Haematology EMQs Flashcards

1
Q
A Iron deficiency anaemia
B β-Thalassaemia
C Anaemia of chronic disease
D Blood loss
E Alcohol
F Vitamin B12 deficiency
G Renal failure
H Aplastic anaemia
I Lead poisoning

A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a 1-month history of increased
tiredness. The patient also admits to diarrhoea and minor abdominal pain during
this period. His blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 9.5 (13–18 g/dL)
MCV 64 (76–96 fL)
Fe 12.2 (14–31 μmol/L)
TIBC 74 (45–66 μmol/L)
Ferritin 9.2 (12–200 μg/L)

A

A Iron deficiency anaemia

Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA; A) causes a hypochromic (pallor of the
red blood cells on blood film due to reduced Hb synthesis), microcytic
(small size) anaemia (low haemoglobin). A reduction in serum iron can
be caused by a number of factors, including inadequate intake, malabsorption
(coeliac disease; most likely cause in this case given diarrhoea
and abdominal pain), increased demand (pregnancy) and increased
losses (bleeding and parasitic infections). Further studies are required to
distinguish IDA from other causes of microcytic anaemia: serum ferritin
will be low, while total iron binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin will
be high.

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2
Q
A Iron deficiency anaemia
B β-Thalassaemia
C Anaemia of chronic disease
D Blood loss
E Alcohol
F Vitamin B12 deficiency
G Renal failure
H Aplastic anaemia
I Lead poisoning

A 56-year-old vagrant man presents to the accident and emergency department
with weakness in his legs. The patient has a history of poorly controlled
Crohn’s disease. His blood tests demonstrate Hb 9.4 (13–18 g/dL) and MCV 121
(
76–96 fL). A blood film reveals the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

A

F Vitamin B12 deficiency

The majority of cases of vitamin B12 deficiency (F) occur secondary to
malabsorption: reduced intrinsic factor production due to pernicious
anaemia or post-gastrectomy, as well as disease of the terminal ileum.
Clinical features will be similar to those of anaemia in mild cases,
progressing to neuropsychiatric symptoms and subacute degeneration
of the spinal cord (SDSC) in severe cases. Vitamin B12 deficiency
results in a macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia as a result of inhibited
DNA synthesis (B12 is responsible for the production of thymidine).
Hypersegmented neutrophils are pathognomonic of megaloblastic
anaemia.

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3
Q
A Iron deficiency anaemia
B β-Thalassaemia
C Anaemia of chronic disease
D Blood loss
E Alcohol
F Vitamin B12 deficiency
G Renal failure
H Aplastic anaemia
I Lead poisoning

A 65-year-old man is referred to the haematology department by his GP after
initially presenting with tiredness, palpitations, petechiae and recent pneumonia.
His blood tests reveal Hb 9.8 (13–18 g/dL), MCV 128 (76–96 fL), reticulocyte
count 18 (25–100 × 109/L), 1.2 (2–7.5 × 109/L) and platelet count 125
(150–400 × 109/L).

A

H Aplastic anaemia

Aplastic anaemia (H) is caused by failure of the bone marrow resulting
in a pancytopenia and hypocellular bone marrow. Eighty per cent
of cases are idiopathic, although 10 per cent are primary (dyskeratosis
congenita and Fanconi anaemia) and 10 per cent are secondary (viruses,
SLE, drugs and radiation). The pathological process involves CD8+/
HLA-DR+ T cell destruction of bone marrow resulting in fatty changes.
Investigations will reveal reduced Hb, reticulocytes, neutrophils, platelets
and bone marrow cellularity as well as a raised MCV. Macrocytosis
results from the release of fetal haemoglobin in an attempt to compensate
for reduced red cell production.

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4
Q
A Iron deficiency anaemia
B β-Thalassaemia
C Anaemia of chronic disease
D Blood loss
E Alcohol
F Vitamin B12 deficiency
G Renal failure
H Aplastic anaemia
I Lead poisoning
A 56-year-old woman presents to her GP with increased tiredness in the past
few weeks. A past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis is noted. Her blood
tests demonstrate the following:
Hb 8.6 (11.5–16 g/dL)
MCV 62 (76–96 fL)
Fe 10.2 (11–30 μmol/L)
TIBC 38 (45–66 μmol/L)
Ferritin 220 (12–200 μg/L)
A

C Anaemia of chronic disease

Anaemia of chronic disease (ACD; C) occurs in states of chronic infection
and inflammation, for example in tuberculosis (TB), rheumatoid
arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease and malignant disease. ACD is
mediated by IL-6 produced by macrophages which induces hepcidin
production by the liver. Hepcidin has the effect of retaining iron in
macrophages (reduced delivery to red blood cells for erythropoiesis) and
reduces export from enterocytes (reduced plasma iron levels). Laboratory features of ACD include a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, rouleaux
formation (increased plasma proteins), raised ferritin (acute phase protein)
as well as reduced serum iron and TIBC.

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5
Q
A Iron deficiency anaemia
B β-Thalassaemia
C Anaemia of chronic disease
D Blood loss
E Alcohol
F Vitamin B12 deficiency
G Renal failure
H Aplastic anaemia
I Lead poisoning

A 12-year-old Mediterranean boy presents to his GP with increased tiredness
over the past few weeks which is affecting his ability to concentrate at school.
Examination is normal. Blood tests demonstrate the following:
Hb 9.5 (13–18 g/dL)
MCV 69 (76–96 fL)
Fe 18.2 (14–31 μmol/L)
TIBC 54 (45–66 μmol/L)
Ferritin 124 (12–200 μg/L)

A

B β-Thalassaemia

β-Thalassaemia (B) is a genetic disorder characterized by the reduced or
absent production of β-chains of haemoglobin. Mutations affecting the
β-globin genes on chromosome 11 lead to a spectrum of clinical features
depending on the combinations of chains affected. β-Thalassaemia
minor affects one β-globin chain and is usually asymptomatic, but may
present with mild features of anaemia. Haematological tests reveal a
microcytic anaemia but iron studies will be normal, differentiating from
iron deficiency anaemia. β-Thalassaemia major occurs due to defects
of both β-globin chains and results in severe anaemia requiring regular
blood transfusions, as well as skull bossing and hepatosplenomegaly.

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6
Q
A Hereditary sherocytosis
B Sickle cell anaemia
C β-Thalassaemia
D Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
E Pyruvate kinase deficiency
F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn
H Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria
I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

A 48-year-old woman diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia develops
jaundice and on examination is found to have conjunctival pallor. Direct
antiglobulin
test is found to be positive at 37°C.

A

F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA; F) is caused by autoantibodies
that bind to red blood cells (RBCs) leading to splenic destruction. AIHA
can be classified as either ‘warm’ or ‘cold’ depending on the temperature
at which antibodies bind to RBCs. Warm AIHA is IgG mediated,
which binds to RBCs at 37°C; causes include lymphoproliferative disorders,
drugs (penicillin) and autoimmune diseases (SLE). Cold AIHA is
IgM mediated which binds to RBCs at temperatures less than 4°C; this
phenomenon usually occurs after an infection by mycoplasma or EBV.
Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive in AIHA and spherocytes are
seen on blood film.

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7
Q
A Hereditary sherocytosis
B Sickle cell anaemia
C β-Thalassaemia
D Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
E Pyruvate kinase deficiency
F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn
H Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria
I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

An 18-year-old man presents to accident and emergency after eating a
meal containing Fava beans. He is evidently jaundiced and has signs suggestive
of anaemia. The patient’s blood film reveals the presence of Heinz
bodies.

A

D Glucose-6-phosphate

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD deficiency; D) is
caused by an X-linked recessive enzyme defect. G6PD is an essential
enzyme in the red blood cell pentose phosphate pathway; the pathway maintains NADPH levels which in turn supply glutathione to neutralize
free radicals that may otherwise cause oxidative damage. Therefore,
G6PD deficient patients are at risk of oxidative crises which may be
precipitated by certain drugs (primaquine, sulphonamides and aspirin),
fava beans and henna. Attacks result in rapid anaemia, jaundice and a
blood film will demonstrate the presence of bite cells and Heinz bodies.

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8
Q
A Hereditary sherocytosis
B Sickle cell anaemia
C β-Thalassaemia
D Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
E Pyruvate kinase deficiency
F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn
H Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria
I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

A 10-year-old girl presents to accident and emergency with jaundice. Blood
tests reveal uraemia and thrombocytopenia. A peripheral blood film demonstrates
the presence of schistocytes.

A

I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (I) is caused by the mechanical
destruction of RBCs in circulation. Causes include thrombotic thrombocytopenic
pupura (TTP), haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS; E. coli
O157:57), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and systemic
lupus erythematosus (SLE). In all underlying causes, the potentiation
of coagulation pathways creates a mesh which leads to the intravascular
destruction of RBCs and produces schistocytes (helmet cells).
Schistocytes are broken down in the spleen, raising bilirubin levels and
initiating jaundice.
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9
Q
A Hereditary sherocytosis
B Sickle cell anaemia
C β-Thalassaemia
D Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
E Pyruvate kinase deficiency
F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn
H Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria
I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

A 9-year-old boy from sub-Saharan Africa presents to accident and emergency
with abdominal pain. On examination the child is found to have dactylitis.
Blood haemoglobin is found to be 6.2 g/dL and electrophoresis reveals the
diagnosis.

A

B Sickle cell anaemia

Sickle cell anaemia (B) is an autosomal recessive genetic haematological
condition due to a point mutation in the β-globin chain of haemoglobin
(chromosome 11); this mutation causes glumatic acid at position six to
be substituted by valine. Homozygotes for the mutation (HbSS) have
sickle cell anaemia while heterozygotes (HbAS) have sickle cell trait.
The mutation results in reduced RBC elasticity; RBCs therefore assume a
sickle shape which leads to the numerous complications associated with
a crisis. Blood tests will reveal an anaemia, reticulocytosis and raised
bilirubin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis will distinguish between HbSS
and HbAS.

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10
Q
A Hereditary sherocytosis
B Sickle cell anaemia
C β-Thalassaemia
D Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency
E Pyruvate kinase deficiency
F Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn
H Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria
I Microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia

A 1-day old baby has developed severe jaundice on the neonatal ward.
The mother is rhesus negative and has had one previous pregnancy. Due
to having her first baby abroad, she was not administered prophylactic
anti-
D.

A

G Haemolytic disease of the
newborn

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (G) occurs when the mother’s blood is
rhesus negative and the fetus’ blood is rhesus positive. A first pregnancy
or a sensitizing event such as an abortion, miscarriage or antepartum
haemorrhage leads to fetal red blood cells entering the maternal circulation
resulting in the formation of anti-D IgG. In a second pregnancy,
maternal anti-D IgG will cross the placenta and coat fetal red blood cells
which are subsequently haemolyzed in the spleen and liver. Therefore,
anti-D prophylaxis is given to at-risk mothers; anti-D will coat any fetal
red blood cells in the maternal circulation causing them to be removed
by the spleen prior to potentially harmful IgG production.

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11
Q
A Anisocytosis
B Howell–Jolly bodies
C Heinz bodies
D Rouleaux formation
E Spherocytes
F Target cells
G Cabot rings
H Pappenheimer bodies
I Tear-drop cells

A 34-year-old man, who has a past medical history of splenectomy following
splenic trauma, presents to his GP with malaise 2 weeks after returning from
abroad. Routine blood results are found to be normal but a blood film demonstrates
inclusions within erythrocytes.

A

B Howell–Jolly bodies

Howell–Jolly bodies (B) are nuclear DNA remnants found in circulating
erythrocytes. On haematoxylin and eosin stained blood film they appear
as purple spheres within erythrocytes. In healthy individuals erythrocytes
expel nuclear DNA during the maturation process within the
bone marrow; the few erythrocytes containing Howell–Jolly bodies are
removed by the spleen. Common causes of Howell–Jolly bodies include
splenectomy secondary to trauma and autosplenectomy resulting from
sickle cell disease.

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12
Q
A Anisocytosis
B Howell–Jolly bodies
C Heinz bodies
D Rouleaux formation
E Spherocytes
F Target cells
G Cabot rings
H Pappenheimer bodies
I Tear-drop cells

A 66-year-old man has a gastroscopy and colonoscopy following a blood test
which demonstrated a microcytic anaemia. The patient had complained of tiredness
and significant weight loss over a 1-month period.

A

A Anisocytosis

Anisocytosis (A) is defined as the variation in the size of circulating
erythrocytes. The most common cause is iron deficiency anaemia (IDA),
but thalassaemia, megaloblastic anaemia and sideroblastic anaemia are
all causative. As well as blood film analysis, anisocytosis may be detected
as a raised red cell distribution width (RDW), a measure of variation
in size of red blood cells. In the case of IDA, anisocytosis results due to
deficient iron supply to produce haemoglobin.

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13
Q
A Anisocytosis
B Howell–Jolly bodies
C Heinz bodies
D Rouleaux formation
E Spherocytes
F Target cells
G Cabot rings
H Pappenheimer bodies
I Tear-drop cells

A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP after a 1-month history of tiredness
and recurrent chest infections. Blood tests reveal a pancytopenia and a subsequent
bone marrow aspirate reveals a dry tap.

A

I Tear-drop cells

Tear-drop cells (I), also known as dacrocytes, are caused by myelofibrosis.
The pathogenesis of myelofibrosis is defined by the bone marrow
undergoing fibrosis, usually following a myeloproliferative disorder
such as polycythaemia rubra vera or essential thrombocytosis. Bone
marrow production of blood cells decreases resulting in a pancytopenia.
The body compensates with extra-medullary haemopoiesis causing
hepatosplenomegaly. Blood film will demonstrate leuko-erythroblasts,
tear-drop cells and circulating megakaryocytes. Bone marrow aspirate is
described as a ‘dry and bloody’ tap.

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14
Q
A Anisocytosis
B Howell–Jolly bodies
C Heinz bodies
D Rouleaux formation
E Spherocytes
F Target cells
G Cabot rings
H Pappenheimer bodies
I Tear-drop cells

A 3-week-old neonate is found to have prolonged jaundice with serious risk of
kernicterus. Blood film demonstrates the presence of ‘bite cells’ as well as inclusions
within erythrocytes.

A

C Heinz bodies

Heinz bodies (C) are inclusion bodies found within erythrocytes that
represent denatured haemoglobin as a result of reactive oxygen species.
Heinz bodies are most commonly caused by erythrocyte enzyme deficiencies
such as glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency,
which may present in neonates with prolonged jaundice and NADPH
deficiency (leading to accumulation of hydrogen peroxide), as well
as chronic liver disease and α-thalassaemia. Damaged erythrocytes are
removed in the spleen by macrophages leading to the formation of ‘bite
cells’.

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15
Q
A Anisocytosis
B Howell–Jolly bodies
C Heinz bodies
D Rouleaux formation
E Spherocytes
F Target cells
G Cabot rings
H Pappenheimer bodies
I Tear-drop cells

A 45-year-old woman with known Graves’ diseases presents to her GP with
increased tiredness. She is found to have a megaloblastic anaemia.

A

G Cabot rings

Cabot rings (G) are looped structures found within erythrocytes which
may be caused by megaloblastic anaemia, i.e. inhibition of erythrocyte
production occurring as a result of reduced DNA synthesis secondary to vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency is most commonly caused
by intrinsic factor (a protein required for vitamin B12 absorption) deficiency
as a result of pernicious anaemia. Pernicious anaemia is caused
by antibody destruction of gastric parietal cells which produce intrinsic
factor and may be associated with other autoimmune diseases.

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16
Q
A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura
B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
D Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
E Von Willebrand disease
F Haemophilia A
G Haemophilia B
H Hereditary haemorrhagic
telangiectasia
I Bernard–Soulier syndrome

A 4-year-old girl is seen by her GP due to recent onset petechiae on her feet
and bleeding of her gums when she brushes her teeth. The child’s platelet count
is found to be 12 500 per μL. The GP prescribes prednisolone and reassures the
child’s mother that the bleeding will resolve.

A

A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP; A) may follow either an acute or
chronic disease process. Acute ITP most commonly occurs in children, usually
occurring 2 weeks after a viral illness. It is a type 2 hypersensitivity
reaction, with IgG binding to virus-coated platelets. The fall in platelets is
very low (less than 20 × 109/L) but is a self-limiting condition (few weeks).
Chronic ITP is gradual in onset with no history of previous viral infection.
It is also a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction with IgG targeting GLP-2b/3a.

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17
Q
A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura
B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
D Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
E Von Willebrand disease
F Haemophilia A
G Haemophilia B
H Hereditary haemorrhagic
telangiectasia
I Bernard–Soulier syndrome

A 28-year-old man attends the haematology outpatient clinic regarding a longstanding
condition he has suffered from. His disorder is related to a deficiency
in factor 8 and therefore requires regular transfusions to replace this clotting
factor.

A

F Haemophilia A

Haemophilia A (F) is an X-linked genetic disorder and hence only
affects men. Haemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in factor 8.
Haemophilia A is diagnosed by a reduced APTT as well as reduced
factor
8. Symptoms depend on severity of disease: mild disease features
bleeding after surgery/trauma; moderate disease results in bleeding
after minor trauma; severe disease causes frequent spontaneous bleeds.
Clinical features include haemarthrosis (causing fixed joints) and muscle
haematoma (causing atrophy and short tendons).

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18
Q
A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura
B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
D Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
E Von Willebrand disease
F Haemophilia A
G Haemophilia B
H Hereditary haemorrhagic
telangiectasia
I Bernard–Soulier syndrome

A 34-year-old man is taken to the local accident and emergency after suffering
an episode of jaundice, fever and worsening headache. Blood tests reveal a low
platelet count and blood film is suggestive of a microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia picture.

A

B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura

Idiopathic thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (B) occurs due to
platelet microthrombi. Presenting features include microangiopathic
haemolytic anaemia (red blood cells coming into contact with microscopic
clots are damaged by shear stress), renal failure, thrombocytopenia,
fever and neurological signs (hallucinations/stroke/headache). A
mutation in the ADAM-ST13 gene, coding for a protease that cleaves
von Willebrand factor (vWF) allows for the formation of vWF multimers
enabling platelet thrombi to form causing organ damage.

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19
Q
A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura
B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
D Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
E Von Willebrand disease
F Haemophilia A
G Haemophilia B
H Hereditary haemorrhagic
telangiectasia
I Bernard–Soulier syndrome

A 68-year-old man on the Care of the Elderly ward is confirmed to have Gramnegative
sepsis. The patient is bleeding from his mouth and is in shock. Initial
blood tests reveal a reduced platelet count, anaemia and renal failure.

A

C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC; C) may be caused by
Gram-negative sepsis, malignancy, trauma, placental abruption or
amniotic fluid embolus. Tissue factor is released which triggers the
activation of the clotting cascade, leading to platelet activation
(thrombosis in microcirculation) and fibrin deposition (haemolysis).
The consumption of platelets and clotting factors predisposes to
bleeding. Plasmin is also generated in DIC which causes fibrinolysis,
perpetuating the bleeding risk. The clinical manifestations of
DIC are therefore linked to microthombus production (renal failure
and neurological signs) and reduced platelets, clotting factors
and increased fibrinolysis (bruising, gastrointestinal bleeding and
shock).

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20
Q
A Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura
B Idiopathic thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
C Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
D Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
E Von Willebrand disease
F Haemophilia A
G Haemophilia B
H Hereditary haemorrhagic
telangiectasia
I Bernard–Soulier syndrome

A 2-year-old boy is taken to see the GP due to his mother noticing bruising
on his arms and legs after playing in the park. The parent mentions that she
has also noticed several recent nose bleeds in her son but thought he would
‘grow out of it’. Investigations reveal a low APTT, low factor 8 levels and low
Ristocetein cofactor activity.

A

E Von Willebrand disease

von Willebrand disease (vWD; E) is an autosomal dominant condition
caused by a mutation on chromosome 12. Physiologically, von
Willebrand factor (vWF) has two roles: platelet adhesion and factor 8
production. Therefore, in vWD, where there is a deficiency in vWF,
there is a defect in platelet plug formation as well as low levels of factor
8. Clinically, patients will present with gum bleeding, epistaxis or
prolonged bleeding after surgery. Investigations will reveal a high/
normal APTT, low factor 8 levels, low ristocetin cofactor activity, poor
ristocetin aggregation and normal PTT,

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21
Q
A Factor V Leiden
B Antiphospholipid syndrome
C Malignancy
D Protein S deficiency
E Antithrombin deficiency
F Prothrombin G20210A mutation
G Oral contraceptive pill
H Buerger’s disease
I Chronic liver disease

A 35-year-old Caucasian man presents to accident and emergency with deep
pain and swelling in his left calf. His past medical history reveals history of
recurrent DVTs. The patient’s notes reveal a letter from his haematologist who
had diagnosed a condition caused by a substitution mutation.

A

F Prothrombin G20210A mutation

Prothrombin G20210A (F) is an inherited thrombophilia caused by the
substitution of guanine with adenine at the 20210 position of the prothrombin
gene. Physiologically, prothrombin promotes clotting after
a blood vessel has been damaged. The G20210A causes the amplification
of prothrombin production thereby increasing the risk of clotting,
and causing a predisposition to deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
The prevalence of the mutation is approximately 5 per cent
in the Caucasian population, the race with the greatest preponderance.

22
Q
A Factor V Leiden
B Antiphospholipid syndrome
C Malignancy
D Protein S deficiency
E Antithrombin deficiency
F Prothrombin G20210A mutation
G Oral contraceptive pill
H Buerger’s disease
I Chronic liver disease

A 38-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency with abdominal
pain as well as passing blood and tissue per vagina. Ectopic pregnancy
is diagnosed after ultrasound. The patient’s past medical history includes a
haematological
condition in which a clotting factor is unable to be degraded
by activated protein C.

A

A Factor V Leiden

Factor V Leiden (A) is an autosomal dominant inherited thrombophilia.
Under normal circumstances protein C inhibits factor 5. In Factor V
Leiden a mutation of the F5 gene that codes for factor 5, whereby an
arginine codon is substituted for a glutamine codon, results in impaired
degradation of factor 5 by protein C. As a result, patients are at risk of
deep vein thrombosis and miscarriage. Diagnostic tests determine the
functionality of activated protein C.

23
Q
A Factor V Leiden
B Antiphospholipid syndrome
C Malignancy
D Protein S deficiency
E Antithrombin deficiency
F Prothrombin G20210A mutation
G Oral contraceptive pill
H Buerger’s disease
I Chronic liver disease

A 32-year-old woman is seen by her rheumatologist to follow up her longstanding
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient has a history of
recurrent
miscarriages. The woman is positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and
lupus anticoagulant.

A

B Antiphospholipid syndrome

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS; B) is an autoimmune disorder that
may present with stroke (arterial thrombosis), deep vein thrombosis
(venous thrombosis) and/or recurrent miscarriages. APLS may be primary
(not associated with autoimmune disease) or secondary to autoimmune
disease such as SLE. Anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus
anticoagulant bind to phospholipids on cell surface membranes of cells
causing the activation of the coagulation cascade and thereby promoting
clot formation. Diagnosis involves demonstrating the presence of
circulating anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant.

24
Q
A Factor V Leiden
B Antiphospholipid syndrome
C Malignancy
D Protein S deficiency
E Antithrombin deficiency
F Prothrombin G20210A mutation
G Oral contraceptive pill
H Buerger’s disease
I Chronic liver disease

A 45-year-old man, who has a 50 pack/year history of smoking, is referred to
the vascular outpatient clinic by his GP after suffering intermittent claudication.
A diagnostic angiogram reveals a corkscrew appearance of his lower
limb arteries.

A

H Buerger’s disease

Buerger’s disease (thromboangitis obliterans; H) is a vasculitis of small/
medium arteries and veins of the hands and feet; it is strongly related
to smoking. Claudication may be the initial presentation but as the
disease progresses there is an association with recurrent arterial and
venous thrombosis leading to gangrene and amputation in severe cases.
Angiograms of the upper and lower limbs are helpful in the diagnosis of
Buerger’s disease; a corkscrew appearance of the arteries may arise due
to persistent vascular damage.

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``` A Factor V Leiden B Antiphospholipid syndrome C Malignancy D Protein S deficiency E Antithrombin deficiency F Prothrombin G20210A mutation G Oral contraceptive pill H Buerger’s disease I Chronic liver disease ``` A 37-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with shortness of breath and severe pleuritic chest pain. A CTPA reveals the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The patient’s haematological records state the patient has a condition that leads to the persistence of factors 5a and 8a causing increased risk of venous thrombosis.
D Protein S deficiency Protein S deficiency (D) is associated with the impaired degradation of factors Va and VIIIa. Protein S and protein C are physiological anticoagulants. Deficiency of protein S leads to persistence of factors 5a and 8a in the circulation and hence patients have a susceptibility to venous thrombosis. Three types of protein S deficiency exist: type I (quantitative defect) and types II and III (qualitative defect). Since protein S is a vitamin K dependent anticoagulant, warfarin treatment and liver disease may also lead to venous thrombosis in rare cases (the majority of cases show increased bleeding).
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``` A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction B Febrile non-haemolytic reaction C Iron overload D IgA deficiency E Transfusion related lung injury F Bacterial infection G Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction H Fluid overload I Graft versus host disease ``` An 82-year-old man has just received a blood transfusion following a low haemoglobin level on the Care of the Elderly ward. He is now short of breath and is coughing up pink frothy sputum.
H Fluid overload Fluid overload (H) is an immediate complication of blood transfusion. Clinical features suggestive of fluid overload will include dyspnoea, distended neck veins and pink frothy sputum. Usually fluid overload occurs in situations where the blood transfusion rate is too fast; a transfusion would generally have to run at more than 2 mL/kg/hour to induce fluid overload. Patients with pre-existing cardiac or renal failure are prone to fluid overload as a result of blood transfusion.
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``` A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction B Febrile non-haemolytic reaction C Iron overload D IgA deficiency E Transfusion related lung injury F Bacterial infection G Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction H Fluid overload I Graft versus host disease ``` A 34-year-old HIV-positive man receives a regular blood transfusion as part of his beta-thalassaemia major treatment regimen. He soon develops diarrhoea and a maculopapular rash on his limbs.
I Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease (GVHD; I) occurs due to the transfer of donor lymphocytes to the recipient in a blood transfusion in patients who are immunosuppressed. Normally, the immune system is strong enough to detect and destroy donor lymphocytes. However, in immunosuppression (stem cell transplant patients/chemotherapy/malignancy/HIV) the donor lymphocytes cannot be destroyed; these foreign lymphocytes persist and target host tissue, especially the gastrointestinal tract and skin. Symptoms of GVHD include diarrhoea, maculopapular rash and skin necrosis. To minimize GVHD, donor blood is irradiated to remove lymphocytes.
28
``` A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction B Febrile non-haemolytic reaction C Iron overload D IgA deficiency E Transfusion related lung injury F Bacterial infection G Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction H Fluid overload I Graft versus host disease ``` A 34-year-old man requires a blood transfusion following a road traffic accident. However, soon after the transfusion, the patient is dyspnoeic and hypotensive. Investigation into the patient’s past medical history reveals a history of recurrent chest and gastrointestinal infections.
D IgA deficiency IgA deficiency (D) leads to recurrent mild infections of the mucous membranes lining the airways and digestive tract. In affected patients serum IgA levels are undetectable but IgG and IgM levels are normal. IgA is found in mucous secretions from the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts and plays a key role in mucosal immunity. IgA deficient patients are also predisposed to severe anaphylactic reactions to blood transfusions due to the presence of IgA in donor blood.
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``` A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction B Febrile non-haemolytic reaction C Iron overload D IgA deficiency E Transfusion related lung injury F Bacterial infection G Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction H Fluid overload I Graft versus host disease ``` A 56-year-old man is given a blood transfusion following severe blood loss after a hip replacement operation. Three hours after the transfusion, the patient develops shortness of breath, a dry cough and a fever of 39°C.
E Transfusion related lung injury Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI; E) is characterized by acute non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that occurs within 6 hours following blood transfusion. The pathogenesis of TRALI involves the presence of anti-white blood cell antibodies in the donor blood that attack host leukocytes; sensitizing events in donors include previous blood transfusion or transplantation. Clinical features of TRALI are dry cough, dyspnoea and fever.
30
``` A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction B Febrile non-haemolytic reaction C Iron overload D IgA deficiency E Transfusion related lung injury F Bacterial infection G Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction H Fluid overload I Graft versus host disease ``` A 29-year-old woman requires an immediate blood transfusion after suffering a post-partum haemorrhage. However, 30 minutes after her transfusion she develops abdominal pain, facial flushing and vomiting. Analysis of the woman’s urine reveals the presence of haemoglobin.
A Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction (IHTR; A) is characterized by ABO incompatibility and occurs 1–2 hours post-transfusion. Clinical features include abdominal pain, loin pain, facial flushing, vomiting and haemoglobinuria. Host IgG and IgM target donor red blood cells which are subsequently removed by the reticuloendothelial system. The most severe reaction occurs if a group O patient is transfused with group A blood.
31
``` A Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia B Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C Chronic myeloid leukaemia D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia E Hairy cell leukaemia F T-cell prolymphocytic leukaemia G Large granular lymphocytic leukaemia H Adult T-cell leukaemia I Acute myeloid leukaemia ``` A 62-year-old woman is seen by a GP due to a recent chest infection that has been troubling her. Initial blood tests show an elevated white cell count with specifically raised granulocytes. Following referral to a haematologist, a bone marrow biopsy reveals a hypercellular bone marrow and cytogenetic screening suggests a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
C Chronic myeloid leukaemia Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML; C) is most prevalent in the elderly population and is commonly suspected secondary to routine blood tests. Blood results will show an elevated level of granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils). Blood film will demonstrate myeloid cells at different stages of maturation. Bone marrow biopsy in CML patients suggests hypercellularity. Ninety-five per cent of cases are caused by the Philadelphia chromosome, a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22; this results in the BCR-Abl fusion oncogene that has tyrosine kinase activity. Recent novel therapies for CML include imatinib, a BCR-Abl inhibitor.
32
``` A Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia B Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C Chronic myeloid leukaemia D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia E Hairy cell leukaemia F T-cell prolymphocytic leukaemia G Large granular lymphocytic leukaemia H Adult T-cell leukaemia I Acute myeloid leukaemia ``` A 41-year-old man is referred to a haematologist by his general practitioner after several recent chest infections and tiredness. On examination, bruises are seen on his lower limbs as well as splenomegaly. Initial blood tests reveal a pancytopenia. Further testing demonstrates the presence of tumour cells that express tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
E Hairy cell leukaemia Hairy cell leukaemia (HCL; E) is a haematological malignancy of B lymphocytes and a subtype of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. It most commonly occurs in middle-aged men. The cancer derives its name from the fine hair-like projections that are seen on tumour cells on microscopy. Cell surface markers include CD25 (IL-2 receptor) and CD11c (adhesion molecule). Diagnosis can be confirmed by the presence of tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) on cytochemical analysis. Clinical features relate to invasion of the spleen (splenomegaly), liver (hepatomegaly) and bone marrow (pancytopenia).
33
``` A Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia B Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C Chronic myeloid leukaemia D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia E Hairy cell leukaemia F T-cell prolymphocytic leukaemia G Large granular lymphocytic leukaemia H Adult T-cell leukaemia I Acute myeloid leukaemia ``` A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with fever, malaise and cough. On examination, the man is found to have petechiae on his legs as well as gum hypertrophy. Blood tests reveal anaemia, leukocytopenia and thrombocytopenia. A blood film demonstrates the presence of Auer rods within blast cells.
I Acute myeloid leukaemia Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML; I) is characterized by more than 20 per cent myleoblasts in the bone marrow. AML also causes proliferation of megakaryocytes and erythrocytes. Mutations that can cause AML include internal tandem duplications of the FLT3 gene (coding for a tyrosine kinase) and t(8;21) (a translocation causing a compressor complex to inhibit haematopoietic differentiation. Primary causes include Down’s syndrome; secondary causes include myeloproliferative disease. Blood tests will reveal a variable white cell count, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and reduced neutrophil count. Auer rods on blood film are pathognomonic, which will also be leuko-erythroblastic. Immunophenotyping of CD13, CD33 or CD34 can also aid diagnosis.
34
``` A Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia B Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C Chronic myeloid leukaemia D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia E Hairy cell leukaemia F T-cell prolymphocytic leukaemia G Large granular lymphocytic leukaemia H Adult T-cell leukaemia I Acute myeloid leukaemia ``` A 42-year-old Japanese migrant presents to his GP with generalized lymphadenopathy and nodules on his arms. On examination the patient has hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal lymphocytosis and a raised calcium level.
H Adult T-cell leukaemia Adult T-cell leukaemia (adult T-cell lymphoma; ATL; H) is a rare haematological malignancy with poor prognosis. It is caused by human T-cell leukaemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1), endemic in Japan and the Caribbean. Tumour cells express the cell surface protein CD4 and will contain the HTLV-1 virus within; the nuclei of ATL cells have a characteristic cloverleaf appearance. Clinical features include lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, skin lesions and hypercalcaemia.
35
``` A Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia B Acute promyelocytic leukaemia C Chronic myeloid leukaemia D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia E Hairy cell leukaemia F T-cell prolymphocytic leukaemia G Large granular lymphocytic leukaemia H Adult T-cell leukaemia I Acute myeloid leukaemia ``` A 70-year-old man is reviewed by his GP after having felt tired and experienced weight loss over a 2-month period. The patient has lymphadenopathy on examination. Blood tests demonstrates a lymphocytosis of 4500 cells per microlitre and smudge cells can be visualized on a peripheral blood film.
D Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL; D) is a B-cell neoplasm characterized by a lymphocyte count of over 4000 cells per microlitre. CLL most commonly occurs in elderly men. The cancer presents primarily in the lymph nodes with small lymphocytes containing irregular nuclei mixed with larger prolymphocytes. Prolymphocytes may aggregate to form pathognomonic proliferation centres. Blood film may reveal the presence of smudge cells. Clinical features are non-specific and include tiredness and weight loss. Hypogammaglobulinaemia is an associated immune phenomenon. CLL may convert into more aggressive forms including prolymphocytic transformation and diffuse-large B-cell lymphoma (Richter’s syndrome).
36
``` A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma B Burkitt lymphoma C Follicular lymphoma D Small lymphocytic leukaemia E Mantle cell lymphoma F Peripheral T-cell lymphoma G Mycosis fungoides H Angiocentric lymphoma I Hodgkin’s lymphoma ``` A 5-year-old boy is seen by a volunteer doctor at an Ethiopian refugee camp. On examination the child has a prominent swelling on the left side of his jaw. A tissue sample of the mass demonstrates a ‘starry sky’ appearance on light microscopy.
B Burkitt lymphoma Burkitt lymphoma (BL; B) is a haematological cancer of B lymphocytes caused by latent Epstein–Barr viral (EBV) infection and is most prevalent in Africa, affecting children and teenagers. Subtypes of BL include endemic, sporadic and immunodeficiency-associated disease. Endemic BL presents with a mandibular mass whereas non-endemic types present with an abdominal mass. All forms are highly associated with translocations of the c-myc gene on chromosome 8 (the most common with the Ig heavy chain on chromosome 14). A ‘starry sky’ appearance is characteristic when viewing BL cells under microscopy.
37
``` A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma B Burkitt lymphoma C Follicular lymphoma D Small lymphocytic leukaemia E Mantle cell lymphoma F Peripheral T-cell lymphoma G Mycosis fungoides H Angiocentric lymphoma I Hodgkin’s lymphoma ``` A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with painless lymphadenopathy which he describes as having fluctuated in size over the past month, as well as experiencing night sweats and weight loss. He also mentions the lumps become painful when he drinks alcohol. Further biopsy of the lumps reveals the presence of Reed–Sternberg cells.
I Hodgkin’s lymphoma Hodgkin’s lymphoma (I) results from the proliferation of B cells from the germinal centre. The pathogenesis is linked to EBV infection which activates NF-κB, preventing apoptosis of infected cells. Release of IL-5 from B-cells activates eosinophils, prolonging the life of B cells further. Histologically, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed–Sternberg cells (binucleate/multinucleate cells with abundant cytoplasm, inclusion-like nucleoli and surrounded by eosinophils). Lymphadenopathy associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually painless, asymmetrical, fluctuates in size and is painful with alcohol intake. Other clinical features include fever, night sweats, weight loss and Pel– Ebstein fever (intermittent fever every 2 weeks). Unlike non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, extra-nodal involvement is rare.
38
``` A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma B Burkitt lymphoma C Follicular lymphoma D Small lymphocytic leukaemia E Mantle cell lymphoma F Peripheral T-cell lymphoma G Mycosis fungoides H Angiocentric lymphoma I Hodgkin’s lymphoma ``` A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with malaise, night sweats and weight loss. On examination the patient is found to have generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatomegaly. Cytogenetic investigation a few weeks later by a haematologist reveals a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 14, which has caused overexpression of the BCL-2 protein.
E Mantle cell lymphoma Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL; E) is an aggressive B-cell lymphoma primarily affecting elderly men. The most common cause is a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 14, involving the BCL-1 locus and Ig heavy chain locus, therefore leading to over-expression of cyclin D1. Over-expression of cyclin D1 leads to dysregulation of the cell cycle. Clinically, generalized lymphadenopathy, as well as bone marrow and liver infiltration, are common. Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be split into classical and lymphocyte predominant nodular (LPN) subtypes.
39
``` A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma B Burkitt lymphoma C Follicular lymphoma D Small lymphocytic leukaemia E Mantle cell lymphoma F Peripheral T-cell lymphoma G Mycosis fungoides H Angiocentric lymphoma I Hodgkin’s lymphoma ``` A 40-year-old woman is referred to a haematologist after she is found to have generalized, painless lymphadenopathy. A report on tumour cell morphology states the presence of both centrocytes and centroblasts.
C Follicular lymphoma Follicular lymphoma (C) is caused most commonly by a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18, leading to over-expression of the BCL-2 protein. Over-expression of BCL-2 causes inhibition of apoptosis, promoting the survival of tumour cells. Tumour cells in follicular lymphoma are characterized by centrocytes (small B cells with irregular nuclei and reduced cytoplasm) and centroblasts (larger B cells with multiple nuclei). Clinical features include painless, generalized lymphadenopathy. Follicular lymphoma usually presents in middle-aged patients and has a non-aggressive course but is difficult to cure.
40
``` A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma B Burkitt lymphoma C Follicular lymphoma D Small lymphocytic leukaemia E Mantle cell lymphoma F Peripheral T-cell lymphoma G Mycosis fungoides H Angiocentric lymphoma I Hodgkin’s lymphoma ``` A 62-year-old HIV-positive man presents to a haematologist with a 3-month history of weight loss and tiredness. On examination, the patient has a mass on his neck which the patient states has been rapidly growing. Staining of biopsy tissue demonstrates the present of large B cells which are positive for EBV.
A Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBL; A) is a haematological malignancy most commonly affecting the elderly, characterized by large lymphocytes which have a diffuse pattern of growth. Common chromosomal abnormalities which contribute to the development of DLBL include the t(14;18) translocation which is characteristic of follicular lymphoma; this suggests that follicular lymphoma may undergo a degree of transformation to cause DLBL in such circumstances. Tumour cells that have follicular lymphoma morphology may be present at other sites. Two subtypes of DLBL have been described, both of which are associated with immunodeficiency: immunodeficiency- associated large B-cell lymphoma (linked to latent EBV infection) and body cavity-based large cell lymphoma (linked to HHV8 infection).
41
``` A Essential thrombocythaemia B Myelofibrosis C Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia D Refractory anaemia with excess blasts E Polycythaemia rubravera F Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts G Refractory anaemia H 5q-Syndrome I Multiple myeloma ``` A 40-year-old man is referred to a haematologist after suffering an episode of petechiae on his legs followed by a burning sensation in his fingers and deep vein thrombosis a few weeks later. Blood tests reveal a platelet count of 850 × 109/L.
A Essential thrombocythaemia Essential thrombocythaemia (A) results in a high platelet count, which quickly become dysfunctional; it is characterized by periods of bleeding or thrombosis. Clinical features of bleeding events include gastrointestinal bleeding, bruising, petechiae and/or menorrhagia. Thrombotic events manifest as erythromelalgia (erythema, swelling, pain and/or burning sensation in the extremities), digital ischaemia, cerebrovascular accident, deep vein thrombosis and Budd–Chiari syndrome. Blood tests will demonstrate a platelet count of over 600 × 109/L and the bone marrow will be hypercellular with giant platelets, as well as megakaryocyte clustering and hyperplasia. Treatment options include hydroxyurea or anagrelide.
42
``` A Essential thrombocythaemia B Myelofibrosis C Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia D Refractory anaemia with excess blasts E Polycythaemia rubravera F Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts G Refractory anaemia H 5q-Syndrome I Multiple myeloma ``` A 52-year-old woman presents to her GP due to increased tiredness. The patient also reports easy bruising and numerous bouts of pneumonia which have occurred over the past 6 months. On examination, the patient has splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal a low white cell and platelet count. Blood film reveals the presence of tear drop cells and on bone marrow aspiration there is a ‘dry’ tap.
B Myelofibrosis In myelofibrosis (B) the bone marrow undergoes fibrosis, the cause of which is unknown. The body compensates with extra-medullary haemopoiesis causing enlargement of the spleen and liver. The underlying pathogenesis is related to abnormal megakaryocytes releasing PDGF and TGF-β which stimulate fibroblast proliferation. Blood tests will show an initial rise in white cell and platelet counts during the compensatory phase; as fibrosis progresses the bone marrow reduces white cell and platelet production. Blood film will be leukoerythroblastic, with tear-drop cells and circulating megakaryocytes (fibrosis causes ejection of megakaryocytes from the bone marrow). Bone marrow aspirate will demonstrate a ‘dry’ or bloody tap.
43
``` A Essential thrombocythaemia B Myelofibrosis C Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia D Refractory anaemia with excess blasts E Polycythaemia rubravera F Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts G Refractory anaemia H 5q-Syndrome I Multiple myeloma ``` A 60-year-old man is referred to a haematologist after complaining of back pain and tiredness as well as recent onset low mood. Urine tests reveal the presence of Bence–Jones proteins. An X-ray of the patient’s spine shows the presence of lytic lesions.
I Multiple myeloma Multiple myeloma (I) is defined as the proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow (>10 per cent plasma cells). Myeloma cells release monoclonal antibodies (most commonly IgG or IgA) and/or light chains (paraproteins); IgA production significantly increases the viscosity of the blood. Diagnosis is based on paraprotein bands of greater than 30 g/L on electrophoresis. Blood tests will demonstrate an increased ESR and calcium levels as well as rouleaux formation on blood film. Bence–Jones proteins (immunoglobulin light chains) may be present in the urine. Plasma cells visualized from bone marrow biopsy are atypical, with multiple nuclei, prominent nucleoli and cytoplasmic granules (containing immunoglobulin). X-rays may reveal punched-out lytic lesions.
44
``` A Essential thrombocythaemia B Myelofibrosis C Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia D Refractory anaemia with excess blasts E Polycythaemia rubravera F Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts G Refractory anaemia H 5q-Syndrome I Multiple myeloma ``` A 72-year-old man presents with a 1-month history of fever, night sweats and weight loss. Blood tests reveal a monocyte count of 1400/mm3 in the peripheral blood and a bone marrow biopsy demonstrates that myeloblasts constitute 16 per cent of his bone marrow
C Chronic myelo-monocytic Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia (CMML; C) is a myelodysplastic/ myeloproliferative disease which most commonly affects the elderly population, defined by a monocytosis of >1000/mm3 and increased number of monocytes in the bone marrow. Myeloblasts make up
45
``` A Essential thrombocythaemia B Myelofibrosis C Chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia D Refractory anaemia with excess blasts E Polycythaemia rubravera F Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts G Refractory anaemia H 5q-Syndrome I Multiple myeloma ``` A 43-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with headaches, episodes of dizziness and a strange itching sensation after she comes out of the bath. On examination a plethoric appearance is noted. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin of 19 g/dL and erythropoietin levels are suppressed.
E Polycythaemia rubravera Polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV; E) is characterized by proliferation of erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocyte lines. Many PRV cases are due to a V167F mutation on exon 2 of the JAK2 gene, leading to uncontrolled stem cell proliferation. Clinical features include hyperviscosity (headaches, dizziness and stroke), hyper-mast-cell degranulation (pruritis after hot baths, plethoric skin and peptic ulceration) and increased cell turnover (gout). Blood tests will reveal a haemoglobin concentration above 18 g/dL, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Erythropoietin levels are low due to a negative-feedback response from increased erythrocyte production.
46
``` A Temporal arteritis B Renal cell carcinoma C Colorectal cancer D Rheumatoid arthritis E Miliary tuberculosis F Acute pancreatitis G Schistosomiasis H Sarcoidosis I Epstein–Barr infection ``` A 56-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up for a chronic condition she suffers from. On examination, she has signs of long-term steroid therapy. There is ulnar deviation at her metacarpophalangeal joints. Blood tests reveal a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, low iron and total iron binding capacity, but a raised ferritin level.
D Rheumatoid arthritis Rheumatoid arthritis (RA; D) is an inflammatory disease that mainly affects the small joints of the hands but systemic involvement can be a feature, manifesting in the lungs (fibrosis), heart (pericarditis) and eyes (scleritis). RA is a cause of anaemia of chronic disease (ACD), which is mediated by IL-6 produced by macrophages. IL-6 induces hepcidin production by the liver which has the effect of retaining iron in macrophages (reduced delivery to red blood cells for erythropoiesis) and decreases export from enterocytes (reduced plasma iron levels). Laboratory features of ACD include a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, rouleaux formation and raised ferritin (acute phase protein).
47
``` A Temporal arteritis B Renal cell carcinoma C Colorectal cancer D Rheumatoid arthritis E Miliary tuberculosis F Acute pancreatitis G Schistosomiasis H Sarcoidosis I Epstein–Barr infection ``` A 45-year-old man presents to accident and emergency with an excruciating headache. Blood tests show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 110 mm/hour.
A Temporal arteritis Temporal arteritis (A) is a vasculitis most commonly affecting the medium and large arteries of the head. It is also known as giant cell arteritis due to the inflammatory cells that are visualized on biopsy. Prominent temporal arteries with regional tenderness, coupled with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of more than 60 mm/hour is highly suggestive of temporal arteritis. ESR may be raised due to increase plasma proteins (fibrinogen, acute phase proteins or immunoglobulin) or due to reduced packing of red blood cells (anaemia). Other causes of a raised ESR include myeloma, polymyalgia rheumatica and autoimmune disease.
48
``` A Temporal arteritis B Renal cell carcinoma C Colorectal cancer D Rheumatoid arthritis E Miliary tuberculosis F Acute pancreatitis G Schistosomiasis H Sarcoidosis I Epstein–Barr infection ``` A 38-year-old man from Nigeria presents to his GP with progressive shortness of breath, cough and painful rashes on his lower legs. Blood tests reveal a monocytosis. Chest X-ray demonstrates bihilar lymphadenopathy.
H Sarcoidosis Sarcoidosis (H) is a granulomatous disease characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs, most commonly affecting the lungs. Diagnosis of sarcoidosis is usually a matter of excluding other diseases but chest X-ray (bihilar lymphadenopathy), CT scanning and lung biopsy can all help. Blood tests commonly reveal a monocytosis; monocytes are contributory to the pathogenesis of granulomatous disease. Other causes of monocytosis include brucellosis, typhoid, varicella zoster infection and chronic myelo-monocytic leukaemia (CMML).
49
``` A Temporal arteritis B Renal cell carcinoma C Colorectal cancer D Rheumatoid arthritis E Miliary tuberculosis F Acute pancreatitis G Schistosomiasis H Sarcoidosis I Epstein–Barr infection ``` A 66-year-old presents to his GP with severe weight loss over 1 month as well as tiredness. Blood tests reveal an increased erythrocyte, haemoglobin and erythropoietin count.
B Renal cell carcinoma Renal cell carcinoma (RCC; B) is the most common type of renal cancer. Secondary polycythaemia may be associated with RCC as a result of increased erythropoietin (EPO) production. Secondary polycythaemia can be distinguished from primary polycythaemia as in the former there is an increase in blood EPO levels, whereas in the latter EPO levels decrease. Other causes of secondary polycythaemia include chronic hypoxia (high altitude, smoking, lung disease, cyanotic heart disease), renal disease (cysts, renal artery stenosis, hydronephrosis) and solid tumours (renal cell carcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma).
50
``` A Temporal arteritis B Renal cell carcinoma C Colorectal cancer D Rheumatoid arthritis E Miliary tuberculosis F Acute pancreatitis G Schistosomiasis H Sarcoidosis I Epstein–Barr infection ``` A 24-year-old man has recently returned from a trip to Kenya. He presents to his GP with abdominal pain, fever and on examination has hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal a marked eosinophilia.
G Schistosomiasis Schistosomiasis (G) is a parasitic disease caused by Schistosoma spp. It is particularly common in Asia, Africa and South America. The risk of bladder cancer is increased in urinary forms of schistosomiasis. The immune response to parasitic infection involves eosinophils and hence a marked eosinophilia is characteristic. Other causes of eosinophilia besides parasitic infection include allergic disease (asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, polyarteritis), neoplasms (Hodgkin’s lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma) as well as certain drugs (NSAIDs).