Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

End Of Year > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

0
Q

Types of macrocytic anaemia and tests

A
  • vit B12 deficiency : serum B12 level
  • folic acid deficiency : RBC folate level
  • liver disease : liver function tests
  • drugs (ARVs)
  • hypothyroidism

Vit b12/ folate deficiency - megaloblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Causes of vit B12 deficiency

A
  • lack of animal product in diet (vegans)
  • pernicious anaemia (lack of IF)
  • gastrectomy
  • stagnant loop
  • tropical sprue
  • ileal resection
  • crohns disease
  • congenital metabolic defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of normocytic anaemia and tests

A
  • anaemia of chronic disease : iron studies
  • renal disease : serum urea and creat
  • haemolytic anaemia : blood film morphology, reticulocyte count
  • BM failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Types of microcytic anaemia and tests

A
  • iron deficiency : iron studies
  • thalassemia : Hb studies
  • sideroblastic anaemia : BM for ring sideroblasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clinical features of anaemia

A
  • tiredness
  • fainting
  • pallor
  • tachycardia
  • SOB
  • weakness
  • palpitations
  • headaches
  • intermittent claudication
  • confusion
  • bounding pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes of folic acid deficiency

A
  • nutritional
  • malabsorption (crohns, jejunal resection)
  • excess utilization (pregnancy, lactation)
  • excess urinary loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia

A
  • chronic blood loss (peptic ulcer, heavy menses)
  • increased demand (preg, premature infants)
  • malabsorption (gastrectomy)
  • undernutrition (poverty)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of raised reticulocyte count

A
  • haemorrhage
  • haemolysis
  • response to treatment of anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Types of hereditary haemolytic anaemia a

A
  • membr disorders (HS)
  • haemoglobinopathies (sickle)
  • enzyme defects (G6PD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Types of acquired haemolytic anaemias

A
  • immune (auto)
  • mechanical (fragmentation syndromes)
  • infections (malaria)
  • drugs (dapsone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lab tests for sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Hb electrophoresis

- suckling test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tests done in iron studies

A
  • serum iron
  • transferrin
  • ferritin
  • % saturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of anaemia

A

A blood Hb concentration below the normal range for age and sex of patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sources of vit B12

A

Meat
Fish
Dairy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary haemostasis

A

The formation of the platelet plug at the site of vessel injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Secondary haemostasis

A

The series of enzymatic reactions in the coag cascade leading to formation of the stable fibrin clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 red cell metabolic pathways

A
  • embden-meyerhoff

- hexose mono phosphate shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristics of embden-meyerhoff pathway

A
  • anaerobic glycolytic
  • metabolized to lactate and ATP
  • ATP provides energy for maintenance of vol, shape and flexibility
  • pyruvate kinase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristics of hexose mono phosphate shunt

A
  • aerobic glycolytic
  • produces NADPH and reduced glutathione
  • protects red cell against oxidative stress
  • G6PD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes for increased EPO production

A
  • anaemia
  • low atmospheric O2
  • defective CVS/pulm function
  • decreased renal circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What influences the clinical features of anaemia?

A
  • speed of onset
  • severity
  • age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RBC parameters in FBC

A
  • red cell count
  • Hb
  • haematocrit
  • MCV (mean cellular vol)
  • MCH (mean cellular Hb)
  • MCHC (mean cellular Hb conc)
  • red cell distribution width
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of anaemia

A
  • decreased production of red cells
  • increased destruction of red cells
  • loss of red cells due to bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Components of anaemia work up

A
  • onset
  • reticulocytes
  • size of red cells
  • peripheral blood smear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Landsteiner’s theory

A

If A or B antigen is present on a red cell, the opposite antigen will be found in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Functions of blood

A
  • carry O2
  • maintain acid-base equilibrium
  • transport of nutrients and hormones
  • transfer of waste products to liver and kidneys
  • coagulation
  • immune surveillance
  • participation in inflam and tissue repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Toti potent stem cells

A

Trophoblast, placenta and embryo

27
Q

Pluripotent stem cells

A

Differentiate into all 3 germ layers

28
Q

Multi potent stem cells

A

Haematopoietic stem cells

29
Q

Functions of the spleen

A
  • pooling
  • culling
  • pitting
  • filtering
  • immune
30
Q

Types of leukocyte disorders

A
  • myoproliferative
  • myelodysplastic
  • lymphoproliferative
31
Q

Haematopoiesis is a complex structure of

A
  • immature and differentiated myeloid and lymphoid lineages
  • marrow micro environment
  • biological cell modifiers
  • myeloid metaplasia into other organs
32
Q

Evidence of Hb breakdown

A
  • jaundice
  • decreased plasma haptoglobin
  • increased plasma LDL
  • haemosiderin in urine
33
Q

How diagnosis of thalassemia is made

A
  • microcytic hypo chromic anaemia
  • normal iron stores
  • Hb electrophoresis shows proportional increase in Hb F and A2
34
Q

Therapy for thalassemia

A
  • blood transfusions
  • iron chelation
  • stem cell transplantation
35
Q

Components of normal haemostasis

A
  • bvs
  • platelets
  • coagulation factors
  • coagulation inhibitors
  • fibronolysis
36
Q

Stages of haemostasis

A
  • vessel injury
  • vasoconstriction
  • platelets adhere and aggregate
  • coag system activates and forms fibrin mesh
  • clot dissolution by fibronolysis
  • endothelial repair
37
Q

Platelet agonists

A
  • collagen
  • adrenalin
  • ADP
  • thrombin
38
Q

Process of platelet activation

A
  • shape change
  • release of granules
  • synthesis of secondary agonist thromboxane A2
  • exposure of procoagulant phospholipids
  • cross linking with fibrin through gp2b3a
39
Q

Natural inhibitors of platelets

A
  • NO
  • prostacyclin
  • ecto-ADPase
40
Q

Anti platelet drugs

A
  • asprin
  • clopidogrel (ADP receptor agonist)
  • abxicimab
  • dioryridamole
41
Q

Von willebrands factor binds

A
  • collagen
  • platelets
  • factor 8
42
Q

Process of primary haemostasis

A
  • injury of endo exposes subendo
  • vWF binds subendo and unravels to linear form
  • exposes binding sites for adhesive glycoproteins of platelets
  • platelets adhere and firm adhesion
  • platelets exposed to agonists and activation
  • further platelets adhere
  • cross linking with fibrin and fibrinogen
  • unstable platelet plug
43
Q

Where are pro-enzymes for coag cascade produced

A

In the liver

44
Q

What happens in post translational modification of enzymes of coag cascade?

A
  • 2nd carboxyl group added to glutamic acid residues
45
Q

Role of co-factors in coag cascade

A
  • facilitate interaction of enzyme and substrate on phospholipid surface
  • need calcium
46
Q

Structure of fibrinogen

A
  • central globular domain with 2 lateral short tails
  • short peptide chains extend out of globular domain
  • fibrin formed when these are cleaved off
  • expose sticky site for tails of other fibrin mol to stick to
47
Q

Phases of cell based model

A
  • initiation
  • amplification
  • propagation
48
Q

Action of warfarin

A
  • inhibits vit K epoxied reductase enzyme

- vit K trapped in inactive for.

49
Q

Action of heparin

A
  • binds anti thrombin and enhances activity

- reversed by protamine sulphate

50
Q

Lifespan of a red blood cell

A

120 days

51
Q

Process of erythropoiesis

A
  • haemopoietic stem cell
  • Burst forming unit erythroid
  • colony forming unit erythroid
  • pronormoblast
  • mature in BM and nucleus extrudes
  • released as reticulocytes
52
Q

Where EPO produced

A

Peritubular interstitial cells of kidney and 10%liver

53
Q

Clues to sudden onset anaemia

A
  • hemodynamic instability
  • comparisons with previous FBC results
  • history of overt blood loss
54
Q

Structure of a reticulocyte

A
  • red cell at stage where lost nucleus but still has residual RNA
  • stain blue-gray with supravital stain
  • if many are present, term polychromasia used
55
Q

Why reticulocyte count is usefulness

A
  • normally if Hb is low, EPO drived BM to prod more red blood cells
  • if reticulocyte count not increased in patients with anaemia, could mean BM not working or EPO synthesis impaired
56
Q

Definition of ansiocytosis

A

Difference in sizes of RBC

57
Q

Appearance of megaloblastic anaemia

A
  • ansiocytosis
  • oval macrocytes
  • hyper segmented neutrophils
58
Q

Purpose of indirect antiglobulin test

A

Detects free antibodies in serum

59
Q

Process of IAT

A
  • recipient’s serum obtained
  • donor’s blood sample added
  • recipients Igs that target donor’s RBCs form antibody/antigen complexes
  • anti-human Igs (Coombs antibodies) are added
  • if positive, agglutination of RBCs occurs because human Igs attached to RBCs
60
Q

Genetic change in sickle cell

A

Substitution of valine for glutamic acid on Hb chain

61
Q

Chromosome affected in thalassemia

A

Chromosome 11

62
Q

How G6PD deficiency is diagnosed

A
  • bite and blister cells
  • Heinz bodies
  • fluorescence spot test
  • ascorbate cyanide test
63
Q

Pathophysiology of hereditary spherocytosis

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • defect in protein spectrin
  • involved in interaction between membrane skeleton and lipid bilayer of RBCs
  • loss of membrane
64
Q

Causes of spherocytosis

A
  • autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • clostridium infection
65
Q

Describe the absorption of vit b12

A
  • dietary vit B12 combines with intrinsic factor

- complex binds with specific receptor in the distal ileum

End Of Year (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions