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PEDs Exam 1 > Growth and Development of a Newborn > Flashcards

Growth and Development of a Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

How long do we consider a baby to be a newborn?

A

for the first 30 days of life

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2
Q

When do we check APGAR scores?

A

initially after birth and then 5 minutes later

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3
Q

What score does the newborn have to get on the APGAR to get the “okay?”

A

> 7

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4
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

What is the highest # the newborn can get for each letter?

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respirations
--2
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5
Q

T/F: Peripheral cyanosis is okay within the first 18 hours of birth.

A

False- it is only okay for the first 12 hours of the newborns life

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6
Q

-Periods of Reactivity-

What are the 2 time periods in the first reactivity period?

A

30-60 minutes

1-4 hours

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7
Q

-Period of Reactivity-

What is the newborn doing in the first reactivity period during the 30-60 min time after delivery?

A

the newborn is alert and interested in the environment

-full term infant may breast-feed during this time

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8
Q

-Period of Reactivity-
What is the newborn doing in the first reactivity period during the 1-4 hour time after delivery?
-Why should vitals be closely monitored?

A

the newborn is sleepy and relatively calm

-all systems slow down and temperature falls

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9
Q

-Periods of Reactivity-

When does the second reactivity period take place?

A

occurs when the infant wakes up from first deep sleep

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10
Q

-Period of Reactivity-

How long does the second reactivity period last, and what is the newborn doing during this time?

A

lasts 2-5 hours

the newborn is alert and responsive

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11
Q

What is the primary thing done right after birth that initiates Erikson’s Psychosocial Development of trust vs mistrust?

A

skin to skin

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12
Q

The neonate normally loses __% of birth weight by age 3 or 4 days.

A

10%

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13
Q

Tracts that develop myelin first are _____ and _____ tracts.

A

sensory and cerebral

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14
Q

All newborn senses are very acute, except for _____.

A

sight

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15
Q

T/F: Newborns can see color, so using black and white contrast is not necessary.

A

False: newborns can only see light and dark, so black and white is best

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16
Q

What position helps promote bonding?

A

enface position

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17
Q

Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended until what age; however, continued breastfeeding after foods are introduced are encouraged to at least what age?

A

6 months; 1 year

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18
Q

Newborns have deficiency of ________ lipase for fat absorption, making cow’s milk indigestible.

A

pancreatic

19
Q

T/F: If a newborn is given formula, iron fortified is best.

A

True

20
Q

Breast milk contains vitamin D, but may not have levels sufficient to prevent _____? this is very rare.

A

Rickets

21
Q

Recommended is for breastfed infants to receive vitamin D (___ IU/day) supplementation if exclusively breastfed or receiving less than ____ mL D-fortified formula/day.

A

400; 1000

22
Q

What are the 5 most important things that promote successful breastfeeding?

A
  1. ) Frequent and early breast-feeding (within first hour of life is important!)
  2. ) Promotion of skin-to-skin contact
  3. ) Correct positioning of infant at breast
  4. ) Feeding-on-demand schedule (1st few weeks of life!)
  5. ) Baby-friendly hospital initiative
23
Q

How many times does a newborn eat in a 24 hour period?

A

8-12 times

24
Q

What two risk factors are common if bottle propping occurs?

A
  1. ) risk of aspiration r/t baby drinking to quickly

2. ) risk for tooth decay

25
Q

How many diapers are common for each day of life until day 5 or 6?

A

one

26
Q

After the first week of life how many diapers are common per day?

A

6-10

27
Q

How many voids are common for the second week of life initially?

A

5-6

28
Q

For bottle fed babies how many stools are common?

A

one stool every 2-3 days

29
Q

How many stools are common for breastfeeding babies?

A

2-3/day

30
Q

If the baby is formula fed what is a risk when it comes to the number of stools?

A

constipation

31
Q

What color are breastfeeding babies’ stools?

A

yellow

32
Q

What is the acronym used for how a baby should sleep and what does it stand for?

A

ABC; Alone on my Back in a Crib

33
Q

What are the 6 common things used to prevent sudden unexpected infant death (SUID)…r/t sleep

A
  1. ) spine position for first year
  2. ) in parents room rather than in their bed until at least six months
  3. ) firm mattress
  4. ) no soft or loose bedding
  5. ) avoid overheating
  6. ) young infants should not be put to sleep in car seats
34
Q

Inconsolable crying that lasts 3 hours or longer per day and for which there is no physical cause?

A

colic

35
Q

When does colic usually resolve?

A

3 months

36
Q

What are 4 common things the typically help with colic?

A
  1. ) frequent burping
  2. ) formula modification
  3. ) warmth to abdomen
  4. ) cuddling and closeness
37
Q

What are two life threatening possibilities that could occur from colic?

A
  1. ) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

2. ) shaken baby syndrome

38
Q

What occurs during the 1/2week visit?

4

A
  • weight (may have some weight loss, but need to see weight gain at next visit)
  • feeding, voiding, stooling
  • discuss how the parents are feeling and how things are going in the home (postpartum depression , shaken baby syndrome)
  • assess attachment assess for any colic symptoms
39
Q

What education should occur during the 1/2 week visit?

4

A
  • never leave infant alone with pet or sibling
  • warm formula/ EBM in Cup of water or bottle warmer, never in a microwave
  • water below 120degrees
  • car seats in the back, rear facing
40
Q

What are some causes for weight loss after the 1/2 week visit?
(5)

A
  • could be a latching problem
  • tongue tied
  • attachment issues
  • postpartum depression
  • common need of further formula teaching or a change in formula
41
Q

What is the normal neonate vital sign for temperature?

A

36.3 to 37 degrees Celsius (97.3 to 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit)

42
Q

What is the normal heart rate for neonate?

A

120-160

43
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a neonate?

A

30-60

PEDs Exam 1 (7 decks)

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