH)
114
What is the F=DeltaP/R formula
F= Flow of blood
DeltaP = change of pressure
R = peripheral Resistance - Friction
115
Where is the adrenal medulla?
The adrenal medulla is in the middle of the adrenal gland
116
Explain Adrenal Medulla?
Whats the stimulus for it to be produced?
What hormone does it produce?
What does the hormone do?
Stimulus to produce this hormone= low BP
Produce hormones =Epinephrine/ Norepinephrine
Hormones (Epi/ Norepi) cause vasocostriction which increases BP
117
What does Pressure have influence on?
Cardiac output (CO) - ^CO > ^P
Vessel wall compliance - ^Compliance > decrease in P
Lumen diameter - ^Lumen > decrease in P
118
What factors go into Resistance in circulation
Hydration/blood viscosity - decrease in viscosity > decrease in resistance
Vessel length - ^Length > ^Resistance
Lumen diameter - decrease in diameter > ^Resistance
119
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
Where is this hormone produced?
What stimulation for it to be produced?
Where does this target?
What does it do?
Produced by atria
Stimulus = high BP
targets kidneys
Increases the excretion of Na+ and H20. This causes blood volume to decrease and then BP to lower
120
Outline the steps of the renin angiotensin aldosterone mechanism
Lowered blood pressure
The kidneys sense the drop in BP
Kidneys release renin (enzyme)
Renin enters the blood
Renin converts any inactive protein (angiotensinogen) in the blood into angiotensin 1
Angiotensin 1 makes it's way into the lungs
Lungs contain an enzyme that converts angiotensin 1 into angiotensen 2
121
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Where is this produced?
Where does this target?
What does it do?
Produced by the pituitary gland
target kidneys
Increases reabsorption of H20 from kidneys into blood. This increases blood volume, which increases BP.
122
What does angiotensin 2 cause?
Vasoconstriction (increasing bp)
Stimulates release of antiduretic hormone (ADH) (increasing bp)
Stimulates the adrenal glands to release aldosterone (increasing bp)
123
Pulsatile contraction and relaxation regarding blood pressure
Contraction = ^P = Systolic P (120mmHg)
Relaxation = decrease in P = Diastolic P (70-80mmHg)
124
How to calculate Pulse Pressure
Systolic P - Diastolic P
120mmHg - 80mmHg
Pulse Pressure = 40mmHg
125
What blocks the Antiduretic hormone?
Ethyl Alcohol (ETOH)
This is why you get dehydrated when drinking alcohol because ADH which increases blood hydration and blood pressure is blocked.
126
How does aldosterone affect bp?
Aldosterone Stimulates the kidneys to reabsorption sodium into the blood, drawing water into the blood after the sodium
127
How does aldosterone affect bp?
Aldosterone Stimulates the kidneys to reabsorption sodium into the blood, drawing water into the blood after the sodium
128
Why would an ACE inhibitor be prescribed?
ACE inhibitors block production of Angiotensen 2 by prevents angiotensen 1 from reaching the lungs, preventing bp from increasing
129
How does the body maintain blood pressure?
Maintains with feedback loop
receptor --->Integration--->effector
130
How to calculate Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
Diastolic P + (Pulse Pressure/3)
80 + (40/3) MAP = 93mmHg - average
131
What are the receptors of maintaining the blood pressure?
*baroreceptors
*chemoreceptors
thermoreceptors
132
What happens to the pressure if the sum of diameter of ALL capillaries increases
Decreases pressure
133
Where will you find baroreceptors?
What is the stimulus for this receptor?
What will it do in response?
Carotid sinus
(where common carotid artery bifurcates into internal and external carotid arteries)
Aortic arch
Stimulus= low BP
Will vasoconstrict to increase BP
134
Explain high and low bp long term maintaince as it relates to blood volume.
Higher bp means higher filtration which leads to increase of H2O loss resulting in decrease of blood volume
Lower bp means lower filtration which leads to decrease of H2O loss resulting in Increase of blood volume
135
What do the chemoreceptors monitor?
What is the stimulus?
What will it do in response?
pH and indirectly CO2
Stimulus= low pH (~acidic)
In response would increase BP to increase flow
136
What is the integration center in the feedback loop of maintaining BP?
Medulla oblongata
(brainstem)
You will find vasomotor centers here
137
What are the effectors in a feedback loop?
smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
glands
138
What keeps the blood moving in the Venous System
Skeletal muscle pump
Respiratory Pump
Pulsation of nearby artery
Venous valves
139
What happens when the diameter of capillaries increases too much?
The pressure drops.
If the pressure drops from 40mmHg to 20mmHg ot lower the capillaries become nonpulsitile
140
Why is there no pulsation in the Venous System
The diameter is increased resulting in a decrease in pressure - 20mmHg
141
How are the capillary beds permeable?
Permeable to gas exchange, losing nutrients and fluids to tissues.
142
What does blood transport?
Oxegen (O2)
carbon dioxide (CO2)
Nutrients (ex. glucose, ions)
Hormones
Waste
(waste of metabolism like urea and uric acid)
143
How does blood work as protection?
Carries anitbodies which provide immunity
144
How does blood work in regulation?
Regulates pH, Temp. and Buffering
145
In a test tube of blood what will you find and was are the percentages of the blood volume?
Plasma = 55%
Formed elements (Hematocrit) = 45%
146
What's hematocrit?
The formed elements in the blood which include:
--RBC = 45%
--WBC = >1%
--Platelets (thrombocytes)
147
What's a buffy coat?
the white/yellow layer of leukocytes between the hematocrit and plasma when blood is centrifuged.
148
What would you find in plasma?
Fibers = Fibrinogen
Protiens =
--Antibodies (Ab)
--Electrolytes
--Albumen
(works to prevent water from leaving blood to interstitual fluid)
149
What are the characteristics of blood?
pH = 7.35 to 7.45
Volume = 5 liters.
Temperature = 100.4 F.
Total body wt.= 8%.
150
Whats an erythrocyte?
Red Blood Cell (RBC)
151
What's erythropoiesis?
RBC development
152
Where does erythropoiesis occur?
Red bone marrow
153
How is erythropoesis regulated?
Hormone Erythropoietin
> a hormone that is produced in kidney when O2 levels drop
> stimulates erythropoesis
----> the reason low O2 levels stimulate erythropoesis is becuase when O2 is low, you want to be more efficentat carring O2
154
How long does erythropoesis take?
3-5 days
155
What is the erythrocyte structure?
-No nucleus
-Membrane bag containing hemoglobin = gas carrying and exchange.
-Biconcave morphology
156
What is the lifespan of erythrocytes? What happens after?
120 days
Hemoglobin is broken to bilirubin in liver
157
How many erythrocytes will you find in a µL
4 - 6 Million/ µL
158
RBC devlopmental phases
Hemocytoblast
--> Erythroblast
--> Erythrocytes
159
What are the two main types of anemia? What blood cells does this effect?
Microcytic anemia
Macrocytic anemia
This effects RBC
160
Microcytic anemia
The RBC diameter is too SMALL
161
What 4 arteries make up the circle of willis?
Anterior & Posterior cerebral artery
Anterior & Posterior communicating artery
162
Iron (Fe) Deficiency Anemia
Fe is required for hemoglobin, so there is low hemoglobin, and smaller RBCs
163
Macrocytic Anemia
RBC diameter is too LARGE
164
Anemia
blood has an unusually low O2 carrying capacity
165
Pernicious Anemia
What causes it?
Microcytic or macrocytic anemia?
Who is likely to have?
Macrocytic anemia
B12 deficiency
B12 is needed for proper development of RBC (RBC fail to divide -> enlarged cell)
- vegans because inproper diet
- those w/ low Intrinsic factor (helps absorb B12 in digestive system)
166
Hemorrhagic anemia
Microcytic or Macrocytic anemia?
macrocytic anemia
hemorrhage = loss of blood from a damaged blood vessel
In response, increase RBC production (erythopoesis) and immature RBC are pushed into circulation.
Immature RBC are too large
167
Hemalytic Anemia
Microcytic or Macrocytic anemia?
What's happening?
What are causes?
macrocytic anemia
Abnormal breakdown of RBC ---> LYSE
Cause: Mismatch transfusion or infection
As result RBC production ↑↑ and immature RBC in circulation (too big)
168
What are globulins?
Antibodies in the plasma
169
What's a granulocyte?
What are the types?
WBC with cytoplasmic granules
Types:
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophiles
3. Basophils
170
Leukocyte
White blood cell
171
Neutrophil
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color
granulocyte
3,000 - 7,000 cells / µL
*Phagocytic (bacteria)
Mutilobed nucleus
Light Blue to Purple stain
172
Eosinophiles
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color
granulocyte
100 - 400 cells /µL
* Phagocytic --> PARASITIC INFECTIONs
Biloped nucleus
Pink-redish stain
173
Basophiles
How many cells per µL
Charcteristics:
Nucleus shape
Color
granulocyte
20 - 50 cells /µL
- produce Histamine which is involved in inflammation
deep blue-purple stain
174
What are agranulocytes?
What are the types?
>leukocytes w/o cytoplasmic granules
Types:
- Monocytes (Macrophage)
- Lymphocytes
175
What is a monocyte, how does it related to macrophages?
Characteristic(s)?
-Cells / µL
-Nucleus
-Color
agranulocyte
Monocytes mature into Macrophages
Macrophages are Phagocytic (general)
100 - 700 cells/ µL
"U" shaped nucleus
Light blue gray stain
176
Lymphocytes
Characteristic(s)?
-Cells / µL
-Nucleus
-Color
agranulocytes
Produce Antibodies (which are involved in immunity & direct cell attack)
1500 - 3000 cells / µL
Nucleus is Large & spherical; taking most of the cell
Pale blue stain
177
Leukopenia
penia = poverty
Disease where there is low WBC count
induced by drugs , infections, &diseases
178
Leukemia
Mass increased WBC count
Cancerous condition where immature WBCs remain mitotically active
179
What are Thrombocytes?
Function?
Amt per microliter?
Color?
Platelets = fragments of cell membrane (cytoplasm) of hemacytoblasts
function: initiates blood clotting
250,000 - 500,000 fragments/ µL
small Light blue-purple fragments
180
Hemostasis
what are the 3 phases?
blockage of bleeding = clotting
Phases:
- Vascular Spam
- Platelet plug formation
- Coagulation
181
Whats Hemostasis?
stoppage of bleeding
182
What are the 3 steps of hemostasis?
1. Vascular Spasm
2. Platelet Plug Formation
3. Coagulation
183
Vascular Spasm
when injury happened to blood vessels, the smooth muscle vasconstricts to prevent loss of blood
184
Platelet Plug Formation
Because the vessel wall in damaged including the endothelium, COLLEGEN fibers are exposed
Platelets STICK together and PLUG
185
Coagulation
- Plasma turns from a Fluid to a GEL
- the Fibrinogen turns into a FIBRIN MESH
- fribrinogen mesh TRAPS WBC & PLATELETS
- creates a solid mass
- clot plugs hole
186
Antigens
surface protiens on the surface of cell membrane (blood cells) and works as an ID marker
187
Antibodies
Specific protiens made to destroy an foreign substance with an ID marker or anitigen seen as a threat (not self or autoimmune disease)
188
What are the blood types?
Type A (+/-)
Type B (+/-)
Type AB (+/-)
Type O (+/-)
189
What are the population percentages of the basic blood types
Type A 41%
Type B 10%
Type AB 4%
Type O 45%
190
Agglutination
when particles clump together as a result of an antigen - antibody reaction
191
Universal Donor
Type O (-)
-has none of the 3 antigens
192
Universal Recipient
Type AB (+)
- has all 3 antigens
193
Explain Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
When a Rh postive father and a Rh negative mother are pregnant with a child. There is a statistical chance the fetus could be Rh postive. The mother would be exposed to blood of the child and mother during birth, and the mother would develope antibodies for the Rh antigen. If the mother become pregnant again with a Rh postive baby, the mother would develop immunity to Rh antigen. And when pregnant again, the mothers Rh antibodies would attach to fetus' Rh antigens and this would cause fetal death.
194
What does Rh stand for?
an antigen found first in a Rhesus money.
195
What drug is now used to prevent Erythroblastosis fetalis?
RhoGAM
which blocks antibody prevntion
