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Microbiology and Parasitology > Gram-negative Bacteria > Flashcards

Gram-negative Bacteria Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in children aged 2 to 18 years

A

Niesseria meningitidis

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2
Q

Most severe form of meningococcemia wherein there is bilateral hemorrhagic destruction of adrenal glands

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

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3
Q

Strains of N. meningitidis covered by the quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine

A

A, C, Y, W135

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4
Q

Drug of choice in gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

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5
Q

Purulent conjunctivitis in the newborn caused by Niesseria gonorrhea

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

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6
Q

Most common cause of urethritis in men and pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Niesseria gonorrheae

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7
Q

About 30% of patients with gonorrhea have concomitant infection with:

A

Chlamydia

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8
Q

Perihepatic extension of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

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9
Q

The type b capsule of Haemophilus influenzae is made of:

A

Polyribitol

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10
Q

Most common cause of epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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11
Q

Pontiac fever is caused by:

A

Legionella pneumophila

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12
Q

Atypical pneumonia from Legionella pneumophila can present with this electrolyte abnormality

A

Hyponatremia

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13
Q

Cause of whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

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14
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired urinary tract infections and the second most common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

Escherichia coli

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15
Q

Causative strain of traveler’s diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

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16
Q

Causative strain of hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (O157:H7)

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17
Q

Triad of hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Anemia
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia

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18
Q

Toxin associated with HUS

A

Shiga-like verotoxin

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19
Q

Associated food in HUS

A

Undercooked beef

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20
Q

Causative species of salmonella enterocolitis

A

Salmonella enteritidis

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21
Q

Clinical manifestations of typhoid fever on its first week

A

Relative bradycardia

Stepladder fever

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22
Q

Clinical manifestations of typhoid fever on its second week

A

Abdominal pain

Rose spots

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23
Q

Clinical manifestations of typhoid fever on its third week

A

Bleeding

Ileitis

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24
Q

Clinical manifestations of typhoid fever on its fourth week

A

Recovery or death

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25
Q

Salmonella cholaraesius osteomyelitis is most often seen in association with:

A

Sickle cell disease, hemoglobinopathies, or preexisting bone disease (e.g., fractures) [HPIM 19th ed.]

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26
Q

Mosct common cause of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella sonnei / Duval’s bacillus

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27
Q

Shigella strain that is the most common cause of epidemic dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae type 1

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28
Q

Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from amebic dysentery by the presence of:

A

Fever

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29
Q

Drug of choice for Salmonella infections

A

Fluoroquinolones

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30
Q

Drug class of choice for cholera

A

Tetracyclines

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31
Q

Diarrhea in cholera is described as:

A

Rice-water stools

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32
Q

This gram-negative bacteria causes gastroenteritis commonly by ingestion of raw seafood

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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33
Q

Trauma to the skin, especially in shellfish handlers, or by ingestion of raw shellfish can cause infection by:

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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34
Q

Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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35
Q

Drug of choice against Campylobacter jejuni

A

Eryhthromycin

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36
Q

Two diseases associated with antecedent Campylobacter jejuni infection

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

Reiter’s syndrome (reactive arthritis)

37
Q

Bacterial cause of peptic ulcer disease

A

Helicobacter pylori

38
Q

This enzyme is used by H. pylori to produce ammonia

A

Urease

39
Q

Two malignancies associated with H. pylori infections

A

Gastric carcinoma

MALT lymphoma

40
Q

Sputum in Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia is described as

A

Currant-jelly sputum

41
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in chronic alcoholics

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

42
Q

Beefy red ulcers with velvety surface is a symptom associated with this disease caused by Klebsiella granulomatis

A

Granuloma inguinale

43
Q

Motility pattern of Proteus spp.

A

Swarming

44
Q

Struvite stones, composed of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate, are caused by urinary tract infection with this organism

A

Proteus spp.

45
Q

Pigment responsible for giving green-blue color to colonies of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Thiocyanine

46
Q

Most common cause of wound infections in burn patients. Also causes hot tub folliculitis and green nail syndrome.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

47
Q

The most common cause of malignant otitis media in diabetics, otitis externa, and chronic suppurative otitis media

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

48
Q

Most common cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

49
Q

Histologic pattern in necrotizing pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Fleur-de-Lis

50
Q

Drug of choice in Bacteroides infections

A

Metronidazole

51
Q

Foul-smelling discharge from Bacteroides spp. are due to:

A

Short chain fatty acid products

52
Q

Drug of choice in Brucella abortus infections

A

Doxycycline

53
Q

Animal source of Brucella abortus

A

Cattle

54
Q

Streptomycin is the drug of choice against these two zoonoses

A

Bubonic plague

Tularemia

55
Q

Animal source of Francisella tularensis

A

Rabbits

56
Q

Drug of choice in Pasteurella multocida infections

A

Penicillin

57
Q

Animal source of Yersinia pestis

A

Rats

58
Q

Etiology of bubonic plague

A

Yersinia pestis

59
Q

Pseudobuboes are found in this disease entity

A

Granuloma inguinale

60
Q

Buboes can be found in these two diseases:

A 
Bubonic plague (Yersinia pestis)
Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia spp.)
61
Q

In McConkey agar, Klebsiella spp. are [fast / non- / slow] lactose fermenters

A

Fast lactose fermenter

62
Q

Fast lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods (3)

A

Enterobacter
E. coli
Klebsiella spp.

63
Q

What is the most common cause of complicated urinary tract infections?

A

Escherichia coli

64
Q

Non motile, non lactose fermenter, no gas from dextrose and non H2S producing Gram negative rod causing invasive gastrointestinal disease

A

Shigella spp.

65
Q

Swarming motility, urease positive, etiologic agent of UTI causing alkaline urine

A

Proteus

66
Q

Iridescent metallic sheen on EMB, positive spot indole tets, MUG positive

A

E. coli

67
Q

Pinkish mucoid colonies, nonmotile, citrate and lysine decarboxylase positive

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

68
Q

E. coli subtype that causes diarrhea in infants especially in nurseries and day care centers

A

EPEC

69
Q

Virulence factor associated with strains of E. coli causing meningitis

A

K1 antigen

70
Q

Drug of choice for bacillary dysentery

A

Ciprofloxacin

71
Q

Most common manifestation of Salmonella infections

A

Enterocolitis

72
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of typhoid fever

A

Bone marrow culture

73
Q

Hemorrhagic necrosis of the skin often caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum

74
Q

Antibiotic given to reduce stool output and shedding of Vibrio sp.

A

Tetracycline or doxycycline

75
Q

Preferred treatment regiment for H. pylori infection

A

Omeprazole + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

76
Q

Factors needed for H. influenzae to grow

A

Factor X (hemin) and Factor V (NAD)

77
Q

Specific capsular structure of H. influenzae

A

Polyribitol ribose phosphate

78
Q

Major virulence factor of H. influenzae

A

Capsule

79
Q

Causative agent of epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

80
Q

Etiologic agent of soft chancre or chancroid with ragged ulcer with marked swelling and tenderness of the lymph nodes

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

81
Q

Toxins with ADP ribosylating activities, subsequently increasing CAMP activity

A

Cholera

Pertussis

82
Q

Drug of choice for pertussis

A

Erythromycin

83
Q

Toxicity if gonococcal infections are largely attributed to the endotoxic effect of this cell wall component

A

Lipooligosaccharide

84
Q

Infection prevented by institution of Crede’s prophylaxis

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

85
Q

Agent used in Crede’s prophylaxis

A

Silver nitrate

86
Q

Drug of choice for gonorrhea

A

IM ceftriaxone or oral cefixime

87
Q

Portal of entry and site of colonization of Niesseria meningitidis

A

Nasopharynx

88
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for gonorrhea

A

NAAT

Microbiology and Parasitology (7 decks)

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