Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology and Parasitology > Gram-positive Bacteria > Flashcards

Gram-positive Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Virulence factor of Staphyloccus aureus that binds IgG, preventing opsonization and phagocytosis

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common cause of acute infective endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genes encoding methicillin-resistance in Staphylococcus aureus

A

SCCmec (staphylococcal cassette chromosome conferring resistance to methicillin) / mecA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug of choice against Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Toxin causing staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TSST-1 causes this syndrome

A

Toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The only bacterium with a capsule composed of protein (poly-D­ glutamic acid)

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Woolsorter’s disease is also known as

A

Pulmonary anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In Bacillus anthracis, the genes for exotoxins are encoded in this plasmid

A

pXO1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacillus cereus secretes a heat-labile and a heat-stable toxin. The heat-labile toxin, similar to the enterotoxin of cholera and the LT from Escherichia coli, causes nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhea that lasts for:

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Exotoxin released by Clostridium tetani

A

Tetanospasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type of muscle paralysis in botulism

A

Flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The tetanus toxin acts on these cells, preventing the release of GABA and glycine, which are inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Renshaw cell interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A grotesque grinning expression due to spasm of facial muscles exhibited by patients with tetanus is known as:

A

Risus sardonicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Booster shots of tetanus toxoid vaccine are given every:

A

10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bacteria that causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by:

A

Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

These enzymes are responsible for beta hemolysis in Streptococcal organisms

A

Streptolysins O and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scarlet fever is caused by this toxin released by S. pyogenes

A

Pyrogenic / Erythrogenic exotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Three most common pathogens associated with meningitis in infants younger than 3 months

A

Group B Streptococcus (most common)
Listeria monocytogenes
Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When pneumococci on a slide smear are mixed with a small amount of anti­ serum (serum with antibodies to the capsular antigens) and methylene blue, the capsule will appear to swell. Identify this reaction.

A

Quellung reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Three main causes of otitis media

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae (~30% of cases)
Haemophilus influenzae (~25%)
Moraxella catarrhalis (~15-20% )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chest x-ray finding in post-viral Staphylococcal pneumonia

A

Pneumatocele formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis and septic arthritis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Usual food source in Staphylococcal gastroenteritis

A

Salad made with mayonnaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis, septic arthritis in prosthetic joints, and ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Second most common cause of urinary tract infection in sexually active women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Honey colored crust is a manifestation of this skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Toxin responsible for necrotizing fasciitis from Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Exotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common bacterial cause of sore throat

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Three clinical conditions that can present with strawberry tongue

A

Kawasaki disease
Scarlet fever
Toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Susceptibility test used in scarlet fever

A

Dick test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Test used to determine antecedent streptococcal skin infection

A

Anti-DNAse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most common antecedent infection in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Pyoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cause of endocarditis in patients who underwent gastrointestinal tract surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Etiology of marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Streptococcus bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common cause of dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This viridans Streptococcus can cause brain abscesses

A

Streptococcus intermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, acute otitis media, bacterial sinusitis, and meningitis in adults and the elderly

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug of choice in infections causes by most streptococcal infections

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Gastroenteritis from reheated fried rice is usually caused by what organism

A

Bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment for gastroenteritis caused by Bacillus cereus

A

Supportive

45
Q

Drug of choice for Bacillus anthracis

A

Ciprofloxacin

46
Q

Type of paralysis in botulism

47
Q

Floppy baby syndrome is caused by:

A

Clostridium botulinum

48
Q

Most common cause of Clostridium difficile colitis is prolonged treatment with this antibiotic

A

Clindamycin

49
Q

Aside from clindamycin, these cell wall inhibitors are also common causes of Clostridium difficile colitis

A

Second and third generation cephalosporins

50
Q

What is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

51
Q

Gas within the muscle in clostridial myonecrosis produces this characteristic clinical finding

A

Crepitation

52
Q

Drug of choice for tetanus infection

A

Penicillin G

53
Q

An arched posture of extreme hyperextension of the body seen in tetanus

A

Opisthotonos

54
Q

Type of paralysis in tetanus

55
Q

Etiology of pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

56
Q

Granulomatosis infantiseptica is also known as:

A

Early-onset neonatal listeriosis

57
Q

Drug of choice for anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

58
Q

Toxin that cleaves SNARE proteins such as SNAP 25, syntaxin, and synaptobrevin

A

Botulinum toxin

59
Q

Toxin that cleaves synaptobrevin inhibiting the inhibitory neuron release or firing

A

Tetanus toxin

60
Q

Bacterium with a deeply staining metachromic granules giving a beaded appearance

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

61
Q

Drug of choice for CNS Listeria sp. infection in patients allergic to penicillin

A

Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

62
Q

Catalase and coagulase positive Gram positive organism that produces yellowish colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

63
Q

Toxin of S. aureus that lyses WBCs and acts as an important virulence factor

A

Panton valentine leukocidin

64
Q

Fifth generation cephalosporin with coverage for MRSA

A

Ceftaroline

65
Q

Drug used to eradicate nasal carrier state of S. aureus

66
Q

Bacitracin sensitive and PYR+ Streptococcus causing significant human disease

A

S. pygogenes

67
Q

Streptococcus that grows in bile and 6.5% NaCl implicated in abdominal abscesses, urinary tract infection, and endocarditis

A

Group D Streptococci

68
Q

Streptococcus that grows in bile but not in 6.5% NaCl, implicated in bacteremia among colon cancer patients

69
Q

Gram positive, non acid fast, obligate anaerobe with branching filaments

A

Actinomyces spp.

70
Q

Gram positive, acid fast, obligate aerobe with branching filaments

A

Nocardia spp.

71
Q

Virulence factor of Streptococci which induces antibodies that react with human cardiac sarcolemma implicated in rheumatic fever

72
Q

Also known as spreading factor of Streptococci causing breakdown in the ground substance of connective tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

73
Q

ASO titer cutoff suggestive of recent streptococcal infection

A

160-200 units

74
Q

Agent responsible for the hemolytic zones around streptococcal colonies on blood agar

A

Streptolysin S

75
Q

Most common infection caused by GABHS

A

Pharyngitis

76
Q

Impetigo could lead to this autoimmune complication

A

Glomerulonephritis

77
Q

Poststreptococcal autoimmune complications develop how long after infections?

78
Q

Two serologic tests that are more specific for streptococcal cutaneous infections

A

Anti DNAse

Anti hyaluronidase

79
Q

Drug of choice for Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

Penicillin G

80
Q

Bacteremia from S. pneumoniae causes this triad of complications

A

Arthritis
Endocarditis
Meningitis

81
Q

Drug of choice for mild pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

82
Q

Main virulence factor of S. pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide capsule

83
Q

Drug of choice for anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

84
Q

Toxin that cleaves SNARE proteins such as SNAP 25, syntaxin, and synaptobrevin

A

Botulinum toxin

85
Q

Toxin that cleaves synaptobrevin inhibiting the inhibitory neuron release or firing

A

Tetanus toxin

86
Q

Bacterium with a deeply staining metachromic granules giving a beaded appearance

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

87
Q

Drug of choice for CNS Listeria sp. infection in patients allergic to penicillin

A

Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

88
Q

Catalase and coagulase positive Gram positive organism that produces yellowish colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

89
Q

Toxin of S. aureus that lyses WBCs and acts as an important virulence factor

A

Panton valentine leukocidin

90
Q

Fifth generation cephalosporin with coverage for MRSA

A

Ceftaroline

91
Q

Drug used to eradicate nasal carrier state of S. aureus

92
Q

Bacitracin sensitive and PYR+ Streptococcus causing significant human disease

A

S. pygogenes

93
Q

Streptococcus that grows in bile and 6.5% NaCl implicated in abdominal abscesses, urinary tract infection, and endocarditis

A

Group D Streptococci

94
Q

Streptococcus that grows in bile but not in 6.5% NaCl, implicated in bacteremia among colon cancer patients

95
Q

Gram positive, non acid fast, obligate anaerobe with branching filaments

A

Actinomyces spp.

96
Q

Gram positive, acid fast, obligate aerobe with branching filaments

A

Nocardia spp.

97
Q

Virulence factor of Streptococci which induces antibodies that react with human cardiac sarcolemma implicated in rheumatic fever

98
Q

Also known as spreading factor of Streptococci causing breakdown in the ground substance of connective tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

99
Q

ASO titer cutoff suggestive of recent streptococcal infection

A

160-200 units

100
Q

Agent responsible for the hemolytic zones around streptococcal colonies on blood agar

A

Streptolysin S

101
Q

Most common infection caused by GABHS

A

Pharyngitis

102
Q

Impetigo could lead to this autoimmune complication

A

Glomerulonephritis

103
Q

Poststreptococcal autoimmune complications develop how long after infections?

104
Q

Two serologic tests that are more specific for streptococcal cutaneous infections

A

Anti DNAse

Anti hyaluronidase

105
Q

Drug of choice for Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

Penicillin G

106
Q

Bacteremia from S. pneumoniae causes this triad of complications

A

Arthritis
Endocarditis
Meningitis

107
Q

Drug of choice for mild pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

108
Q

Main virulence factor of S. pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide capsule

Microbiology and Parasitology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions