Gross Lec1 Pg 1-20 Flashcards

1
Q

the smallest functional unit of the myofibril that anatomically runs from one Z-line to the next Z-Line.

A

the sarcomere

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2
Q

the amount of sarcoplasm in the muscle fibers can be used to visually designate the muscles into two types?

A

Red (Dark) type 1 fibers

White (light) type 2 fibers

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2
Q

fewer capillary beds, fast twitch muscles

A

type 2 fibers (white)

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2
Q

The large dark areas of myofilaments

A

A-Bands

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3
Q

Which contractile protein is found primarily in the A-Bands.

A

Myosin

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4
Q

working to exhaustion to deplete the stored glycogen in muscles is what day of the carb loading method?

A

day 1

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5
Q

What does ATP stand for?

A

adenosine-tri-phosphate

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6
Q

the main protein elements of the skeletal muscle fibers and consist of actin and myosin?

A

contractile proteins

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7
Q

the phase of exercise where lactic acid can accumulate with the fibers?

A

phase three

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8
Q

the red protein pigment found in the sarcoplasm of the fiber

A

the myoglobin

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9
Q

<p>a protein pigment that is almost indistinguishable from the hemoglobin of red blood cells?</p>

A

<p>myoglobin</p>

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9
Q

the thin dark line down the center of each H-Band?

A

M-Bands

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9
Q

when skeletal muscle fibers have run out of ATP and the sarcoplasmic reticulum is unable to remove calcium ions from the myofibrils its known as? occurs after death.

A

Rigor Mortis

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9
Q

<p>Rigor Mortis causes a build up of calcium ions in myofibrils which trigger a?</p>

A

<p>sustained contraction, with the absence of ATP myosin and actin cannot detach causing the muscle to be Locked in that position.</p>

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10
Q

the process of an anaerobic pathway that uses glycogen is known as?

A

glycolysis, which a very quick process of creating energy but bogs down due to By-products.

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11
Q

Muscles, bones and joint combined form what system of the body?

A

The musculoskeletal system which is responsible for movement

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12
Q

<p>A grouping of muscle fibers into bundles is known as?</p>

A

<p>Fasciculi</p>

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12
Q

the five bands of myofilaments?

A

I-Band, the light areas
A-Band, the dark areas
H-Band, light area in the middle of each dark band
M-Bands, thin dark line down center of H-Bands
Z-Lines, thin dark line in the middle of each I-Band

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13
Q

<p>large amounts of sarcoplasm and myoglobin, and extensive capillary beds</p>

A

<p>type 1 fibers</p>

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13
Q

the anaerobic pathway depends on what two substances to produce ATP?

A

creatine phosphate and glycogen.

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14
Q

<p>fatty acids are the preferred by this pathway to produce ATP?</p>

A

<p>aerobic pathway</p>

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14
Q

<p>which phase of exercise only lasts a few minutes and creatine phosphate and glycogen are primary fuel sources?</p>

A

<p>phase one using anaerobic metabolism</p>

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15
Q

what are the two places where glycogen is usually stored?

A

either in muscle fibers or liver cells

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16
Q

exact definition of Contractility

A

The basic property of skeletal muscle and enables an individual to produce movement

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17
Q

<p>Several hundred to hundreds of thousands of muscle fibers exist inside what?</p>

A

<p>An individual muscle</p>

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18
Q

The three movement functions of skeletal muscle?

A

Enables us to move from place to place
Moves air in and out of our lungs
Moves body contents during digestion

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19
Q

<p>type 1 muscle fibers will be found in a higher proportion in what type of Runner?</p>

A

<p> a marathon or endurance runner</p>

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19
Q

<p>an increase of calcium permability can be caused by the use of what ergogenic method?</p>

A

<p>the use of caffeine</p>

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20
Q

when muscles size increases due to muscle fiber size increase it is known as?

A

hypertrophy

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21
Q

<p>The synergistic relationship of skeletal muscles, respiratory, digestive and circulatory muscles provides the body with sources of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>Energy and nourishment</p>

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21
Q

<p>the binding of calcium with troponin actually changes the shape of what neaby molecule?</p>

A

<p>tropomyosin changes shape, exposing the myosin binding site. allowing the myosin to interact with this actin based molecule.</p>

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21
Q

<p>feeling light headed, dizzy and lethargic are side effects of what Ergogenic method?</p>

A

<p>carbohydrate or glycogen loading</p>

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22
Q

<p>how many grams of water are there for every gram of glycogen?</p>

A

<p>3 grams water for every 1 gram glycogen</p>

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23
Q

<p>what is the cell membrane of a muscle fiber?</p>

A

<p>sarcolemma</p>

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24
Q

<p>the four risks of blood doping/erythocythemia</p>

A

<p>rashes and fevers
acute hemolysis (breakdown of RBCs)
transmission of viruses
fluid overload lead to kidney damage and intravascular blood clotting</p>

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25
Q

<p>The specific function of the skeletal muscle is the production of voluntary movement, is known as?</p>

A

<p>Contractility </p>

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26
Q

<p>numerous mitochondria, atrophy with immobilization</p>

A

<p>type 1 fibers</p>

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27
Q

<p>What are the three layers of connective tissue from largest to smallest?</p>

A

<p>Epimysium, dense and surround whole muscle
Perimysium, surround each fasciculi
Endomysium, surround each individual fiber</p>

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28
Q

<p>the tendon is a continuation of the?</p>

A

<p>epimysium</p>

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29
Q

<p>the released binds with what molecules on the actin filament?</p>

A

<p>troponin</p>

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30
Q

<p>fewer mitochondria, more glycogen/fewer fatty acids</p>

A

<p>type 2 fibers</p>

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31
Q

<p>what is formed from longitudinally orientated bundles of thick and thin myofilaments?</p>

A

<p>Myofibrils</p>

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33
Q

<p>this connective tissue surrounds each individual muscle fiber?</p>

A

<p>The endomysium</p>

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33
Q

<p>from birth to adult, muscles may increase there diameter how many times?</p>

A

<p>10x larger</p>

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34
Q

<p>the light areas in the middle of each dark band?</p>

A

<p>H-Bands</p>

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35
Q

<p>type 2 fibers are utilized for what type of activities?</p>

A

<p>quick, more powerful activities such as sprinting or weight lifting</p>

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35
Q

<p>myoglobin stores the needed oxygen the fibers utilize for?</p>

A

<p>metabolism</p>

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35
Q

<p>the phase of exercise where you will see a shift in metabolism to the more efficient aerobic metabolism that uses fatty acids to produce ATP</p>

A

<p>Phase Two. caffeine can speed this transition up</p>

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36
Q

<p>muscles of weight lifters and sprinters contain a higher proportion of what muscle type?</p>

A

<p>type 2 fibers (white)</p>

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36
Q

<p>The pathway that creates more energy than is needed for the production of ATP and excess energy becomes heat for Homeostasis!?</p>

A

<p>Aerobic metabolism (pathway)</p>

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38
Q

<p>The three types of communication made possible by skeletal muscles?</p>

A

<p>Speech
Facial expression
Writing</p>

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38
Q

<p>atrophy with aging, fatigues easier</p>

A

<p>type 2 fibers</p>

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40
Q

<p>

| What is myology?</p>

A

<p>

| The branch of anatomy which deals with the muscular system?</p>

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41
Q

<p>as much as twenty percent of the glycogen store din the muscle may be used during this phase?</p>

A

<p>the first phase, glycogen creates instant energy but can only last a short time</p>

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43
Q

<p>What is the basic structural unit of a muscle fiber?</p>

A

<p>myofibril (cell)</p>

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44
Q

<p>The proteins troponin and tropomyosin which act to inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin are known as?</p>

A

<p>regulatory proteins</p>

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44
Q

<p>mental acuity may suffer and judgement might be impaired (though to be due to hypoglycemia) are side effects of what ergogenic method?</p>

A

<p>carbohydrate or glycogen loading</p>

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46
Q

<p>slow twitch muscles, and fatigues resistant</p>

A

<p>type 1 muscle fibers</p>

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46
Q

<p>which contractile protein is found mainly in the I-Bands?</p>

A

<p>Actin</p>

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47
Q

<p>tubular cavities/invaginations of the sarcolemma which allow electrical impulses to enter the muscle fiber and reach myofibrils.</p>

A

<p>the transverse T-Tubules (T-System)</p>

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49
Q

<p>The delicate connective tissue sheath which surrounds each individual muscle fiber and connects it to adjacent muscle fibers?</p>

A

<p>The endomysium. </p>

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50
Q

<p>When fasciculi are grouped together it forms the?</p>

A

<p>Individual muscle</p>

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52
Q

<p>What tissue connects muscle to bone or other structures?</p>

A

<p>Connective tissue connect muscle to bone by way of tendons and Sharpey's Fibers.</p>

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54
Q

<p>intermediate fibers have a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ resistance to fatigue but histologically resembles type \_\_\_ fibers?</p>

A

<p>greater resistance to fatigue and resembles type 2 fibers</p>

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56
Q

<p>posture maintaining, ocular, respiratory, and masticatory muscles are what type of muscle?</p>

A

<p>type 1 fiber (dark)</p>

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58
Q

<p>The three levels of structural muscle organization? Largest to smallest</p>

A

<p>Individual muscle
Fasciculi
Muscle fibers</p>

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59
Q

<p>the system of interaction between myosin and actin could not happen without what molecule?</p>

A

<p>ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate) the famous energy supplier of the body.</p>

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60
Q

<p>what type of muscle is associated with anaerobic metabolism?</p>

A

<p>type 2 fibers (light)</p>

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62
Q

<p>Skeletal muscle can produce what percentage of our body heat?</p>

A

<p>85% </p>

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64
Q

<p>the fibers with characteristics between type 1 and type 2 muscles are known as?</p>

A

<p>intermediate fibers</p>

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66
Q

<p>The main job of skeletal muscle wouldn't be possible without stimuli from what body system?</p>

A

<p>The nervous system supplies the stimuli for movement</p>

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67
Q

<p>how long will Rigor Mortis last?</p>

A

<p>til enzymes break down the myofilaments</p>

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68
Q

<p>the increase in size due an actual increase in muscle fibers is known as?</p>

A

<p>hyperplasia</p>

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69
Q

<p>the continuous breakdown and reconstruction of ATP results in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of muscle.</p>

A

<p>the movement. ATP is the seemingly the fundamental reason behind everything...</p>

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70
Q

<p>the breakdown of adenosine-tri-phosphate into adenosine-di-phosphate provides the body with what?</p>

A

<p>ENERGY!!!!!! and a relatively large amount of heat. sometimes used for homeostasis!</p>

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71
Q

<p>the urinary threshold for competing athletes is 1000mg of what substance?</p>

A

<p>caffenine set by the International Olympic Committe</p>

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72
Q

<p>does it require less ATP to relax a muscle than it does to contract?</p>

A

<p>no it requires the same amount.</p>

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72
Q

<p>the phase where muscles transitions to the anaerobic metabolism to produce ATP utilizing the rest of the glycogen reserves?</p>

A

<p>phase three</p>

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74
Q

<p>what is the contractile apparatus of the muscle fibers that are formed from myofilaments?</p>

A

<p>Myofibrils are the contractile apparatus</p>

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75
Q

<p>each myofibril is composed of numerous units known as?</p>

A

<p>the sarcomere</p>

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76
Q

<p>the use of glycogen to produce energy is quick but gets bogged down quickly by what by-product?</p>

A

<p>lactic acid will quickly buildup by the glycolysis process</p>

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78
Q

<p>What type of muscle is found around eyelids, pupils, and mouth?</p>

A

<p>Sphincter muscles. They control the admission of light and food.</p>

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78
Q

<p>when myosin and actin interact with each other they create?</p>

A

<p>they create movement </p>

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80
Q

<p>The thin dark line in the middle of each I-Band</p>

A

<p>Z-Lines</p>

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81
Q

<p>Skeletal muscle makes up about what percent of the total body weight?</p>

A

<p>40 to 50 percent</p>

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83
Q

<p>true or false.

| large amounts of connective tissue will make muscles very tough</p>

A

<p>true</p>

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84
Q

<p>a localized increase ability to synthesize glycogen in a depleted muscle group is a result of what Ergogenic method?</p>

A

<p>glycogen or carbohydrate loading</p>

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85
Q

<p>the large light areas of myofilaments</p>

A

<p>I-bands</p>

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86
Q

<p>the extremely long, multinucleated muscle fiber has nuclei arranged where?</p>

A

<p>the periphery of the muscle fiber(cell)</p>

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87
Q

<p>each fiber contains dozens to hundreds of contractile units known as?</p>

A

<p>myofibrils</p>

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88
Q

<p>an elaborate, continuous tubular network interlaced with myofibrils and stores/transport calcium ions></p>

A

<p>the sarcoplasmic reticulum</p>

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89
Q

<p>the type of fibers found in places where long, sustained or continued contractions are required?</p>

A

<p>type 1 fiber (dark) (red)</p>

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90
Q

<p>the first substance used by the anaerobic pathway to allow the muscle to move immediately?</p>

A

<p>creatine phosphate, as there is always a small amount of creatine stored in the muscle fibers</p>

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92
Q

<p>when muscles fibers are subjected to overloading, which induces injury to individual fibers and followed by a regenerative period. this causes in increase in what?</p>

A

<p>increases the actual number of muscle fibers </p>

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93
Q

<p>an Ergogenic procedure to increase the oxygen carrying capacity of red blood cells.</p>

A

<p>Blood Doping or Induced Erythrocythemia</p>

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94
Q

<p>intermediate fibers contract faster than type \_\_\_ and slower than type \_\_\_.</p>

A

<p>faster than type 1 but slower than type 2</p>

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96
Q

the increase in size of the individual muscle is usually due to an increase in?

A

increase of the individual muscle fiber (myofibril)

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97
Q

(no exercise and eat a diet high in carbohydrates) is what day of the carb loading method?

A

day 5-7

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99
Q

<p>Skeletal muscle is considered an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, composed of all\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ types.
</p>

A

Organ, tissue

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99
Q

Connective tissue binds what two levels of muscle together?

A

Muscle fibers and fasciculi

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101
Q

a dietary manipulation to increase the store of glycogen in the muscle fibers

A

glycogen of carbohydrate loading

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102
Q

what stimulates the release of calcium from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum?

A

the nerve impulse from the Transverse Tubules (T-Tubules)

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103
Q

A more dense layer which surround each fasciculi and thus divides the muscle into a series of separate compartments?

A

Perimysium

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104
Q

exercising and eat a diet mainly high in fats and proteins (very few carbs) is what day of the carb loading method?

A

day 2-4

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105
Q

the second substance used by the anaerobic pathway?

A

glycogen

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106
Q

the ergogenic procedure that increases the concentration of red blood cells is known as?

A

blood doping or Erythrocythemia

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107
Q

fatty acids are stored in the body as ________ ________ and released into the blood during __________?

A

fatty acids are stored as triglycerides and are released during exercise

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108
Q

the more efficient ( way to produce ATP in a muscle fiber that takes place in the mitochondria?

A

aerobic metabolism (pathway)

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109
Q

The muscle system depends of the integumentary system for what two functions?

A

Protection

Elimination of heat produced by muscular contractions

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110
Q

the undifferentiated cytolasm between the myofibrils and the other organelles of the muscle fiber, is known as?

A

the Sarcoplasm

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111
Q

myoglobin has a _________ affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin?

A

greater affinity

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112
Q

type 1 muscle fibers have relatively higher levels of continuous metabolic and thus us what type of metabolism?

A

endurance muscles are associated with aerobic metabolism

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113
Q

The non-conctractile framework made up of connective tissue known as tendons, allows the contraction of a muscle fiber to be transmitted where?

A

transmits the muscle contraction (To the bone.)

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114
Q

the tough, specialized membrane that each fiber is contained in?

A

the sarcolemma

115
Q

an ergogenic method that burns fatty acids more efficiently by making it easier to release them into the blood.

A

use of caffeine. would need two cups in one hour

116
Q

Connective tissue provides a route for ________ and ______ _______ to reach the muscle fiber?

A

Nerves and blood vessels

117
Q

The two stability functions of skeletal muscles?

A

Maintain posture

Hold articulated bones in place

118
Q

exercise may increase muscle size an average of?

A

25%

119
Q

regulatory proteins recognize calcium as the signal to do what?

A

calcium is the signal to allow actin and myosin to interact with each other

120
Q

the synthetic method to increase red blood cell concentration.

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

121
Q

Erythropoietin is a naturally occuring hormone produced in what organ?

A

the kidneys

122
Q

A ergogenic method where a synthetic hormone triggers the bone marrow to produce more Red Blood Cells than normal

A

erythropoietin

123
Q

this synthetic hormone that was originally produced for patients with certain types of anemia?

A

erythropoietin

124
Q

an ergogenic drug that can thicken the blood to dangerously high levels and lead to possible cardiac problems?

A

erythropoietin

125
Q

anabolic steroids are a synthetic form of what male hormone?

A

testosterone

126
Q

the stimulation of protein synthesis and thus the induction of growth, refers to?

A

anabolic effects of testosterone

127
Q

the development of the secondary sexual characteristics refers to the ____________ effects of testosterone.

A

androgenic

128
Q

anabolic steroids were developed to try and separate the ________ effects of testosterone from the ____________ effects.

A

anabolic from the androgenic

129
Q

the three ways steroids can be administered

A

oil based injections
water based pills
patches/gels

130
Q

the type of steroid application that has fewer side effects but are detectable for several months

A

oil based

131
Q

the type of steroid that has the most side effects and cleared form the system in 3 to 4 weeks?

A

water based, pill form

132
Q

the method of steroid cycle that involves several forms of the drug (oil and water based)

A

stacking

133
Q

describe the pyramid method of steroid use?

A

start with low dosage, raises to a peak, then begins to taper down.

134
Q

a typical steroid cycle lasts ___to____ weeks and can be as high as 500X higher than the therapeutic dosage

A

6 to 8 weeks

135
Q

short term side effects of steroids

A

headaches, dizziness, acne, testicle shrinkage, aggressiveness

136
Q

the two more serious short term side effects of steroid use?

A

gynecomastia and tendon damage

137
Q

the development of breast tissue is known as?

A

gynecomastia (liver converts steroids into a type of estrogen)

138
Q

anabolic steroids have no known effect on increasing the ____ of tendons>

A

size of tendons

some studies show that anabolic steroids might inhibit the formation of collagen..

139
Q

tendons respond very _____ to strength regimes

A

they respond very slowly to strength regimes which is a contributing factor to their increase in damage during steroid use

140
Q

the long term side effects that may be caused by steroid use?

A

cardiovascular, digestive (liver), reproductive (prostate) and endocrine systems

141
Q

short term side effects found only in women?

A
increase in clitoris size
decrease of mammary glands
development of facial hair
deepening of the voice
tendon damage
142
Q

adolescents can have a premature closing of the growth plates when taking what performance enhancing drug?

A

steroids!

143
Q

anabolic steroids work physiologically by?

A
  1. increasing secretions of growth hormone

2. activates protein synthesis and prevents protein breakdown

144
Q

three legitimate reasons a physician would prescribe the use of an anabolic steroid

A
  1. restore hormonal levels in males with low testosterone
  2. improve mood and alleviate depression
  3. stimulate appetite in cancerous or chronically ill, also to increase body weight and muscle mass
145
Q

the chemical composition of muscle

A

75% water
20% protein
5% other

146
Q

true or false?

each muscle is provided with a motor and sensory nerve fiber.

A

true

147
Q

motor nerves transmit __________ impulses from the CNS to each individual muscle fiber

A

Efferent or motor impulses.

148
Q

when a group of muscles moves at the same time its known as?

A

the motor unit

149
Q

true or false

in a normal functioning muscle, an individual muscle fiber will never contract independently

A

true, several fibers will contract at the same time, all being supplied by branches of one spinal nerve.

150
Q

what is the smallest part of the muscle which can contract independently?

A

the motor unit

151
Q

the strength of a muscle contraction is due to what?

A

the number of motor units being activated or recruited

152
Q

what is an indication of how precise a motor unit is?

A

the size of the motor unit (number of fibers in a unit)

153
Q

precision types of activities contain motor units with _________ number of fibers compared to non-precise control?

A

precision movements require fewer fibers in their motor unit

154
Q

motor units that can contain thousands of motor fibers are for what type of activities?

A

non-precision

155
Q

the first anatomical division of a motor unit?

A
  1. unit originates in motor neuron in the ventral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord or brain stem
156
Q

the second anatomical divisions of a motor unit

A

2> it continues as the spinal nerves and named peripheral nerve

157
Q

the third anatomical division of the motor unit?

A

the neuromuscular junction

158
Q

the fourth and final anatomical division of the motor unit?

A

the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber (terminal end of the unit)

159
Q

beginning to end. the four anatomical divisions of a motor unit?

A
  1. unit originates in soinal cord or brain stem
    2> continues as spinal nerve (PNS)
  2. hits the neurmuscular junction
  3. then hits the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber
160
Q

the neuromuscular junction is a physiologically, biochemically, and clinically complex portion of?

A

the motor unit and is divided into three sections

161
Q

what are the three divisions of the neuromuscular junction?

A

presynaptic portion: the nerve fiber ending
postsynaptic: sarcolemma of the muscle fiber
synaptic cleft: space between the pre and post synaptic portions

162
Q

what happens when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction?

A

the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released

this is the first step of nerve impulse traveling from pre to post synaptic portion

163
Q

ACH will diffuse across the synaptic cleft where it will bnd to a specific receptor site located where?

A

the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber

second step of pre to post portion nerve impulse

164
Q

the binding of ACH to its specific receptor site will set off an action potential down the transverse tubules which causes what interaction?

A

the interaction of actin and myosin causing a muscle contraction

third step in pre to post nerve impulse

165
Q

ACH is broken down into acetate and choline by what enzyme?

A

aacetylcholinesterase (ACHe)

fourth and final step of pre to post nerve impulse through neuromuscular junction

166
Q

what is the most common neuromuscular junction disorder and is an example of an autoimmune disorder?

A

myasthenia gravis

167
Q

the autoimmune disorder where the body produces antibodies that attack the ACH binding sites of the sarcolemma of muscle fibers

A

myasthenia Gravis

168
Q

if a pregnant woman is suffering from myasthenia gravis she has a 25% chance of transferring it to her baby even though its not known to be contagious or inherited. this transference is called?

A

transitional neonatal myasthenia gravis

169
Q

the disorder that usually starts by affecting muscles supplied by the cranial nerves and can cause hyperplasia of the thymus gland?

A

myasthenia gravis

170
Q

a drug that can compete with ACH molecules in binding to the ACH receptor sites, however it action is more prolonged than ACH

A

nicotine

171
Q

a foreign substance that contains cytotoxins and neurotoxins. these neurotoxins prevent ACH binding from receptor sites. does not cause/allow an action potential to happen. (paralysis)

A

snake venom

172
Q

a substance containing parathion and malathion and inactivate ACHe which results in an accumulation of ACH at the post synaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction.

A

organophosphates

173
Q

the toxin that blocks the release of ACH from the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction. usually affects the muscles supplied by cranial nerves but will progress to limbs and respiratory

A

botulin toxin, from bacteria clostridium botulinum which causes the severe food poisoning known as botulism

174
Q

true or false

all the muscle fibers of a single motor unit have the same histochemical composition.

A

true

175
Q

the muscle fibers of a single motor unit are considerably scattered throughout the _____ and ______ of the muscle.

A

scattered through the width and length of the muscle

176
Q

the nerve impulse that originates from within the muscle as a result of a contraction.

A

sensory nerve fibers/ afferent impulses/ sensory impulses

177
Q

for muscles to be coordinated they must (1) and (2)

A

(1) contract at the exact moment

(2) use the exact amount of proper force

178
Q

in addition to coordination, sensory muscle fibers are responsible for transmitting what other data?

A

pain and proprioception

179
Q

the subconscious ability of the body to tell the orientation of the body and its movement.

A

Proprioception

180
Q

a category of sense organs that are found within the musculoskeletal system

A

proprioceptors

181
Q

the loss of proprioception will cause a loss of what?

A

they will have clumsy and uncoordinated movements, must guide movements by vision, and difficulty in walking and manual dexterity

182
Q

the third most complex sense organ found scattered throughout the muscle.

A

muscle spindles. the fluid filled sacs containing intrafusal muscle fibers.

183
Q

the muscle fibers that detect stretch in a muscle and have both afferent and efferent nerve fibers associated with them?`

A

intrafusal nerve fibers found within the muscle spindles.

184
Q

the structures located within tendons that detects tendon stretch and trigger a reflex to inhibit muscle contraction to avoid injury

A

Golgi tendon organs

185
Q

the gross definition of the origin of a muscle?

A

the end of a muscle which attaches to the more or less stationary part of the skeleton

186
Q

the gross definition of the insertion of a muscle

A

the end attached to the portion of the skeleton which moves when the muscle contracts

187
Q

the gross definition of the muscle belly

A

the fleshy (muscle fiber portion) of the muscle which is surrounded by the epimysium

188
Q

the gross definition of tendons

A

a connective tissue, composed of collagen fibers, which attaches to bone. the regular and internal arrangement of collagen fibers gives it a remarkable tensile strength

189
Q

the load necessary to rupture a given material when pulled in the direction of its length is known as the?

A

tensile strength

190
Q

improve leverage by concentrating the force of a muscle on a small area is an advantage from?

A

its an advantage given to muscles by tendons.

191
Q

economizing space and maintain limb conformity, while being flexible so they can bend at joints are traits of?

A

tendons which also act as a dampening tissue to absorb shock and limit potential damage

192
Q

both tendons and ligament have extremely firm attachments to bone by way of collagen fibers known as?

A

sharpey’s fibers

193
Q

the attachment of sharpey’s fibers is so strong that when severe traction injuries occur the tendon does not pull out, instead these two things happen?

A
  1. tears within its substances

2. a fragment of bone is pulled out with the collagen fibers, a type of fracture known as an avulsion fracture occurs

194
Q

what is the type of nerve innervation of a tendon?

A

afferent, sensory only

195
Q

what advantage does a tendon with a good blood supply have over a nearly avascular tendon?

A

a good blood supply will help a tendon heal faster and better than one without

196
Q

lubricating devices between a tendon and another structure to limit friction and inflammation?

A

bursa, which is a sac of connective tissue that is filled with synovial fluid. bursae can transfer infections to joint cavities

197
Q

sheets of connective tissue that separate skin and muscles

A

Fascia

198
Q

the sheets of connective tissue that vary in thickness in different parts of the body are subdivided into two types?

A

superficial and deep fascia

199
Q

the layer of fascia that lies deep to the skin and contains blood vessels, lymphatics, nerves and varying amounts of adipose tissue?

A

superficial fascia

200
Q

the deep fascia is subdivided into four layers. what are they?

A
  1. an investing layer around muscles (epimysium)
  2. a layer around a group of muscles
  3. an intermuscular layer between individual muscles
  4. a retinaculum found at joints to bind down tendons and nerves
201
Q

a thickened band of deep fascia, found at joints and binds down tendons and nerves that cross the joint.

A

the retinaculum

202
Q

where the fibers run approximately the whole length of the muscle, parallel to the long axis.

A

parallel or strap muscles

203
Q

muscles whose fibers run oblique to the long axis of the muscle.

A

pennate

204
Q

where the tendon lies along one side of the muscle and the fibers pass obliquely to the tendon

A

unipennate

205
Q

the muscle in which the tendon lies in the center of the muscle and the fibers pass it from each side

A

bipennate

206
Q

a muscle that has shorter fibers , more numerous and in a pennate arrangement are built for what kind of activities and what type of muscle?

A

type 1 built for endurance

207
Q

a muscle that has longer fibers and less numerous in a parallel arrangement is built for what kind of activities and what type of muscle?

A

built for power activities and is a type 2 fiber

208
Q

the muscle or muscles which are most responsible for carrying out a particular action

A

priime mover or agonist

209
Q

assists the prime mover in performing the action.

A

synergists

210
Q

the muscle that helps carry out an action under certain circumstances or when extra force is needed?

A

synergist muscle

211
Q

the muscle that stabilizes a joint a prime mover passes over but does not move

A

a synergist muscle

212
Q

the other name for a synergist muscle that keep the prime mover’s bone of origin steady?

A

a fixator

213
Q

the muscle that produces the opposite effect of the angonist/ prime mover?

A

the antagonist

214
Q

what is reciprocal innervation?

A

when a muscle contracts, its antagonists automatically relaxes

215
Q

the phenomenon when both the agonists and antagonists contract at the same time.

A

co-reflex phenomenon, seen in infants and people with sensory nerve damage

216
Q

an outside force that assists some muscle and others have to contend against?

A

GRAVITY

217
Q

when a muscle develops a disorder or in some way damaged it reacts by becoming smaller and weaker. this is known as?

A

atrophy which has 6 potential causes

218
Q

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis which is a disorder of the cental nervous system can cause a muscle to?

A

atrophy

219
Q

pathology of the peripheral nervous system, neuromuscular junction, individual muscle fibers, or injury to any of the above components can cause atrophy, which is when the muscles?

A

become smaller and weaker, this can also happen because of prolonged immobilization of the joints or joint disorder like arthritis

220
Q

the diminishing of the vascular supply to muscles which will result in a loss of muscle fiber within a few hours is known as?

A

ischemic Necrosis (ischemia)

221
Q

what is contracture?

A

when a muscle stays in a shortened state for a prolonged period of time, it can develop a persistent and sometimes permanent shortening

222
Q

contracture may develop into certain diseases, such as?

A

polio, muscular dystrophy, cerebral palsy

223
Q

undifferentiated myoblasts known as satellite cells are responsible for?

A

the regeneration of injured muscle fibers

224
Q

the cells found in the space between the sarcolemma and the muscle fibers

A

satellite cells

225
Q

the condition where satellite cells are prevented from replacing damaged muscle fibers?

A

muscular dystrophy

226
Q

as we age there is a ____________ reduction in the size of muscles?

A

reduction in size a 20yr old would have 90% muscle in a cross section, as a elderly would show only 30 to 40%

227
Q

what is the upper extremity comprised of?

A

it is comprised of the shoulder girdle and the free limb

228
Q

what does the shoulder girdle comprise of?

A

the scapula and the clavicle

229
Q

the free limb consists of?

A

the arm or brachium
the forearm of the antebrachium
the hand or manus

230
Q

what is the arm/brachium consist of?

A

between the shoulder and the elbow joint

humerus

231
Q

what is the forearm of antebrachium consist of?

A

between the elbow and wrist joint

radius and ulna

232
Q

what does the hand/manus consist of?

A

the area that is distal from the wrist joint

carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges

233
Q

the s-shaped bone situated in the anterior aspect of the neck?

A

the clavicle

234
Q

the depression that is superior to the medial third portion of the bone

A

the supraclavicular fossa

235
Q

the depression of the clavicle that is located inferior to the lateral third portion of the bone?

A

infraclavicular fossa

236
Q

the two main functions of the clavicle bone?

A

1> transmit forces from the upper extremity to the axial skeleton
2. acts as a brace, holding the arm free from the trunk

237
Q

the process by which the embryonic connective tissue is replaced by bone cells?

A

ossification

238
Q

when the bone cells replace a primitive type of connective tissue known as mesenchyme

A

Intramembranous Ossification

239
Q

when the bone cells replace a very well developed type of connective tissue known as hyaline cartilage

A

endochondral ossification

240
Q

which bone is the first and one of the last bones to complete its ossification?

A

the clavicle

241
Q

the bone that has two primary ossification centers at 5th to 6th week of fetal development, as well as one secondary that shows at 17 years of age?

A

the clavicle the secondary ossification center doesnt complete its process until 25 years

242
Q

one of the most fractured bones in the body, normally broken in the first lateral third of the bone?

A

the clavicle

243
Q

a genetic misformation of bone in the cranium and clavicle?

A

cleidocranial dysostosis

244
Q

the traits of cleidocranial dysostosis?

A
  1. hereditary condition in which the ossification is defective
  2. clavicle is missing or abnormally formed
  3. bilateral in most patients
245
Q

the large, triangular, flat bone found on the posterior aspect of the thoracic cage

A

the scapula

246
Q

what is the location of the scapula?

A

between the second and seventh rib and the first and seventh thoracic vertebrae.

247
Q

what bone articulates with the clavicle to form the acromioclavicular joint and with the humerus to form the shoulder joint?

A

the scapula

248
Q

how many ossification centers does the scapula have?

A

7 ossification centers

1 primary and 6 secondary

249
Q

which scapula center of ossification develops the body of the bone (fossa and spine)/

A

the primary center, WHICH HAPPENS Around the 8th week of development

250
Q

what are the 6 secondary area of scapula ossification?

A

2 for the acromion process
2 for the coracoid process
1 for the medial border
1 for the inferior angle

251
Q

the name for the area running from the acromion process of the scapula to the distal end of the humerus

A

the clinical arm

252
Q

what bone is most commonly fractured at the acromion process and usually only fractured from direct impact?

A

the scapula, muscles act as a natural splint for healing, and chest wall and lung should be examined after a fracture

253
Q

what is sprengel’s deformity

A

when the scapula does not descend and is attached to cervical vertebrae by either bone cartilage or fibrous connective tissue

254
Q

when the acromion process fails to fuse with the rest of the scapula it is called?

A

Os acromidae

255
Q

when c4 is the most superior and c8 is the most inferior spinal nerves of the brachial plexus it is known as?

A

a prefixed brachial plexus

256
Q

when C6 is the most superior and T2 is the most inferior spinal nerve, it is known as?

A

a postfixed brachial plexus

257
Q

an ulnar nerve with spinal roots located at C7 and C8 it is?

A

prefixed

258
Q

when a musculocutaneous nerve has roots at C6, C7, and C8 it is?

A

postfixed

259
Q

a complete loss of muscular movement is known as?

A

paralysis

260
Q

when movement can be performed but is weak, it is called?

A

Paresis

261
Q

the partial or complete loss of sensation with or without loss of consciousness is known as?

A

anesthesia

262
Q

the loss of cutaneous sensation is called?

A

Paresthesia

263
Q

the most common injury to the plexus, caused by a traction injury that resulted from excessive increase in the angle between the neck and shoulder?

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy usually C5 and C6 are damaged or compromised

264
Q

three ways a injury to the upper roots might occur?

A

difficult birth
fall or blow to shoulder
heavy weight falling on the head

265
Q

any nerves derived from C5 and C6 could be involved and greatly disabled shoulder movements are traits of which palsy?

A

Erb-Duchenne’s Palsy

266
Q

any nerves derived from C8 andT1 are involved and will have problems with hand and digit movements are traits of which Palsy?

A

Klumpke’s Palsy

267
Q

two common scenarios that will caus ethe forceful abduction of the humerus and damage the lower roots of the brachial plexus?

A
  1. catching an object when falling from a height.

2. forceful pull of the shoulder of an infant during the birth process

268
Q

the term used to describe a longer than normal transverse process of a cervical vertebrae which may interfere with a spinal nerve?

A

cervical rib

269
Q

compression of the cords of the brcahial plexus may result from?

A

prolonged hyperabduction of the arm.

may result in Paresthesia and erythema and possible hand and digit weakness

270
Q

the condition when both the cords of brachial plexus and axillary artery are compressed

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome
pain and paresthesia present
vascular symptoms are decreased skin temp and fatigue

271
Q

the axillary artery is a direct continuation of which artery?

A

the subclavian artery

it changes to axillary when it travels under the clavicle and enters the axilla

272
Q

which vessel becomes the brachial artery about an inch or so below the surgical neck of the humerus?

A

the axillary artery

273
Q

what are the 3 branches of the axillary artery?

A
superior thoracic artery
thoracoacromial artery
lateral thoracic artery
subscapular artery
anterior humoral circumflex artery
posterior humoral circumflex artery
274
Q

the first branch to come off of the artery, just as the vessel emerges from under the clavicle?

A

the superior thoracic artery

supplies the Pec. maj and min, subclavius, and the wall of the thorax

275
Q

what artery branch is a short trunk which curls around the upper border of the Pec. Min and divides into four branches?

A

The Thoracoacromial

acromial, pectoral, clavicular, and deltoid are the four supplied branches

276
Q

what artery appears along the lateral border of the Pec.Min

A

Lateral Thoracic artery

supplies serratus anterior, both Pec muscles, mammary gland, and intercostal muscles`

277
Q

the branch of the axillary artery and found parallel and lateral to the lateral thoracic branch and divides into two branches?

A

the subscapular artery

thorcodorsal and circumflex scapular are the two branches

278
Q

the branch of the subscapular artery that supplies the lattissimus dorsi and the subscapularis

A

the thoracodorsal artery

279
Q

the branch of the subscapular artery that supplies the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres Maj and Min, the long head of triceps and part of the deltoid?

A

the circumflex scapular artery

280
Q

these two branches of the axillary artery form a ring around the surgical neck of the humerus.

A

the anterior and posterior circumflex arteries

supplies the deltoid, shoulder joint, and teres muscles, as well as the proximal part of the humerus

281
Q

all arteries have an accompanying vein thus there are _________ vein which becomes the _________ as it passes under the clavicle and into neck?

A

axillary vein and subclavian vein

282
Q

an aneurysm of the first part of the axillary artery can compress the brachial plexus causing _____ and ____ of sensation in supplied areas.

A

pain and loss of sensation

283
Q

lymph fluid and _____________ fluid are essentially the same thing with location being the only difference

A

interstitial fluid is referred to as lymph fluid when it passes into a lymph vessel

284
Q

the structure that filters the lymph and produces lymphocytes which destroy bacteria, viruses and cancer cells.

A

lymph nodes, vary in size from a pinhead to the size of a flattened olive