GP PRELIM TERM EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

One of the following changes is not seen in Lobar Pneumonia

A

Progressive accumulation of red blood cells in the pulmonary airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 30-year-old man is hospitalized after a motor vehicle accident in which he sustains blunt trauma to his chest. On physical examination, there are contusions to the right side of the chest, but no lacerations. Within 1 hour after the accident, he develops sudden difficulty breathing and marked pain on the right side. Vital signs now show that he is afebrile, his pulse is 80/min, respirations are 30/min and shallow, and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. Breath sounds are not audible, and there is tympany percussion on the right side. Which of the following radiographic findings for this man is shown in the figure?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 79-year-old woman has had increasing malaise and a 5-kg weight loss over the past 5 months. She has had a chronic nonproductive cough for 3 months. On physical examination, she has no abnormal findings. Pulmonary function tests are normal. Her peripheral blood counts are normal. Her chest radiograph has shown multiple mass lesions. What is a biopsy of one of her lung lesions most likely to show?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This condition can cause inflammatory pleural effusions

A

All of the above:

  1. Radiotherapy
  2. Uremia
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This condition is not associated with an increase in pleural fluid

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This condition is not associated with Pulmonary Hypertension

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Systemic manifestation associated with Lung Carcinoma

A

All of the above:

  1. Acanthosis nigricans
  2. Trousseau syndrome
  3. Leukomoid reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In Pulmonary Embolism, the pathophysiologic response and clinical significance depends on the following except:

A

Extent of the pulmonary vein blood flow obstructions (pulmonary artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This condition is not associated with Goodpasture Syndrome

A

Autoantibodies destroy the collagenous domain of the alpha 3 chain of collagen IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hormone secreted in paraneoplastic syndromes:

A. Calcitonin
B. All of the above
C. Bradykinin 
D. Serotonin 
E. None of the above
A

B. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 71-year-old woman has smoked a pack of cigarettes per day for 50 years. She has had increasing dyspnea for 12 years. Over the past 3 days she has become febrile, with a productive cough, and severe dyspnea. Auscultation of her chest reveals rales and expiratory wheezes. Laboratory studies show peripheral blood neutrophilia. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be cultured from her sputum?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Malignant mesothelioma may arise in the following except:

A

Bone joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 62-year-old man is a smoker with a 10-year history of cough productive of copious mucopurulent sputum. Over the past 6 months, he has developed progressive dyspnea. Physical examination shows bilateral pedal edema and a so but enlarged liver. A chest radiograph shows bilateral pleural effusions and a prominent right heart border. Arterial blood gas values are Po2, 60
mm Hg Pco2, 52 mm Hg pH, 7.30 and HCO3?, 29 mEq/L. He is intubated and placed on a ventilator, and he requires increasing amounts of oxygen. Which of the following microscopic findings is most likely to be present in the affected lungs?

A

Hypertrophy of bronchial submucosal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The following conditions are associated are associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection in the lungs except:

A

Mode of transmission is through inhalation of aerosolized organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 26-year-old woman from East Asia developed a fever with chills over the past 4 days. Yesterday, she had increasing shortness of breath and a nonproductive cough, headache, and myalgias. On physical examination, her temperature is now 38.6
C. A chest radiograph shows right lower lobe infiltrates. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 13.4 g/dL hematocrit, 40.2% platelet count, 78,400/mm3 and WBC count, 3810/mm3 with 77% segmented neutrophils, 2% bands, 5% lymphocytes, and 16%
monocytes. Over the next 2 days, she has increasing respiratory distress requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. A repeat chest radiograph shows worsening bilateral infiltrates. Infection with which of the following is most likely to have caused this patients illness?

A

Coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TRUE STATEMENT ABOUT NEUROBLASTOMAS

A

EXPRESS SYNAPTOPHYSIN BY IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TRUE OF ORAL SCCA

A

DYSPLASIA DOES NOT ALWAYS PROGRESS TO CARCINOMA IN-SITU BEFORE TISSUE INVASION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

WHICH TUMORS OF THE HEAD AND NECK IS COMMONLY ASSOCIATED WITH EBV INFECTION?

A

LYMPHOEPITHELIOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MAJOR DIFFERENCE BETWEEN TOBACCO INDUCED ORAL SCCA AND HPV INDUCED ORAL SCCA

A

None of the choices is correct:

A. HPV induced SCCA exhibits p53 and MYC genetic alterations
D. Tobacco induced SCCA exhibits p53 and NOTCH1
E. Genetic alterations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CONSIDERED PRECANCEROUS ORAL LESION

A

Both (Leukoplakia and erythroplakia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A

None of the choices is correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PERIODONTITIS CAN MANIFEST IN THE FOLLOWING DISEASES, EXCEPT

A

No excpetions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Laryngeal squamous papillomatosis

A

None of the statements is correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This salivary gland tumor is strongly associated with smoking

A

None of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Serotype of Herpes commonly isolated in cases of stomatitis

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An inlet patch is composed primarily of:

A

Gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The size of polyps directly correlate with which characterisitc

A

Microinvasion dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This condition constitutes a surgical emergency:

A

Boerhaave syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Menetrier disease is particularly evident grossly on which part of the gastric anatomy

A

Fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common form of congenital intestinal atresia

A

Imperforate anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genetic alteration most notable in Diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinomas

A

CDH1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Achalasia of the esophagus can be diagnosed if the following criteria are met except:

A

Repetitive contractions of distal esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which complication of chronic gastritis often gets confused with invasive carcinoma?

A

Gastritis cystica

34
Q

This condition is often associated with inutero exposure to macrolides?

A

None of the choices

35
Q

True about meckel diverticulum

A

None of the choices

36
Q

Which form of atelectasis can cause incomplete expansion of the lungs?

A

Contraction atelectasis

37
Q

A 65 year old smoker comes to the E.R. due to dyspnea and cough. He is seen cyanotic and tachypneic. Arterial blood gas shows hypoxemia. There are diffuse bilateral infiltrates findings on Xray. Which is the most likely finding in lung biopsy?

A

Hyaline membranes

38
Q

Which form of congenital anomaly can cause compression of nearby organs?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia foregut cysts

39
Q

A 60 year old smoker male comes to the E.R. due to cough and dyspnea. He has been suffering from the said symptoms for 1 month already and cannot bear the dyspnea anymore. On P.E. he was slightly cyanotic and tachypneic. Pulmonary function test showed decreased lung volume and compliance with ground glass shadows on Xray. Which is the most likely finding in lung biopsy?

A

Chronic inflammation with interstitial fibrosis

40
Q

Which condition is predisposed by obstruction and infection with impairment of ciliary action?

A

Chronic bronchitis

41
Q

Which phase of nutrient absorption is affected in individuals with Disaccharidase deficiency?

A

Terminal digestion

42
Q

This gastrointestinal polypsis syndrome is associated with multiple adenomas along with development of
central nervous system neoplasms

A

Turcot syndrome

43
Q

Which of the following causes typhoid fever?

A

Salmonella typhi

44
Q

Which of the following statement is false about ulcerative colitis?

A

Can recur after surgery

45
Q

Which of the following causes of intestinal obstruction is associated with the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Intussusception

46
Q

Which genes are mutated in majority of individuals who develop lynch syndrome?

A

MSH2

47
Q

Which of the following is not part of the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Defective brain-gut axis signaling

48
Q

An intestinal biopsy of a patient with severe malabsorption shows presence of numerous distended, foamy, macrophages in the lamina propria. Periodic acid-schiff stain was done which showed a positive result. Acid-fast stain was done which showed a negative result. These findings are consistent with what infection?

A

Whipple disease

49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding diverticular disease is false?

A

Diverticular disease is due to acquired pseudo diverticular outpouchings of the colonic mucosa, submucosa and muscularis

50
Q

What is the TNM classification of a tumor that has invaded the submucosa with metastasis to 3 regional lymph nodes but has no distant metastasis?

A

T1N1M0

51
Q

Which of the following statements about GI polyps is FALSE?

A

All polyps have malignant potential

52
Q

Which of the following is not a primary malignant tumor that can arise in the peritoneal cavity?

A

Adenocarcinomas

53
Q

This E. coli subgroup produces a bacterial surface protein called dispersin which aids in attachment to enterocytes.

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli

54
Q

Diagnosis of acute appendicitis requires neutrophilic infiltration of what layer?

A

Muscularis propria

55
Q

In colorectal adenomas, which of the following is the most important characteristic that correlates with the risk of malignancy?

A

Size

56
Q

Which is associated with risk for the development of pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Both choices are correct (Acute and chronic pancreatitis)

57
Q

Which of the following is true about carcinomas of the pancreas?

A

Both choices are correct

58
Q

Autoimmune mechanism of injury can cause which condition?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

59
Q

Which form of pancreatitis is associated with the development of congenital cyst?

A

None is correct

60
Q

Alcoholism is associated with the development of which condition?

A

Both (Acute and chronic pancreatitis)

61
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies are associated with:

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

62
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism of jaundice?

A

Extrahepatic biliary obstruction

63
Q

Unconjugated bilirubin is derived principally from:

A

Breakdown of senescent red blood cells

64
Q

Complete obstruction of the lumen of the extrahepatic biliary tree within the first 3 months of life

A

Biliary atresia

65
Q

Most common liver tumor of childhood

A

Hepatoblastoma

66
Q

The most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatitis B

67
Q

Angiosarcoma of the liver have been associated with:

A

Thorotrast

68
Q

The most common tumor of the liver:

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

69
Q

In patients with the most common form of gallstones, the liver secretes more:

A

Bile salts

70
Q

Associated with liver cell adenoma?

A

Oral contraceptive ns

71
Q

Which of the following is seen in acute liver failure?

A

Both of choices are correct

72
Q

During hepatocyte injury, scar deposition usually begins in this area

A

Space of disse

73
Q

Ascites is a manifestation of

A

Portal hypertension

74
Q

Which of the following can be seen in both acute and chronic liver failure?

A

Pruritus

75
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct:

A. Both statements are incorrect
B. confluent necrosis refers to a severe zonal loss of hepatocytes
C. Hepatocyte apoptosis exhibits karyorrhexis
D. Both statements are correct

A

D. Both statements are correct

76
Q

This is an example of a portosystemic shunt

A

hemorrhoid

77
Q

Chronic liver disease other than alcoholic liver disease usually has a AST:ALT ratio of:

A

Ratio is less than 1

78
Q

Which of the following agents present with a classic predictable reaction?

A

Acetaminophen

79
Q

Increased generation of reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide results:

A

Hepatocellular steatosis

80
Q

Which of the following is used for laboratory evaluation of hepatocyte synthetic function?

A

Ammonia