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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM > GP 2022 COMPREHENSIVE EXAM > Flashcards

GP 2022 COMPREHENSIVE EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Urethral caruncle, except

a. In amatory lesion
b. Typically seen in young sexually active female
c. May ulcerate and bleed even with slightest trauma

A

b. Typically seen in young sexually active female

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2
Q

Abnormal urethral opening on dorsal surface of penis

a. Hypospadias
b. Epispadias
c. Phimosis
d. Peyronie disease

A

b. Epispadias

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3
Q

Testicular tumor with distant spread confined to retroperitoneal nodes below the diaphragm

a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. None

A

b. Stage II

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4
Q

Most prostate carcinoma arises from the

a. Central zone
b. Transitional zone
c. Peripheral zone
d. Proximal zone
e. AOTA

A

c. Peripheral zone

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5
Q

Tumor staging in prostatic adenocarcinoma with seminal vesicle invasion

a. T1C
b. T2
c. T3b
d. T4
e. None

A

c. T3b

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6
Q

Periodontitis affects the following structures of the mouth, except:

a. Gingiva
b. Alveolar bone
c. Cementum
d. None

A

d. None

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7
Q

Which of the following proliferative benign lesions of the mouth is said to originate from the cells of the periodontal ligament?

a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
c. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
d. Ameloblastoma

A

b. Peripheral ossifying fibroma

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8
Q

Squamous carcinoma of the mouth is particularly associated with harboring which infectious agent?

a. HPV-16
b. HSV-1
c. EVB
d. AOTA

A

a. HPV-16

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9
Q

Regarded as the most common type of malignancy noted in the ear.

a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

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10
Q

Xerostomia may be a complication of the following circumstances, except:

a. Antihypertensive drug intake
b. Radiation therapy
c. Sjogren syndrome
d. None

A

d. None

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11
Q

A congenital anomaly of the genital tract denoting total absence of the involved part:

a. Atresia
b. Stenosis
c. Fistula
d. None

A

d. None

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12
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia is often associated with__

a. Omphalocele
b. Gastroschisis
c. Diaphragmatic hernia
d. Inlet patch

A

c. Diaphragmatic hernia

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13
Q

True about Meckel diverticulum, except:

a. Twice more common in males
b. Approximately 2cm long
c. Occur within 2 feet of the ileocecal valve
d. None

A

b. Approximately 2cm long

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14
Q

Which of the following findings most likely characterized achalasia?

a. Decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone
b. Hyperperistalsis
c. Incomplete LES contraction
d. AOTA
e. None

A

e. None

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15
Q

Severe burns are associated with this type of gastric ulcer:

a. Curling ulcer
b. Cushing ulcer
c. Dieulafoy lesion
d. AOTA

A

a. Curling ulcer

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16
Q

Majority of the suppurative salpingitis is caused by which pyogenic bacteria?

a. E.coli
b. C. trachomatis
c. G. vaginalis
d. None
e. AOTA

A

d. None

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17
Q

A dermoid cyst is considered as which type of ovarian tumor?

a. Mesenchymal
b. Epithelial
c. Mixed
d. Germ cell
e. Metastatic

A

d. Germ cell

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18
Q

Which of the following genes are most notably mutated in high grade serous carcinomas of the ovary?

a. BRCA1
b. KRAS
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

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19
Q

Consistent gene involved in Mucinous tumors of the Ovary

a. KRAS
b. BRAF
c. TP53
d. BRCA2

A

a. KRAS

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20
Q

HELLP syndrome is a notable complication of _____

a. Placenta previa
b. Placenta accrete
c. Ectopic abortion
d. TORCH infection
e. AOTA
f. NONE

A

f. NONE

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21
Q

The following pigmented skin lesion denote an increase in the production of melanin but not the number of melanocyte:

a. Epheli
b. Lentingines
c. Nevus
d. None

A

a. Epheli

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22
Q

The following pathogenic scheme is present in benign melanocytic nevus but not in melanomas:

a. Activating mutations in RAS
b. Oncogene-induced senescence
c. Acquired activating mutations in BRAF
d. Increased expression of TERT

A

b. Oncogene-induced senescence

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23
Q

Breslow thickness is a measure of the depth of invasion in melanoma, which epidermal layer is the baseline for this measure?

a. Stratum corneom
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum germinativum
e. Stratum lucidum

A

c. Stratum granulosum

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24
Q

Stevens- Johnson syndrome is believed to be due to injury to keratinocyte mediated by which cells?

a. CD8+ T cell
b. CD4+ T cell
c. Plasma cell
d. Mastocytes
e. Macrophage
f. AOTA

A

a. CD8+ T cell

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25
Q

Most common pituitary tumor associated with MEN 1

a. Somatostatinoma
b. Cushing disease
c. SAIDH
d. Prolactinoma

A

d. Prolactinoma

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26
Q

Individuals with this syndrome usually manifests with hirsutism, acne, menstrual irregularities at puberty

a. Sal wasting syndrome
b. Non-classic adrenogenitalism
c. Single virilizing syndrome
d. AOTA

A

b. Non-classic adrenogenitalism

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27
Q

Most common underlying cause of ACTH independent cushing syndrome

a. Small cell carcinoma
b. Adrenal adenoma
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Adrenal carcinoma

A

b. Adrenal adenoma

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28
Q

Crooke hyaline change is seen

a. Pituitary gland
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Adrenal carcinoma

A

a. Pituitary gland

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29
Q

Finding of lymphocytes around or infiltrating the islets in the pancreas is characteristic of

a. DM1
b. DM2
c. Addisons disease
d. Cushing syndrome

A

a. DM1

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30
Q

This is a benign tumor which resembles chromophobe renal carcinoma

a. Angiomyolipoma
b. Papillary adenoma
c. Metanephric adenoma
d. Oncocytoma

A

d. Oncocytoma

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31
Q

Term to use when change is seen less than (<50%) of the glomeruli and involvement of the entire glomerulus.

a. Focal and segmental
b. Focal and Global
c. Segmental and diffuse
d. Segmental and global

A

b. Focal and Global

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32
Q

Flea bitten appearance of the kidney

a. Benign nephrosclerosis
b. Malignant nephrosclerosis
c. Tubulo-intertitial nephritis
d. Myeloma kidney

A

b. Malignant nephrosclerosis

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33
Q

Autosomal recessive disease that presents with hepatic fibrosis as its late complication.

a. Childhood polycystic disease
b. Familial juvenile nephronophthisis
c. Multicystic renal dysplacia
d. Adult polycystic kidney disease

A

a. Childhood polycystic disease

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34
Q

Presence of WBC cast in urine is pathognomonic of

a. Beningn nephrosclerosis
b. Malignant nephrosclerosis
c. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Chronic pyelonephritis

A

c. Acute pyelonephritis

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35
Q

Glomerular hypercellularity is caused by:

a. Thickening of the capillary walls
b. Infiltration of leukocytes
c. Deposition of extracellular collagen matrix
d. Formationf of additional layers of bassemant membrane matrices.

A

b. Infiltration of leukocytes

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36
Q

Immune complexes deposition in membraneous nephropathy will show this immunofluorescence
pattern

a. Linear
b. Granular
c. Diffuse
d. Negative

A

b. Granular

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37
Q

Nephritic patients present with

a. Hematuria
b. Massive proteinuria
c. Polyuria
d. Anuria

A

a. Hematuria

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38
Q

Nephrotic patients present with

a. Hematuria
b. Massive proteinuria
c. Polyuria
d. Anuria

A

b. Massive proteinuria

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39
Q

Podocytopathy is the main manifestation in

a. Acute Post GN
b. Alport syndrome
c. Minimal change disease
d. RPGN

A

c. Minimal change disease

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40
Q

Presence of endometrial tissue within the uterine all

a. Endometriosis
b. Adenomyosis
c. Bothe
d. Neither

A

b. Adenomyosis

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41
Q

Gross: Chocolate cyst; Microscopic: presence of endometrial glands and stroma within the ovarian parenchyma. What is your diagnosis?

a. Endometriosis
b. Adenomyosis
c. Follicular cyst
d. Endometrial hyperplasia

A

a. Endometriosis

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42
Q

In the CIN classification, CIN III corresponds to the following classification system except:

a. High grade SIL
b. Severe dysplasia
c. Carcinoma in situ
d. None

A

d. None

43
Q

What is the precursor lesion of type 2 endometrial carcinoma?

a. Serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Endometrial polyp
d. Non atypical hyperplasia

A

a. Serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma

44
Q

The fallopian tube, uterus, and cervix develop from which duct?

a. Paramesopnephric duct
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Paramesopnephric duct

45
Q

Which is not a morphologic feature of osteoarthritis?

a. Thinned and fibrillated cartilage
b. Subchondral cyst
c. Ankylosis
d. Subchondral sclerosis

A

c. Ankylosis

46
Q

Pencil in cup deformity

a. RA
b. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Reactive arthritis
d. Infectious arthritis

A

b. Psoriatic arthritis

47
Q

Joint mass devoid of cystic wall lining

a. Baker cyst
b. Synovial cysts
c. Ganglion cysts
d. Tenosynovial giant cell tumor

A

c. Ganglion cysts

48
Q

Which statement is false regarding OA?

a. Heberden nodes common among women
b. Wrists, elbows, and shoulders are spared
c. Hips are commonly affected in men
d. Synovium is edematous and hyperplatic with desne inflammatory infiltrates forming lymphoid
follicles

A

d. Synovium is edematous and hyperplatic with desne inflammatory infiltrates forming lymphoid
follicles

49
Q

Which statement is true regarding Peyronie disease?

a. Without contractures
b. Mass on the dorsolateral aspects of the penis
c. Nodular thickening of the palmar fasci
d. Causes skin dimpling

A

b. Mass on the dorsolateral aspects of the penis

50
Q

The most frequent inactivated tumor suppressor gene in pancreatic cancer is

a. KRAS
b. CDKN2A
c. SMAD4
d. TP53
e. GATA-6

A

b. CDKN2A

51
Q

The following statement characterized Pancreatic cancer. Except:

a. Cigarette smoking is the leading preventable cause of pancreatic cancer
b. Pancreatic cancer is one of the most aggressive of the solid malignancies
c. Ductal adenocarcinomas elicit an intense desmoplastic response
d. Clinically, most patients present with abdominal mass and weight loss

A

d. Clinically, most patients present with abdominal mass and weight loss

52
Q

The basic morphologic alterations in acute pancreatitis are the following except.

a. Microvascular leak and edema
b. Pseudocyst formation
c. Fat necrosis
d. Acute inflammation
e. Destruction of pancreatic parenchyma

A

b. Pseudocyst formation

53
Q

These statements are rue regarding pancreatic pseudocyst, EXCEPT:

a. These are localized collection of necrotic and hemorrhagic materials that are rich in pancreatic
enzymes and lack an epithelial lining
b. Pseudocysts are usually multiple and may be situated within the pancrease or, more commonly,
in the lesser omental sac
c. They range in size from 2 to 30 cm in diameter
d. Many pseudocysts spontaneously resolve, but may become secondarily infected

A

c. They range in size from 2 to 30 cm in diameter

54
Q

These statements describe Guillain-Barre Syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Immune mediated neuropathy
b. Acute inflammatory dyemyelinating polyneuropathy
c. Two-thirds of cases preceded by an acute, influenza-like illness
d. Viral in etiology

A

d. Viral in etiology

55
Q

The most common type of peripheral neuropathy found in diabetes mellitus is:

a. Focal asymmetric neuropathy
b. Distal symmetric sensory or sensorimotor neuropathy
c. Autonomic asymmetric neuropathy
d. Multifocal asymmetric neuropathy

A

b. Distal symmetric sensory or sensorimotor neuropathy

56
Q

The most common entrapment neuropathy is:

a. Morton neuroma
b. Carpal tunnel syndrome
c. Compression neuropathy
d. Saturday night palsy

A

b. Carpal tunnel syndrome

57
Q

Myocyte degeneration in X-linked muscular dystrophy is proposed to be due to the absence of this protein:

a. Dystrophin
b. Desmin
c. Actin
d. Myosin

A

a. Dystrophin

58
Q

The ff statements are true with regards to Myasthenia Gravis, EXCEPT:

a. An autoimmune disease that is usually associated with autoantibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors
b. 85% of patients have autoantibodies against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
c. About 15% of patients have antibodies against the sarcolemma protein muscle-specific tyrosine kinase
d. There are strong association between pathogenic anti acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies and thyroid gland abnormalities

A

d. There are strong association between pathogenic anti acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies and thyroid gland abnormalities

59
Q

Lung neoplasms that is strongly correlated with cigarette smoking but there is no known pre invasive phase or carcinoma in situ:

a. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b. Small Cell Carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Large Cell Carcinoma
e. Carcinoid Tumor

A

b. Small Cell Carcinoma

60
Q

Liver disease will produce pulmonary edema by what mechanism:

a. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
b. Decreased oncotic pressure
c. Both conditions are correct
d. None of the choices is correct

A

b. Decreased oncotic pressure

61
Q

Which form of COPD is assessed by Reid index?

a. Emphysema
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Asthma
d. Bronchiectasis

A

b. Chronic bronchitis

62
Q

Th2 lymphocytes are involved in pathogenesis in which form of COPD?

a. Emphysema
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Asthma
d. Bronchiectasis

A

c. Asthma

63
Q

Elastic recoil is reduced in which type of COPD?

a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Bronchiectasis

A

b. Emphysema

64
Q

Also known as regional enteritis:

a. Crohn disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Crohn disease

65
Q

Disruption of transport of absorbed nutrients is seen in:

a. Whipple disease
b. Bacterial gastroenteritis
c. Cholera
d. Chronic pancreatitis
e. Cystic fibrosis

A

a. Whipple disease

66
Q

Results from decreased epithelial cell turnover and delayed shedding of surface epithelial cells:

a. Hyperplastic polyp
b. Juvenile polyp
c. Neoplastic polyp

A

a. Hyperplastic polyp

67
Q

Protrusion of serosa-lined pouch through a defective or weakened portion of abdominal wall

a. Volvulus
b. Hernia
c. Intussusception
d. Adhesion

A

b. Hernia

68
Q

Transepithelial transport is disturbed in:

a. Whipple disease
b. Bacterial gastroenteritis
c. Cholera
d. Chronic pancreatitis
e. Cystic fibrosis

A

b. Bacterial gastroenteritis

69
Q

This breast lesion whould show a central nidus of entrapped glands in a hyalinized stroma:

a. Complex sclerosing lesion
b. Sclerosing adenosis
c. Papilloma
d. Epithelial hyperplasia
e. Fibroadenoma

A

a. Complex sclerosing lesion

70
Q

Which breast malignancy is also known as colloid carcinoma?

a. Ductal carcinoma
b. Lobular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
e. Inflammatory carcinoma

A

d. Mucinous carcinoma

71
Q

Which type of breast cancer will have softer consistency due to minimal development of desmoplasia?

a. Ductal carcinoma
b. Lobular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
e. Inflammatory carcinoma

A

c. Medullary carcinoma

72
Q

What is the most common underlying cause of Paget’s disease of the breast?

a. Ductal carcinoma
b. Lobular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
e. Inflammatory carcinoma

A

a. Ductal carcinoma

73
Q

The painless palpable mass closely mimics cancer is attributed to prior trauma or surgery

a. Granulomatous mastitis
b. Lymphocytic mastopathy
c. Fat necrosis
d. Duct ectasia
e. Fibroadenoma

A

c. Fat necrosis

74
Q

Cardiac arrest and shock can cause which effect to the brain?

a. Global cerebral ischemia
b. Focal cerebral ischemia
c. Hemorrhagic infract
d. Lacunar infarct

A

a. Global cerebral ischemia

75
Q

Hypertension can cause which effect to the brain?

a. Intracranial hemorrhage
b. Slit hemorrhage
c. Lacunar infarct
d. All of the choices
e. None of the choices

A

d. All of the choices

76
Q

Which is the most common cause of acute bacterial meningitis in neonates?

a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Neisseria meningitides

A

a. Escherichia coli

77
Q

Intracranial atherosclerosis will most likely cause which type of cerebrovascular disease?

a. Thrombosis
b. Embolism
c. Hemorrhage

A

a. Thrombosis

78
Q

Which conditions is characterized by displacement of brain part into the foramen magnum which
causes brainstem compression and compromise of the respiratory and cardiac centers in the medulla?

a. Subfalcine herniation
b. Cingulated herniation
c. Transtentorial herniation
d. Tonsillar herniation

A

d. Tonsillar herniation

79
Q

Angiosarcoma of the liver have been associated with

a. Oral contraceptives
b. Hepatitis B virus
c. Thorotrast
d. Hepatitis C virus
e. Asbestos

A

c. Thorotrast

80
Q

The most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma:

a. Hepatitis B
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Autoimmune hepatitis
d. Neonatal hepatitis
e. Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A

a. Hepatitis B

81
Q

The most common liver tumor of childhood

a. Hepatoblastoma
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Liver cell adenoma

A

a. Hepatoblastoma

82
Q

In patients with the most common form of gallstones, the liver secretes more:

a. Bile salts
b. 7-alpha hydroxylase
c. Low density proteins
d. Cholesterol

A

d. Cholesterol

83
Q

Associated with liver cell adenoma

a. Halothanea
b. Thyroxin
c. Carbon tetrachloride
d. Vinyl chloride
e. Oral contraceptive

A

e. Oral contraceptive

84
Q

Simple goiter is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Dietary iodine deficiency
b. Androgenic steroid therapy
c. Pregnancy
d. Puberty

A

b. Androgenic steroid therapy

85
Q

The most common benign thyroid neoplasm.

a. Follicular adenoma
b. Papillary adenoma
c. Lipoma
d. Granulomatous thyroiditis
e. Fibroma

A

a. Follicular adenoma

86
Q

Features of cretinism include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Mental sluggishness
b. Short stature
c. Protruding tongue
d. Umbilical hernia
e. All of the choices

A

a. Mental sluggishness

87
Q

Characteristics of Cushing’s Syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Moon face
b. Hypotension
c. Abdominal striae
d. Osteoporosis
e. Poor muscle development

A

b. Hypotension

88
Q

Thyroid malignancy with average life expectancy of 3 months after diagnosis:

a. Papillary carcinoma
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Anaplastic carcinoma

A

d. Anaplastic carcinoma

89
Q

The neural component that is dominantly affected in Parkinson’s disease is:

a. Peripheral sensory neurons
b. Cerebellum
c. Substantia nigra
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord

A

c. Substantia nigra

90
Q

Homer wright rosettes is seen in:

a. Astrocytoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Oligodendroglioma
d. Ependymoma
e. Primary CNS lymphoma

A

b. Medulloblastoma

91
Q

Lewy bodies is associated with:

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Gemistocytic astrocytoma
d. Ependymoma
e. Meningoma

A

a. Parkinson’s disease

92
Q

A-synuclein is associated with

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Huntington disease

A

c. Parkinson’s disease

93
Q

Ependymoma in adults are most commonly seen in the:

a. Cerebral hemisphere
b. Cerebellum
c. Spinal cord
d. 4th ventricle

A

c. Spinal cord

94
Q

This histologic pattern is seen with osteoclastic phase of Paget’s disease:

a. Indian file pattern
b. Mosaic pattern
c. Storiform pattern
d. Herringbone pattern

A

b. Mosaic pattern

95
Q

Decreased bone mass >2.5 SD below normal level is called:

a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteopenia
d. Osteomalacia

A

a. Osteoporosis

96
Q

This refers to bone that is randomly arranged and is used in fetal skeleton:

a. Trabecular bone
b. Woven bone
c. Lamellar bone
d. Spiculed bone

A

b. Woven bone

97
Q

What is the most frequent primary malignant tumor of the bone

a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Bone giant cell tumor
d. Osteosarcoma

A

d. Osteosarcoma

98
Q

What is the most common location of osteosarcoma?

A

D. Knee

99
Q

Which of the following are seen as reversible changes during hepatic injury:

a. Cholestasis
b. Steatosis
c. Ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes
d. All of the above are reversible
e. All of the choices are irreversible

A

d. All of the above are reversible

100
Q

This portosystemic shunt can cause massive hematemesis and death in 50% of those who have
them:

a. Caput medusa
b. Esophageal varices
c. Hemorrhoid
d. Splenomegaly

A

b. Esophageal varices

101
Q

Which of the following hepatitis D/B combo type/pattern would manifest with 80% progression to
chronic hepatitis?

a. Superinfection
b. Coinfection
c. Ultrasupercoinfection
d. Co-vid infection

A

a. Superinfection

102
Q

This inflammatory cell type is a criteria in the histologic diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis:

a. Lymphocyte
b. Plasma cell
c. Histiocyte
d. Monocyte

A

b. Plasma cell

103
Q

This cytoplasmic inclusion body is seen in during alcoholic liver disease:

a. Dutcher body
b. Mallory denk body
c. Russel body
d. Padilla body

A

b. Mallory denk body

COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (11 decks)

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