Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Management of iron overload?

A

Deferoxamine

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2
Q

Why is hydroxyurea used in sickle cell disease?

A

Promotes the production of HbF as people with sickle cell disease can’t produce normal haemoglobin.

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3
Q

What is emicizumab?

A

A monoclonal antibody that can independently activate Factor 10 by binding it with Factor 9 therefore no need for Factor 8. Given to children with Haemophilia A.

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4
Q

Which cell has CD19 and CD20 on them?

A

B cells

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5
Q

Which cells have CD2, CD3, CD4 and/or CD8 on them?

A

T cells

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6
Q

What are considered high risk in ALL?

A

Initial WCC>50
Hypodiploid
t(9;22) BCR-ABL
t(v;11q23)
Poor response to initial induction chemotherapy (most powerful prognostic factor)

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7
Q

Good prognostic features in ALL?

A

Hyperdiploid
Trisomy 4, 10
t (21;21) ETV6-RUNX1

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of imatinib/dasatinib in ALL?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibition in Ph+ (t(9,22)) ALL

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9
Q

What is the treatment for AML?

A

High dose cytarabine

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10
Q

What is the characteristic feature seen on histology slides in AML?

A

Auer rods

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11
Q

What is acute promyelocytic leukaemia treated with?

A

ATRA (Retinoic acid - high dose Vitamin A) and arsenic if low risk

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12
Q

Which type of leukaemia has the greatest risk of DIC?

A

APML (FAB M3) - t (15,17)

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13
Q

What would a bilobed nucleus on a histology film suspected of leukaemia be suspicious for?

A

APML

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14
Q

Staging for lymphoma?

A

– Stage I is involvement of a single lymph node region (I) or single extralymphatic site (Ie);
– Stage II is involvement of two or more lymph node regions
on the same side of the diaphragm (II) or of one lymph node region and a contiguous extralymphatic site (IIe);
– Stage III is involvement of lymph node regions on both
sides of the diaphragm, which may include the spleen (IIIs) and/or limited contiguous extralymphatic organ or site (IIIe, IIIes);
– Stage IV is disseminate involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs

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15
Q

5 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of abdominal pain and palpable abdominal mass. Previously presented 2 months earlier with intussusception. Small palpable cervical lymph nodes and RLQ mass palpable on examination?

A

Burkitts Lymphoma

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16
Q

What is the target of Rituximab?

A

CD20 on B cells

17
Q

What is the target of Blinatumomab?

A

Binds to both CD19 (on tumour B cells) and CD3 (on T cells) - Bispecific T cell engager

18
Q

What is the treatment of cytokine release syndrome?

A

Tocilizumab (Anti-IL6)

19
Q

What is the target of brentuximab?

A

Anti-CD30 (Hodgkins lymphoma)

20
Q

What is the treatment in a patient who has just had a stem cell transplant for leukaemia and has presented with weight gain, tender hepatomegaly, jaundice and ascites?

A

Defibrotide -Sinusoidal Occlusion Syndrome

21
Q

What systems are primarily affected in GVH?

A

Skin, liver and GIT

22
Q
A