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pathology > Head and Neck Lab Questions > Flashcards

Head and Neck Lab Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the optimal therapy for Pleomorphic Adenoma (Mixed Tumor)?

A

Parotectomy

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2
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma is more common in which sex?

A

Females

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3
Q

Why does Pleomorphic Adenoma recur?

A
  • Microscopic tongues of tumor extend from the edges
  • Difficulty of resection
    • facial nerve
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4
Q

Are Nasal Polyps most commonly due to atopy?

A

No

  • More commonly associated with Allergic Rhinitis
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5
Q

Which sex has a higher incidence of Warthin tumor?

A

Males

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6
Q

In which salivary gland does Warthin tumor almost exclusively occur?

A

Parotid

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7
Q

What percent of aphthous ulcers are familial?

A

33%

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8
Q

Name 3 syndromes or diseases that are associated with aphthous ulcers.

A
  1. IBD
  2. Celiac Sprue
  3. Behcet syndrome
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9
Q

What are the early and late symptoms of laryngeal CA?

A
  • Early
    • Hoarseness
  • Late
    • pain
    • dysphagia
    • hemoptysis
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10
Q

What are the causes of death in laryngeal CA?

A
  • Direct extension
  • Ulceration
  • Pneumonia
  • infx
  • Metastases
  • Cachexia
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11
Q

What are the 3 necrotizing lesions of the nose and upper airway?

A

Necrotizing Sinusitis:

  1. Mucormycosis
  2. Wegener granulomatosis
  3. Extranodal NK / T-cell lymphoma
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12
Q

What lesion is shown?

A

Extranodal NK / T-cell Lymphoma

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13
Q

What is the etiology of Lethal Midline Granuloma?

A

It is a lymphoma of EB - infected NK cells

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14
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for Lethal Midline Granuloma?

A
  • Radiation therapy for localized disease
  • Tumor spread is fatal
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15
Q

In what context does a laryngeal polyp occur?

A
  • Most common in males
  • Heavy smokers
  • People who strain their vocal cords
    • singers
    • coaches
    • teachers
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16
Q

What are the symptoms of laryngeal polyps?

A

Voice change and hoarseness

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17
Q

What is the common age of primary herpes labialis infxn?

A

2-4 y/o

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18
Q

If a 3 y/o male shows numerous vesicles about the nose and mouth with fever, lymphadenopathy, anorexia, and irritability, what is the diagnosis?

A

Acute Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

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19
Q

Why are HSV lesions recurrent?

A

The virus becomes dormant in the ganglia

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20
Q

What can activate dormant HSV?

A
  • Respiratory infxn
  • Fever
  • Sunlight
  • Cold
  • Trauma
  • Allergies
  • Pregnancy
  • Menstruation
  • Immune suppression
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21
Q

What are the diagnositic findings of HSV histology?

A

Intranuclear inclusions

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22
Q

How long do HSV lesions take to heal?

A
  • Acute gingivostomatitis
    • 3-4 weeks
  • Cold sores
    • Dry in 4-6 days
    • Heal in 7-10 days
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23
Q

What is the infectious cause of Hairy leukoplakia?

A

EB virus

24
Q

In the past, what disease will appear in 2-3 years in most pts w/ Hairy Leukoplakia?

A

AIDS (HIV)

25
Q

What is the lesion?

A

Sinonasal inverted papilloma

26
Q

Why is Sinonasal inverted papilloma clinically significant?

A
  • Benign but can recur
  • Can invade orbit or cranial vault
  • 10% evolve into carcinoma
27
Q

What are the 3 types of Undifferentiated Nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A
  1. Keratinizing
  2. Non-keratinizing
  3. Undifferentiated / Basaloid
28
Q

Where is Undifferentiated Nasopharyngeal carcinoma common?

A
  • Africa: children
  • S. China: adults
29
Q

What virus is associated with Undifferentiated Nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV

30
Q

Is a dentigerous cyst developmental or inflammatory?

A

Developmental

31
Q

Why must a dentigerous cyst be completely removed?

A
  • It can recur
  • Rarely becomes
    • SCC
    • Ameloblastoma
32
Q

What percent of all salivary tumors are Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas?

A
  • Up to 15%
  • Most common malignant primary tumor of salivary glands!!!
33
Q

What abnormal gene is associated with Mucoepidermoid Carcinomas?

A
  • MECT1
  • MAML2
34
Q

What is the likely age and sex of incidence of Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma?

A

Young and Teenage Females

35
Q

Why is treatment of Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma complete excision down to the periosteum?

A

Due to a 15-20% recurrance rate

36
Q

What is the lesion pictured below?

A

Carotid Body Tumor

37
Q

What is the adrenal equivalent of the Carotid Body Tumor?

A

Pheochromocytoma

38
Q

What % of extra-adrenal paragangliomas are found in the head and neck?

A

70%

(aka Carotid Body Tumor)

39
Q

What is the histologic pattern of Carotid Body Tumor called?

A

Zellballen

40
Q

Are Carotid Body Tumors typically chromaffin positive?

A

H&N Paragangliomas typically lack catecholamines

Stain negative for chromaffin

41
Q

Are Olfactory Neuroblastomas usually a PNET / Ewing sarcoma type tumor?

A

No: It lacks 11:22 translocation gene

42
Q

What is the treatment for Olfactory Neuroblastoma?

A

Surgery, radiation, and chemo

43
Q

From what is an Odontoma derived?

A

Odontogenic epithelium

44
Q

What is thought to be the true nature of Odontomas?

A

Hamartoma

45
Q

What is the precursor lesion of a Cholesteatoma?

A

Otitis media

46
Q

What is the clinical significance of a Cholesteatoma?

A

It can erode into the ossicle labyrinth, adjacent bone, or surrounding tissue creating a neck mass

47
Q

What is the diagnosis of a cystic midline neck mass?

A

Thyroglossal Duct cyst

48
Q

What is the treatment for a Thyroglossal Duct cyst?

A

Excision, which may include the anterior hyoid bone and residual thyroid anlage tract

(sistrunk procedure)

49
Q

What is the treatment of an Irritation Fibroma?

A

Complete Excision

50
Q

What is the most common malignancy in the minor salivary glands?

A

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

(aka Malignant Cylindroma)

51
Q

What is the clinical significance of an Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma?

A

Perineural invasion

52
Q

What is the clinical history of Adenoid Cystic Carcinomas?

A
  • Slow-growing
  • recurrent
  • 50% eventually have widespread metastasis
53
Q

What are the serologic markers for Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A
  • SS-A (Ro) Ab
  • SS-B (La) Ab

Both are auto-Ab

54
Q

What cancer has an increased risk in Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A

Marginal Zone Lymphoma

55
Q

What is the clinical course of NUT Midline Carcinoma?

A
  • Aggressive
  • Resistant to conventional therapy
  • 9 mo average survival

pathology (27 decks)

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