Head and Neuroanatomy Flashcards
1
Q
Functional area: Primary somathestic area
A
BA 3,1,2
2
Q
Functional area: Primary visual area
A
BA 17
3
Q
Functional area: Primary auditory area
A
BA 41, 42
4
Q
Broca’s area
A
BA 44, 45
5
Q
Wernicke’s area
A
BA 22
6
Q
Motor Aphasia
A
Broca’s aphasia
7
Q
Lesion above the level of decussation manifests….
A
contrallaterally
8
Q
What motor neuron is affected where there is spastic paralysis and no fasciculations?
A
Upper motor neuron
9
Q
Paleo/ spinocerebellum for coordination of limb movts, reg of muscle tone
A
Anterior lobe
10
Q
Cerebellar lobe affected in abnormal FTNT and APST
A
Posterior lobe
11
Q
Lobe affected in truncal ataxai
A
Flocullonodular lobe of the cerebellum
12
Q
Patient with resting tremors and positive signs has a lesion where?
A
Basal ganglia
13
Q
Disease associated with the degeneration of substantia nigra
A
Parkinson’s Disease
14
Q
Location for lumbar puncture
A
b/w L4 and L5
15
Q
Damage to contralat subthalamic nucleus
A
Hemiballismus
16
Q
If the CSF have low glucose level, the pathogen is most likely…
A
bacterial
17
Q
Purely sensory cranial nerves
A
1,2,8
18
Q
Purely motor cranial nerves
A
3,4,6,11,12
19
Q
Mixed cranial nerves
A
5,7,9,10
20
Q
Cranial nerves with parasympathetic component
A
3,7,9,10
21
Q
Cranial nerves located medially
A
3,6,12
22
Q
What innervates the parotid gland?
A
CN 9 - glossopharyngeal
23
Q
Cranial nerves located in midbrain
A
3,4
24
Q
Cranial nerves located in pons
A
5-8
25
Cranial nerves located in medulla
9-12
26
What cranial nerve passes thru anterior cranial fossa
CN I
27
What cranial nerve passes thru foramen rotundum?
Maxillary n.
28
What cranial nerve passes thru foramen ovale?
Mandibular nerve
29
What cranial nerve passes thru optic canal?
2
30
What cranial nerve passes thru sup orbital fissure?
3,4,6,5(1st pt)
31
What cranial nerve passes thru jugular foramen?
9-11
32
What cranial nerve passes thru hypoglossal canal?
12
33
What cranial nerve passes thru internal acoustic meatus?
7-8
34
What cranial nerve passes thru foramen magnum?
11 spinal roots
35
What muscle is innervated by CN 4?
Superior oblique m.
36
What CN innervates the lateral rectus muscle?
6
37
Smiling muscle
Zygomaticus
38
Grinning muscle
Risorius
39
Blowing muscle
Buccinator
40
Chin muscle
Mentalis
41
Kissing muscle
Orbicularis oris
42
Muscle that opens jaw
Lateral pterygoid
43
Motor innervation of trigeminal nerve
Muscles of mastication
44
Sensory innervation of trigeminal n.
Ant 2/3 of mucous membrane of tongue
45
Muscles of tongue is innervated by
CN 12
46
Functional area: Primary motor area
BA 4
47
Unpaired bones of the skull
```
Frontal
Occipital
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Vomer
Mandible
```
48
Meeting point of frontal and nasal bones
Nasion
49
Point of meeting of the frontal, parietal, squamous temporal and great wing of sphenoid
Pterion
50
Skull fracture at pterion may lacerate what artery
Middle meningeal a.
51
Fracture in what part of the skull cause CSF to escape from the ear, hearing loss and CN 7 damage?
Petrous portion of the temporal bone
52
Fracture in what cranial fossa causes anosmia, periorbitak bruising and CSF rhinorrhea
Anterior cranial fossa
53
Horizontal fracture to the maxillary alveolar process
Le Fort I
54
Maxillary fracture involving central pt of the face
Le Fort II
55
Maxillary fracture involving zygomatic bone separated from cranium
Le Fort III
56
Layers of the SCALP
```
Skin
Connective tissue
Aponeurosis
Loose connective tissue
Pericranium
```
57
Premature closure of the sagittal suture; long and narrow skull
Scaphocephaly
58
Premature closure of the coronal suture; tower skull
Oxy/ acrocephaly
59
Premature closure of the coronal and lambdoid suture on one side of the skull
Plagiocephaly
60
Forebrain; divides into telencephalon and diencephalon
Prosencephalon
61
Midbrain; no division
Mesencephalon
62
Hindbrain; divides into metencephalon and myelencephalon
Rhombencephalon
63
Derivative of cerebrum
Telencephalon
64
Derivative of thalamus
Diencephalon
65
Derivative of midbrain
Mesencephalon
66
Derivative of pons and cerebellum
Metencephalon
67
Derivative of medulla
Myelencephalon
68
Neural tube differentiates into the ____
CNS
69
Neural crest differentiates into the ____
PNS and ANS
70
The pigment cells of the retina and cells of adrenal medulla is derived from the ___
neural crest
71
AOG of closure of the neural tube
4th week
72
AOG where the primary brain vesicles differentiate
5th week AOG
73
Folic acid 400 mg OD must be given starting...
3 mos prior to conception
74
Supratentorial structures
```
Cerebrum
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
CN I and II
```
75
Infratentorial structures
Cerebellum
Brainstem
CN III - XII
76
Spinal level starts below...
Foramen magnum
77
3 components of the meninges
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
78
Layer of the dura mater that covers the inner surface of the skull
Endosteal layer
79
Layer covering the brain
Meningeal layer
80
Fold of dura mater that is b/w cerebral hemispheres
Falx cerebri
81
Crescent-shaped fold of dura mater that roofs over the post cranial fossa
Tentorium cerebelli
82
Small fold of dura that divides the cerebellar hemispheres
Falx cerebelli
83
Dural fold that forms the roof of the sella turcica
Diaphragma sella
84
Nerve supply of the dura mater
Trigeminal (supratentorial)
| C1-3 spinal roots (infratentorial)
85
Headache due to supratentorial irritation is referred where?
forehead and face
86
Headache due to infratentorial irritation is referred where?
back of the head and neck
87
Impermeable membrane covering the brain; b/w pia mater and dura mater
Arachnoid mater
88
Precentral gyrus
Primary motor cortex
89
Postcentral gyrus
Primary motor cortex
90
Heschl's gyrus
Primary auditory cortex
91
Inferior frontal gyrus
Broca's area
92
Location of decussation of the corticospinal tract
Lower medulla
93
Cerebellar syndrome that causes ataxia, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremor
Posterior lobe syndrome
94
Cerebellar syndrome that causes loss of coordination, (+) heel-to-shin test
Anterior lobe syndrome
95
Cerebellar syndrome that causes truncal ataxia
Flocculonodular lobe syndrome
96
CSF flows from the lat ventricle to the 3rd ventricle thru the ___
Foramen of Monroe
97
CSF flows from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle thru the ___
Aqueduct of Sylvius/ Iter
98
CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the SAS thru the ___
Foramen of Magendie and Luschka
99
Normal CSF volume
130 mL
100
Normal CSF protein /100 mL
15-45 mg
101
Normal CSF glucose/ 100 mL
50-85 mg
102
Normal CSF chloride/ 100 mL
720-750 mg
103
number of cells in the CSF
0-3 lymphocytes/ cu mm
104
LP is done at what level
b/w L4 and L5
105
Lesion in what CN will cause ptosis, dilated fixed pupil, and eye turned down and out
CN 3
106
Lesion in what CN will cause extorsion of the eye and weakness of downward gaze
CN 4
107
Lesion in what CN will cause medial deviation, abductor paralysis of the eye muscle
CN 6
108
Nerve affected in Bell's palsy
CN 7
109
Most common location of berry aneurysm
Posterior communicating artery
110
Venous drainage to the face
Facial vein
| Retromandibular vein
111
Structures affected in cavernous sinus thrombosis
CNs III, IV, V1, V2, VI
| ICA
112
Venous blood sinuses
Sup and Inf Sagittal
Right and left transverse
Straight sinus
Sigmoid
113
What bone is the root of the tongue attached to?
Hyoid bone
114
What divides the tongue into the anterior and posterior part?
Sulcus terminalis
115
Remnant of thyroglossal duct
Foramen cecum
116
What innervates the muscles that alters tongue's shape (intrinsic)?
CN 12
117
What innervates the muscles that alter the position of the tongue (extrinsic)?
CN 12 except palatoglossus w/c is innervated by CN 10
118
What innervates the mucous membrane of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue?
CN 5
119
What innervates the mucous membrane of the posterior 2/3rds of the tongue?
CN 9
120
What innervates the taste buds of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue?
CN 7
121
What innervates the taste buds of the posterior 1/3rds of the tongue?
CN 9
122
Muscle that elevates the tongue
Palatoglossus
123
Muscle that retracts the tongue
Styloglossus
124
Muscle that depresses the tongue
Hyoglossus
125
Muscle that protrudes the tongue
Genioglossus
126
EOMs supplied by CN 3
Medial rectus
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
127
Superior colliculus: CN 3; inferior colliculus: ____
CN 4
128
Hypophysial/ Rathke's pouch develops into the __
Anterior pituitary gland
129
Neurohypophysial bud develops into the ___
Posterior pituitary gland
130
External 1/3 of the EAM is ______ while the inner 2/3 is _____
cartilagenous
| bony
131
Cone of light is appreciated in what part of the TM?
Anteroinferior quadrant
132
Tympanic cavity contains:
Chorda tympani if CN 7
| Tympani br of CN 9
133
Internal/ medial surface of the tympanic membrane is innervated by:
CN 9
134
External/ lateral concave surface of the tympanic membrane is innervated by:
CN 5, 7, 9, 10
135
Muscles of the inner ear
Stapedius muscle
| Tensor tympani muscle
136
Otosclerosis or the abnormal bone formation around the staoes and oval window causes ___
conduction deafness
137
What membrane separates scala media and scala tympani?
Basilar membrane
138
What membrane separates scala media and scala vestibuli?
Vestibular/ Meissner's membrane
