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RUSVM Small Animal Surgery 2017 > Head and Neck Surgery > Flashcards

Head and Neck Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Mesial

A

Toward the midline of the dental arch- central incisor (rostral)

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2
Q

Distal

A

away from the midline (caudal)

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3
Q

Proximal

A

(contact) surface facing adjoining teeth

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4
Q

Interproximal

A

between proximal surfaces of adjoining teeth

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5
Q

Diastema

A

wider space between teeth

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6
Q

Rostral/caudal

A

structures on head (not the teeth)

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7
Q

Occlusal

A

chewing surfaces of molars

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8
Q

Apical

A

toward the root or away from the crown

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9
Q

Coronal

A

toward the crown

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10
Q

Gingiva

A

the only visible part of the periodontium in a normal mouth

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11
Q

What makes up the Periodotium?

A

Gingiva
Periodontal ligament
Cementum
Alveolar bone

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12
Q

Gingiva sulcus

A

potential space between tooth and gingiva

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13
Q

Junctional epithelium

A

at the base of the gingival sulcus

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14
Q

Pulp cavity

A

Pulp chamber + root canal

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15
Q

What is a transitional tooth?

A

a tooth that the front half comes in contact with the premolar and the back half is in contact with the upper molar

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16
Q

How many roots does the Canine molar have?

A

3

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17
Q

How many roots does the canine premolar have?

A

2

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18
Q

How many roots does the canine incisor have?

A

1

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19
Q

How many roots does the canine canine tooth have?

A

1

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20
Q

How many roots does the feline canine tooth have?

A

1

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21
Q

How many roots does the feline incisor have?

A

1

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22
Q

How many roots does the feline premolar have?

A

2

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23
Q

What are the periodontal ligament functions?

A

Attaches tooth to the alveolus
Absorbs shock from the impact of occlusal forces and transmits them of the alveolar bone
Supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum via arterioles and drainage via venules and lymphatics
Provides tactile and proprioceptive information for coordination of mastication

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24
Q

What happens if the periodontal ligament ossifies?

A

osteoclasts can invade the tooth and remodel it into brittle bone rather than a flexible tooth full of dentinal tubules, this causes the roots to essentially disappear and the crown to break off since the tooth doesn’t flex when it chews on something solid

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25
Q

Cingulum

A

The shelf on the palatal surface of the maxillary incisors where the mandibular incisors occlude or “rest”

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26
Q

What is the “mass” behind the incisors?

A

Incisive Papilla overlies the Vomeronasal Organ

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27
Q

What is located on each side of the Incisive Papilla?

A

Incisive Ducts

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28
Q

What is important about the Parotid Salivary Gland Papilla?

A

located about the 4th premolar and releases mineral rich saliva and makes tartar accumulate more quickly on this tooth than other teeth

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29
Q

What kind of fracture is very common in premolars?

A

Slab fractures

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30
Q

What creates Dentin?

A

Odontoblasts

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31
Q

What forms the enamel?

A

Ameloblasts

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32
Q

What forms the cementum?

A

formed by remanants of the dental sac on the outer dentinal surface of the root when the tooth is almost mature
Produced throughout life by cementoblasts

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33
Q

How many deciduous teeth does a dog have?

A

28

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34
Q

How many Adult teeth does a dog have?

A

42

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35
Q

How many deciduous teeth does a cat have?

A

26

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36
Q

How many adult teeth does a cat have?

A

30

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37
Q

What number does the Canine tooth have in the Triadan system?

A

04

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38
Q

What number does the 1st Molar have in the Triadan system?

A

09

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39
Q

Retained Deciduous Teeth?

A

Caused by failure of the primary tooth’s root to undergo resorption

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40
Q

What teeth are commonly affected with Retained Deciduous teeth?

A

Canine

Incisors

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41
Q

Base Narrow Canines

A

Retained deciduous canine teeth that cause the canine adult teeth to not flair out like they normally would and cause trauma to the hard palate

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42
Q

What causes Base Narrow Canines?

A

retained deciduous canines

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43
Q

Interceptive orthodontics

A

intentionally creating space for the tooth to come in to

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44
Q

Polydontia

A

Supernumerary Teeth

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45
Q

Where are supernumerary teeth most commonly seen?

A

Maxilla

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46
Q

What teeth are commonly supernumerary?

A

Incisors

Premolars

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47
Q

What is the problem with supernumerary teeth?

A

interfere with normal occlusion

cause overcrowding, malposition, malocclusion, or incomplete eruption of adjacent teeth

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48
Q

Fusion

A

joining of two teeth

one crown and two roots with one or two root canals

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49
Q

Germination

A

incomplete splitting into two teeth

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50
Q

Andontia/Oligodontia/Hypodontia

A

missing teeth

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51
Q

What is the rule of thumb for Andontia/Oligodontia/Hypodontia?

A

If deciduous tooth is congenitally absent, the adult tooth will also be missing

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52
Q

Malocclusion Class 1

A

Malpositioned teeth, jaw, length normal
Anterior/posterior cross-bite
Base narrow canines

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53
Q

Malocclusion Class 2

A

Mandibular Brachygnathism
Parrot Mouth
Overshot

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54
Q

Malocclusion Class 3

A

Mandibular Prognathism

Undershot

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55
Q

Anterior cross bite

A

One or more of the maxillary incisors are displaced toward the palate

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56
Q

Posterior cross bite

A

Maxillary premolars are lingual to mandibular premolars or molars

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57
Q

What is the treatment for Class 2 Malocclusions?

A

Extraction

Reduce the height of the crown so it does not impact the gum

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58
Q

Level Bite

A

Incisor crown meet causing a type of prognathism

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59
Q

Attrition

A

Pathologic abnormal wear on incisors commonly repaired by tertiary dentin

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60
Q

Wry Mouth

A

Unequal arch development due to trauma or inherited

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61
Q

Treatment of Malocculsions

A 
Interceptibe orthodontics
Exodontics
Crown reduction 
Orthodontic Appliances
Incline Planes
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62
Q

What does an incline plane treat?

A

Base Narrow Canines

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63
Q

What is the complications with an Incline Plane?

A

Mucositis

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64
Q

What causes impacted teeth?

A

lack of space in the dental arch or mal-alignment of the tooth bud

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65
Q

What causes impacted teeth?

A

Traumatic insult or extraction

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66
Q

What is a result of Impacted teeth?

A

Abscess or cyst formation

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67
Q

What is the treatment for impacted teeth?

A

extraction

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68
Q

What can cause Enamel Hypoplasia/Hypocalcification?

A 
High fevers
Distemper
Periapical inflammation 
trauma of the permanent tooth bud
endocrine dysfunction early in life
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69
Q

How do you treat Enamel Hypoplasia/Hypocalcification?

A 
Focal-restore defect with composite
Several teeth cap to prevent
 wear 
Extraction  
Crown
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70
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Enamel Hypoplasia/Hypocalcification?

A

Damage to ameloblasts during enamel development or exposure of enamel to corrosive material

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71
Q

Tetracycline Staining

A

Tetracycline given when teeth are developing will stain them yellow

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72
Q

What layer is affected with Tetracycline?

A

Dentin

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73
Q

What is the treatment for Tetracycline staining?

A

None

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74
Q

How do you avoid Tetracycline staining?

A

Use Doxycycline

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75
Q

What is the treatment for Attrition?

A

Orthodontic correction
Crown reduction
Extraction

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76
Q

Abrasion

A

Caused by abnormal contact with crown surface by foreign object

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77
Q

What is the treatment for Abrasion?

A

Remove offending objects

Monitor for pulp exposure and crown fractures

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78
Q

How does Dental Caries appear?

A

Brownish color

Soft leathery consistency

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79
Q

What is the treatment for Dental Caries?

A

Indirect or direct pulp capping
Root canal
Extraction

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80
Q

What are the clinical signs for Periapical infection?

A 
Nasal disease
Maxillary/mandibular abscesses
Intraoral fistula 
Retrobulbar disease
Pathologic fracture
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81
Q

Parulis

A

Draining tract associated with the teeth

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82
Q

What is the etiology of Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

Focal-due to periodontal disease
Generalized- in boxers
drugs

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83
Q

What drugs cause Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

Cyclosporine
Calcium channel blockers
Anticonvulsants

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84
Q

What is the treatment for Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

Remove excessive tissue to return sulcus depth to normal

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85
Q

What is the treatment for Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

try to recreate normal scalloped contour

Surgery

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86
Q

What is the post op care for surgery for Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

Analgesics
decaffenated tea
Chlorhexidine
Oral rinses

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87
Q

Pulpitis

A

Inflammation of the Pulp Cavity

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88
Q

What is the treatment for Pulpitis?

A

Monitor
Root Canal
Extraction

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89
Q

Enamel infarction (Abraction)

A

Cracks in the enamel

No loss of structure

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90
Q

Enamel Fracture

A

Loss of enamel only

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91
Q

Tooth fracture Classification

A

Complicated crown fracture
Uncomplicated crown/root fracture
Complicated Crown/root fracture
Root Fracture

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92
Q

Complicated crown fracture

A

Pulp cavity is exposed

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93
Q

Uncomplicated crown/root fracture

A

Pulp not exposed

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94
Q

Complicated crown/root fracture

A

Pulp exposed

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95
Q

How do you treat Root Fracture?

A

Extraction

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96
Q

How do you treat Enamel fracture, Uncomplicated fracture in teeth?

A

+/- indirect pulp capping

Crown restoration

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97
Q

How do you treat Complicated Fractures in teeth?

A

Vital pulpotomy
root canal
Crown restoration
Extract tooth

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98
Q

What are the indications for Endodontics?

A

Fractured teeth
Pulpitis
Tooth luxation/avulsion
Crown reduction

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99
Q

What are the advantages of Endodontics?

A

Less invasive than extraction
Preserves tooth function and integrity of jaw
more fun to do than extractions

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100
Q

What are the disadvantages of Endodontics?

A

Expense
Longer anesthetic time
Special instruments and training

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101
Q

What is the goal for Vital Pulpotomy?

A

to maintain a viable tooth that will continue to mature

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102
Q

When would you perform a Vital Pulpotomy?

A

Immature tooth
Very wide pulp cavity
Apex not completely closed

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103
Q

What do you use to seal a Pulpotomy?

A

MTA

Calcium hydroxide

104
Q

When would you perform a complete root canal?

A

Mature tooth

Maintains tooth function but tooth is “dead”

105
Q

What are the goals for a complete root canal?

A

Complete removal of pulp contents

Seal apex to prevent bacteria from escaping from tooth

106
Q

How do you perform Root Canal Therapy?

A
  1. Access the pulp cavity
  2. Remove pulp through access site
  3. Clean, disinfect and shape canal
  4. Obturate the canal
  5. Restore the surface of the crown and access site
107
Q

How do you perform a Root Canal Obturation?

A

Complete filling of root canal seals apical delta and lateral canals preventing contamination in dentinal tubules from escaping from the tooth and causing inflammation/destruction of the tooth supporting structures

108
Q

Tooth Luxation

A

partially dislocated from alveolus but retains some attachment

109
Q

Tooth Avulsion

A

completely displaced from alveolus

110
Q

What is the prognosis for Tooth Luxation/Avulsion?

A

After 30 mins success goes down exponentially

Success depends on survival of periodontal ligament

111
Q

What is the treatment for an Avulsed Tooth?

A

keep the tooth moist with saliva, milk, or saline
Flush the tooth with saline
Re-seat in alveolus and then splint in place
Root canal once the splint is removed and reattached
Radiographs!

112
Q

What are synonyms for Tooth Resorption?

A

Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions
Neck Lesions
Cervical Line Lesions
Canine Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions

113
Q

Stage 1 Tooth Resorption

A

Mild dental hard tissue loss, either cementum alone or cementum and enamel.
In this stage of the disease, a defect in the tooth’s enamel is all that is usually noted
Little to no sensitivity because the resorption has not yet reached the dentin

114
Q

Stage 2 Tooth Resorption

A

Moderate dental hard tissue loss including cementum or cementum and enamel, and loss of dentin that has not yet reached the pulp cavity

115
Q

Stage 3 Tooth Resorption

A

Deep dental hard tissue loss including cementum or cementum and enamel, and loss of dentin that extends to the pulp chamber, At this third stage of disease, most of the tooth is still viable

116
Q

Stage 4 Tooth Resorption

A

Extensive dental hard tissue loss and most of the tooth has lost its integrity. A significant amount of the tooth’s hard structure has been destroyed.

117
Q

What are the stage 4 tooth resorption subcategories?

A

4a - crown and root of tooth are equally affected
4b - crown is more severely affected than the root
4c - root is more severely affected than the crown

118
Q

Stage 5 tooth resorption

A

Only remnants of the tooth remain, covered by gum tissue. The majority of the tooth has been resorbed, leaving only a raised area on the gum

119
Q

Type 1 Resorption Lesions

A

Focal or multifocal radiolucencies
Periodontal ligament remains intact
Moderate to severe gingivitis and periodontitis

120
Q

Type 2 Tooth Resorption Lesions

A

Focal or multifocal radiolucencies in tooth
Disappearance of the periodontal ligament with varying degreese of root resorption
No or minimal evidence of periodontitis

121
Q

Type 3 Tooth Resorption Lesions

A

Features of type 1 and 2 in same tooth - especially multi-rooted teeth

122
Q

What is the treatment for type 1 tooth resorption lesions?

A

Extraction

123
Q

What is the treatment for Type 2 tooth resorption lesions?

A

Remove the crown and let it resorb over time

124
Q

What are the clinical signs of Tooth resorption?

A 
inflammation 
pain
Localized hyperplastic/hyperemic gingiva
dropping food
"chattering"
anorexia
reluctance to have mouth examined
125
Q

Ankylosis

A

the process of bone fusing across the normally non-calcified periodontal ligament

126
Q

What is the treatment for type 2 tooth resorption?

A

Extraction

Amputate crown and superficial root structure and leave ankyloid part of the root for resorption

127
Q

What are the clinical signs of Gingivostomatitis?

A 
Ptyalism
Halitosis
Dysphagia
anorexia
weight loss
128
Q

Gingivostomatitis

A

Severe marginal gingivitis

Inflammation of the commisures, palatopharyngeal arches and caudally, and Palate

129
Q

How do you diagnose Gingivostomatitis?

A

Histopathology
Clinical appearance
Typical History

130
Q

What is the treatment for Gingivostomatitis?

A 
Extraction 
Antibiotics
Home care/Prophylaxis
Cyclosporine
Antivirals
131
Q

What is important to note about Gingivostomatitis Extraction?

A

All teeth and roots must be extracted! They will not resolve!

132
Q

What are the clinical signs of Juvenile-Onset Periodontitis?

A

Severe gingivitis

Periodontal disease

133
Q

What is the treatment for Juvenile-Onset Periodontits?

A

Frequent Prophylaxis
Aggressive home care
Some will “outgrow” it if can get to 2+ yrs
Extractions

134
Q

What is the complications of Eosinophilic Granuloma Treatment?

A

A large blood vessel lives in the area of the granuloa causing severe hemorrhage

135
Q

What is the treatment for Eosinophilic granulomas?

A

Ligating the blood vessel

removing the inflammatory tissue

136
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis?

A

Fetid Halitosis
Ptyalism
Anorexia

137
Q

Treatment of Canine Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis?

A

can try and control conservatively with sealant and teeth cleaning
Home care - 1-2x daily brushing
Total mouth extractions

138
Q

When would you perform a Glossectomy?

A

Trauma
Neoplasia
Macroglossia

139
Q

Partial Glossectomy

A

Removal of free portion of tongue rostral to frenulum

140
Q

Subtotal Glossectomy

A

Entire free portion of tongue and rostral part of base of tongue caudal to frenulum

141
Q

Total Glossectomy

A

Entire tongue

142
Q

When would you perform a Total Glossectomy?

A

Lingual Squamous Cell Carcinoma

143
Q

What are the postoperative managements for a glossectomy?

A

Feeding tube
Feed “meatballs”
Water: Provide wet food, may learn to suck water, syringe

144
Q

What is the most common oral disease?

A

Periodontal disease

145
Q

What is the number 1 causes of tooth loss?

A

Periodontal disease

146
Q

What is the most common causes of periodontal disease?

A

Diet

Malocclusion

147
Q

Acquired pellicle

A

a thin layer of salivary proteins on the surface of the tooth to which bacteria attach

148
Q

Plaque

A

combination of bacteria, food, debris, oral epithelial cells and mucin

149
Q

Calculus

A

mineralized plaque containing bacteria which release endotoxins that cause gingivitis

150
Q

Gingivitis

A

initially loosely adhered subgingival plaque causes an inflammatory response which is reversible with proper treatment

151
Q

Periodontitis

A

If left untreated the inflammatory response results in destruction of the junctional epithelium and epithelial attachment at base of the gingival sulcus exposing the periodontium

152
Q

Xerostomia

A

Lack of saliva

153
Q

What are the characteristics of Periodontal Disease?

A 
Irreversible/controllable 
Gingival recession 
Destruction of periodontal ligament 
Bone loss 
Mobility
154
Q

What are the clinical signs of Periodontal Disease?

A 
Halitosis 
Accumulation of plaque and tartar 
Inflamed or bleeding gingiva
Excessive salivation 
Loose teeth 
Decreased appetite
Oral discomfort
155
Q

What are the characteristics of Stage 1- Gingivitis?

A 
Erythema
Gingiva bleed when probed
Loss of stipling
Normal sulcus depth 
Reversible with proper treatment and home care
156
Q

What are the characteristics of Stage 2- Early Periodontitis?

A 
Gingiva bleed when probed
Minor pockets
Normal-hyperplastic Gingiva
minimal bone loss
no mobility 
Periodontitis can be controlled but not completely reversed
157
Q

What are the characteristics of Stage 3-Moderate Periodontitis?

A

Gingival hyperplasia with recession
moderate deep pocket formation
25-50% bone loss
Slight to moderate mobility

158
Q

What are the characteristics of Stage 4-Advanced Periodontitis?

A 
Gingival recession 
Deep pocket depth 
Furcation exposure
Greater than 50% bone loss
Advanced tooth mobility 
Horizontal bone loss
Vertical bone loss
Periapical lucency
159
Q

Feline buccal bone expansion

A

An expression of vertical pocket formation filled with granulation tissue and osteitis

160
Q

What is the goad of treatment for Periodontal Disease?

A

prevent development of ew lesions at other sites and to prevent further tissue destruction at sites which are already affected
Remove biofilm
Minimize attachment loss and pocket depth
Maintain adequate attached gingiva (2-3mm)

161
Q

What is the treatment for Periodontal disease?

A

Home care - Brushing
Dental Diets
Dental hygiene chews

162
Q

What is the #1 Systemic Antibiotic Therapy for Periodontal Disease?

A

Clindamycin

163
Q

What are the Systemic Antibiotic Therapies for Periodontal Disease?

A

Clindamycin
Clavamox
Metronidazole
Doxycycline

164
Q

What is the Local Antibiotic Therapy for Periodontal Disease?

A

Doxirobe gel

Clindoral

165
Q

What is the professional Periodontitis Therapy?

A

Supra- and sub- gingival scaling and polishing
root planing
extraction

166
Q

Stage

A

The assessment of the extent of pathological lesions in the course of a disease that is likely to be progressive

167
Q

Grade

A

The quantitative assessment of the degree of severity of a disease or abnormal condition at the time of diagnosis, irrespective of whether the disease is progressive

168
Q

Index

A

A quantitative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria whereby the presence and/or severity of pathological conditions are recorded by assessing a numerical value

169
Q

Periodontal Index

A

Measures the amount of overall tissue loss

170
Q

Gingival recession

A

measures the apical migration of the free gingival margin from the cemento-enamel junction

171
Q

Physiologic tooth mobility

A

normal tooth mobility within the periodontal ligament space

172
Q

Pathologic tooth mobility

A

tooth movement in excess of physiologic mobility

173
Q

Exodontics

A

Tooth Extraction

174
Q

What are the indications for Exodontics?

A 
Retained deciduous teeth
Interceptive orthodontics
Severe periodontal disease
Non-vital teeth or fractured crown with root exposure
Teeth undergoing resorption 
Malocclusion - interference 
Supernumerary teeth
Impacted teeth
175
Q

How do you perform a Surgical Extraction Technique?

A

Create a buccal (vestibular) mucoperiosteal flap

Elevate flap apically past juga if necessary

176
Q

What are the two techniques for a buccal mucoperiosteal flap?

A

Envelope flap +/- vertical incision

Single pedicle flap

177
Q

What is the Aftercare of Gingival Flaps?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics
Soft food
No chew toys or heard treats
Nothing with a crunch for 10-14 days

178
Q

What are the clinical signs of Oronasal Fistula?

A

Nasal discharge
Sneezing
Aspiration pneumonia

179
Q

How do you repair Oronasal Fistula?

A

Two layer technique

Single Flap technique

180
Q

When would you use a Double Flap Technique to treat oronasal fistula?

A

congenital defects

Chronic fistulas where the oral mucoperioteum has healed to nasal mucosa

181
Q

What are the indication for a Single Flap technique to treat oronasal fistula?

A

Acute nonhealed fistula

Defects too large to allow two layer closure

182
Q

What are the salvage procedures for the treatment of oronasal fistula?

A

Intraoral appliances: Acrylic appliances or Nasal septal button

183
Q

What are the triad of injuries associated with High Rise Syndrome?

A

Forelimb fractures or hyperextension injuries
Facial trauma or fractures
Thoracic trauma (Pneumothorax or cardiac contusions)

184
Q

What is the treatment for hard palate trauma?

A

Conservative management
Suture
Acrylic splint between canine teeth + Suture
Pin and Figure-8 wire + suture

185
Q

What are the important malignant Canine oral tumors?

A

Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Fibrosarcoma

186
Q

Where does Multilobularostchondro-sarcoma (MLO) go?

A

Flat bones

187
Q

Where do you find Undifferentiated Malignant Oral Tumor?

A

very aggressive tumor in the maxilla and behind the canine teeth

188
Q

What are the benign Canine Oral tumors?

A 
Peripheral Odontogenic Fibroma
Acanthomatous ameloblastoma 
Osteogenic Odontoma
Osteogenic Central Ameloblastoma
Papilloma
189
Q

What is the #1 Feline Oral tumor?

A

Squamous Cell carcinoma

190
Q

What are the surgical principles of Oral tumors?

A

Wide margins
Avoid use of electrosurgery on oral mucosa
CO2 laser
Avoid tension on oral closure
Accurate apposition of oral mucosa essential

191
Q

What suture material should you use for oral tumor closure?

A

Polyglactin 910

Poliglecaprone

192
Q

What is a Total mandibulectomy?

A

Removal of the left or right mandible

193
Q

How do you treat Multilobularostchondro-sarcoma (MLO)?

A

Caudal Mandibulectomy

194
Q

When performing a Total mandibulectomy what do you do to prevent the tongue from falling out?

A

Shorten the lip commissure

195
Q

What are the different types of Mandibulectomies?

A 
Unilateral Rostral 
Bilateral Rostral 
Central 
Total
Caudal
3/4
196
Q

What are the different types of Maxillectomies?

A

Caudal
Unilateral Rostral
Bilateral Rostral
Partial

197
Q

What is the post operative care for a Mandibulectomy/Maxillectomy?

A

IV fluids for first 24 hours
Pain medication
drink and eat after surgery
Feeding tube for 3/4 mandibulectomy

198
Q

What are the complications associated with Mandibulectomies?

A

Swelling - pseudoranula un the tongue
Wound dehiscence
Mandibular drifting
Affect the ability to prehend food

199
Q

What are the complications associated with Maxillectomies?

A

Wound dehiscence with oronasal fistula

nose to droop and affect prehension of food

200
Q

Labial Avulsion

A

lower lip avulses along the mucogingival line due to shearing trauma

201
Q

What is the treatment for Labial Avulsion?

A

Suture reconstruction effective for maxillary lesions

Suture reconstruction of lower lip

202
Q

What is a complications of the treatment for Labial Avulsion?

A

Weight of lower lip causes the suture reconstruction to fail

203
Q

What are the reconstruction options for Lip reconstruction?

A

Direct apposition
Labial advancement flap
Labial rotation flap
Labial advancement flap

204
Q

What are the parts of the Sublingual Salivary Gland?

A

Monostomatic

Polystomatic

205
Q

What are the four major salivary glands?

A

Parotid
Mandibular
Sublingual
Zygomatic

206
Q

What is the additional major salivary gland of cats?

A

Molar salivary gland

207
Q

Salivary Mucocele

A

Subcutaneous accumulation of saliva within a nonepithelial nonsecretory lining

208
Q

What is the most common disease of the salivary gland in dogs and cats?

A

Salivary Mucocele

209
Q

What is the most common salivary gland affected by Salivary Mucocele?

A

Sublingual Monostomatic portion

210
Q

What is a complication of a salivary mucocele?

A

respiratory distress

211
Q

How do you diagnose Salivary Mucocele?

A

Aseptic needle aspiration

212
Q

How do you treat Salivary Mucocele?

A

Removal
Percutaneous aspiration
“Marsupialization” of ranula
Lancing of pharyngeal mucocele

213
Q

What is the prognosis for a salivary mucocele?

A

Excellent

Recurrence can occur

214
Q

What causes a Parotid Fistula?

A

Trauma to the Parotid duct

215
Q

What is the treatment for a Parotid Fistula?

A

Ligation of the parotid duct proximal to the defect that is causing the fistula results in atrophy of the gland

216
Q

What are the two types of Digital Dental Radiographic imaging systems?

A

Direct digital radiography

Indirect digital radiography

217
Q

What are the intraoral techniques for Dental Radiographs?

A

Parallel

Bisecting Angle

218
Q

What are the complications of the Bisecting Angle Dental Radiograph technique?

A

Elongation
Foreshortening
Overlapping

219
Q

Aural Hematoma

A

collection of blood within the cartilage plate of the ear

220
Q

What causes Aural Hematoma?

A

Shaking/Scratching of ear due to Otitis externa

221
Q

What are the goals of surgery for Aural Hematoma?

A

Remove blood or clot
Prevent reoccurrence
Retain ear appearance

222
Q

When would you use the non surgical treatment for aural hematoma?

A

recent and fluctuant hematomas

smaller hematomas

223
Q

When would you use the surgical treatment for aural hematoma?

A

Chronic Hematomas

Harder to remove clot through aspiration

224
Q

What allows a hematoma to reoccur?

A

Dead space left after surgery

225
Q

What is the non surgical management for Aural hematoma?

A

Aspiration
Aspiration with IV Dexamethasone
Aspiration with local Dex infusion
Aspiration with local Methyl Prednisolone

226
Q

What is the surgical management for Aural Hematoma?

A

Drain placement
Incisional Drainage
Practivet system

227
Q

What are the different types of Drains used in the surgical drainage of Aural Hematoma?

A

Penrose
Larson teat cannula
Butterfly catheter

228
Q

What are the different types of Incisional drains used in the surgical management of Aural Hematomas?

A

Straight
S-shaped
Dermal punch
Laser

229
Q

What is the disadvantage of an incisional drainage associated with Aural Hematomas?

A

Reoccurence rates are less but this method requires general anesthesia

230
Q

What is an advantage of using the Teat cannula to drain an Aural Hematoma?

A

will cause adhesions to form to reduce dead space

231
Q

What type of suture is used with the Incisional Drainage associated with Aural Hematoma?

A

Vertical Mattress suture pattern

232
Q

What is the treatment for Squamous Cell Carcinoma?

A

Pinnectomy +/- vertical ear canal ablation

233
Q

What are the indications for Subtotal or Total Pinnectomy?

A

Neoplasia or trauma

Curative for SCC in cats

234
Q

What are the primary causes for Otitis externa?

A 
Parasites 
Foreign Body 
Hypersensitivities
Keratinization disorders
Autoimmune
235
Q

What are the predisposing factors for Otitis externa?

A 
Pendulous ears
Narrow canals
Excessive hair
Chronic ear moisture
Inappropriate abs
Polyps or tumors
236
Q

What are the clinical signs of Otitis externa?

A

Head shaking
rubbing
scratching

237
Q

How do you diagnose Otitis externa?

A 
Otoscopy 
Cytology
Biopsy
CT 
MRI
238
Q

What are the surgical procedures for Otitis externa?

A

Lateral ear canal resection
Vertical ear canal resection
Total ear canal ablation with lateral bulla osteotomy

239
Q

What are the indications for Lateral Ear canal resection?

A

when skin changes are reversible

Tumor involving tragus or lateral wall of vertical canal

240
Q

What is the advantage for Lateral ear canal resection?

A

Improves ventilation

Decreases moisture

241
Q

Describe Lateral ear canal resection

A

Remove proximal 2/3 of flap

Ventral 1/3 forms drainage board

242
Q

Describe the closure for a Lateral Ear canal resection?

A

Single layer closure using 3/0 monofilament

243
Q

What are the complications for Lateral Ear Canal resection?

A

Inadequate drainage
Continued otitis externa
concurrent middle ear infection

244
Q

What are the indications for Vertical Ear Canal resection?

A

Hyperplastic otitis involving vertical canal only
Neoplasia involving vertical canal only
Trauma

245
Q

Describe the Vertical Ear Canal Resection

A

T-shaped incision
Dissect around cartilage
Create drainage

246
Q

What are the indications for Total Ear Canal Ablation with Lateral bulla osteotomy?

A

Ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma
Extensive benign otitis
Failed lateral ear canal resection
Middle ear disease

247
Q

Describe a Total Ear Canal Ablation

A

T-shaped incision
Dissect around cartilage
Amputate canal close to auditory meatus

248
Q

Bulla Osteotomy

A

Removal of soft tissue from lateral bulla

249
Q

What is a complication of performing a Bulla Osteotomy?

A 
Damage to the sympathetic trunk causing Horner's Syndrome
Facial nerve paralysis
Diminished hearing 
Hemorrhage 
Dehiscence 
Infection/Drainage tract
250
Q

What is the medical management for middle ear disease?

A

Clean external ear
Perform myringotomy
Irrigate with saline
Topical and systemic non ototoxic abs for 4-6 weeks

251
Q

When would you choose surgical management for Middle Ear Disease?

A

Severe canal stenosis
Tympanic bone infection
Failure of medical management
Significant neurological signs

252
Q

Myringotomy

A

incision into the Tympanic Membrane

253
Q

When would you perform a Ventral Bulla osteotomy in a Feline?

A

when disease is confined to middle ear

Inflammatory polyps are present

254
Q

What do you perform on a feline with middle ear disease?

A

Ventral Bulla osteotomy

Lateral Bulla Osteotomy combined with TECA

255
Q

Middle ear Polyps

A

Non-neoplastic polyps developed from inflammatory and epithelial cells

256
Q

How do you manage polyps?

A

Traction extraction

Ventral Bulla osteotomy

257
Q

What are the complications of a Ventral Bulla Osteotomy?

A

Vestibular signs

Horner’s Syndrome especially common in cats

RUSVM Small Animal Surgery 2017 (17 decks)

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