Haematology Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

What is methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Haemaglobin which has been oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. There is usually small amounds but methaemoglobinaema is when too much forms, When this happens oxygen cannot bind and it leads to tissue hypoxia. This happens when there is a lack of the enzymes that convert metheomoglobin to normal haemagolin.

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2
Q

What causes methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Congenital - problem with the synthesis of cytochromone B5 reductase. There are two types.
Acquired - exposure to substances such an benzocain, dapsone and nitrates. These medicines act as oxidants which creates more methaemoglibin

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of acquired methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Presents acutely - cyanosis (when methhaemoglobin 15%)
Headaches
Seizures, breathlessess, Palpitations, MI
Levels over 70% are usually fatal

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4
Q

How is methaemoglobinaemia diagnosed?

A

Blood is a brown colour
Low sats with Normal partial pressure of O2
Multiple wavelengh co oximeter

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5
Q

How to do treat acquired methaemoglobinaemia

A

Oxygen and IV methylene blue

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6
Q

What are the two types of congenital methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Type 1: Cytochrome B5 reductase in absent in only in red cells (methaemoglobinaemia are between 10 - 15%)
Type 2: Cytochrome B5 reductase in absent in all cells (methaemoglobinaemia levels are over 35%)

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7
Q

What is acute intermittent porphyria?

A

A rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobillinogen deaminase - an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. This results in toxic accumulation of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobillinogen. It presents eith abdominal and neuropsyhciatric symptoms in 20 - 40 year olds.

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8
Q

How do you diagnose acute intermittent porphyria?

A
  • Urine turns red on standing
  • Raised urinary porphobilinogen (higher during attacks)
  • Porphibilinogen deaminase raised on a red cell assay.
  • Riased serum levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
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9
Q

What are the types of sickle cell crisis?

A

Thrombotic ‘painful crisis’
Sequestrian - sicling within organs such as the spleen on lungs causes pooling of blood with worsening of anaemia
Acute chest syndrome
Aplastic - caused by parvovirus infection
Haemolytic

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10
Q

Where is the mutation in seen in polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK 2 gene mutation - causes this gene to be always activated and cause unchecked red blood cell production. After a period of time scarring occurs (spent phase) and the bone marrow is not able to produce blood cells - this is called myelofibrosis

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11
Q

What is the treatment for polycythaemia rubra vera

A
  1. Venesection
  2. Hydroyurea
  3. Ruxolitinib (JAK 2 Inhibitor)
  4. Aspirin
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12
Q

What can polycyethaemia vera progress to?

A

Myelofibrosis and AML (5 - 15%)

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13
Q

What does the BCR ABL gene code for?

A

A fusion protein which has excess tyrosine kinase activity

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14
Q

What is the most common gene mutation see in CML?

A

Philidelphia chromosone (translocation between chromosone 9 and 22)

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15
Q

What is the first line treatment for CML?

A

Imatinib - inhibits the tyrosine kinase acssociated with the BCR ABL defect

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16
Q

What is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia in the UK?

A

Factor V Leiden (activated protein C resistance)

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17
Q

What is factor V Leiden disease?

A

A mutation in the factor V Leiden protein. It means that activated factor V (clotting factor) is inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. Hetrozygotes have a 4 -5 x increase risk of VTE. Homozygtes have a 10 x increase

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18
Q

Are auer rods seen in the blood film of AML or ALL?

A

AML

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19
Q

What is the treatment for acute promyelocytic leukemia?

A

All trans retinoic acid (ATRA) vitamin A derivitive

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20
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor in AML?

A

Cytogenetics - deletion of chromosome 5 or 7 have a poor prognosis
Being over 60 and having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemo are also poor prognostic factors

21
Q

What translocation is associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia

22
Q

What is the treatment for qcute chest syndrome in sickle cell patients?

A

Oxygen
IV fluids
Pain relief
Incentive spirometry if rib or chest pain
Antibiotics
Transfusion to be considered in the hypoxic patient.

23
Q

What is thrombotic thromocytopenic purpura?

A

A condition associated with pregnancy where there are abnormally large and sticky multimers of von willebrands factor which causes platelets to clump within vessels. This causes a low platelet count, low haemaglobin and kidney, heart and brain dysfunction.

24
Q

What is the treatment for Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Plasma exchange
Steroids
Immunosuppressants
Vincristine

25
What is sideroblastic anaemia?
Red blood cells fail to completely for haem and this causes deposits of iron in the mitochondria that forms a ring around the nucleus called a ring sideroblast
26
What are the causes of sideroblastic anaemia?
Myelodysplasia Alcohol Lead ANti TB medication Also can be congenital (detla aminolevulinate synthase 2 deficiency)
27
What medication might be used for sideroblastic anaemai?
Pyroxidine
28
What is beta thalassaemia?
Genetic condition in which there is a deficiency in the beta globin chains of haemaglobin (can be partial or complete.) Caused by a point mutation. Free alpha chains accumulate in the RBCs and these undergo haemolysis
29
What are the four types of globin chains?
Alpha, beta, gamma and delta
30
How is beta thalassaema inherited?
Autosomal recessive
31
What are the different types of beta thalassaema?
Major and minor
32
What does beta thalassaema major first present and why?
3 - 6 months - up intil then fetal haemaglobin uses up the free alpha chains
33
What are the symptoms of beta thalassaemia major?
``` Fatique Jaundice Pallor SOB Hepatosplenomegaly Growth retardation Haemachromatosis Enlarged forehead and cheekbones ```
34
How do you diagnose beta thalassaemia on a blood film?
Microcytic hypochromic rbc and target cells
35
How do you confirm a diagnosis of beta thalassaemia
Haeamglobin electrophoresis
36
What chromosome is the mutation on in beta thalassaemia?
11
37
What types of haemaglobin is raised in beta thalassaemia minor?
haemaglobin A2
38
What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
Immune mediated reduction in the platelet count. Antibodies are directed against the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
39
What is the diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis if the diagnosis is not clear from blood film and family history?
EMA binding test and the cryohaemolysis test
40
What is the management for a haemaolytic crisis of hereditary spherocytosis?
Supportive - fluids, folic acid and monitoring.
41
What gene translocation is seen in burkitts lymphoma?
c myc (translocation of 8:14)
42
What viral infection is linked to burkitts lymphoma
EBV
43
What gene translocation is seen in follicular lymphoma?
t (14,18) - this increases BCL 2 transcription
44
What gene translocation is seen in mantle cell lymphoma?
t(11, 14)
45
What gene translocation is seen in promyelocytic lymphoma?
t (15,17)
46
What do you see on the blood film of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
Smudge cells (smear cells)
47
What do you see on a blood film of patients with hyposplenism>
target cells and howell jolly bodies
48
When do you see bite cells in the peripheral blood film?
G6PD deficiency