Gould's Test Bank Q's Flashcards
1
Q
What actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?
A
Increased intraventricular pressure
2
Q
When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
A
Increased heart rate
3
Q
Describe the pericardial cavity- it is a
A
It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid
4
Q
Which factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
A
Forceful action of the valves in the veins
5
Q
The function of the baroreceptors is to:
A
signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
6
Q
The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
A
completing ventricular filling.
7
Q
Increased heart rate and force of contraction is a result of increased secretion of :
A
epinephrine
8
Q
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes increased:
A
heart rate
9
Q
The cardiac reserve is:
A
the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.
10
Q
The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:
A
ventricular depolarization.
11
Q
The term preload refers to:
A
volume of venous return.
12
Q
The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:
A
coronary arteries.
13
Q
Cardiac output refers to:
A
the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute
14
Q
Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:
A
relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles.
15
Q
hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) drug __________ sodium and fluid retention in the body?
A
decrease
16
Q
Damaged blood vessel walls
Immobility
Prosthetic valves
are predisposing factors to ___________ formation in the circulation?
A
thrombus
17
Q
acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is a drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce ___________ adhesion
A
platelet
18
Q
A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:
A
angina attacks
19
Q
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
A
promotes platelet adhesion.
20
Q
The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to: degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in ____________________
A
small arteries.
21
Q
A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
A
leading a sedentary lifestyle.
22
Q
An atheroma develops from:
accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial __________ has occurred.
A
injury
23
Q
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) promote ______________ development
A
atheroma
24
Q
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:
eating a large meal.
engaging in an angry argument.
taking a nap.
shoveling snow on a cold, windy day.
A
taking a nap.
25
When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?
Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of _______________ ; the pain of MI is not.
nitroglycerin
26
The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as: total obstruction of a _________________________ , which causes myocardial necrosis.
coronary artery
27
Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
persistent chest pain radiating to the _______ arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
left
28
The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is: _______________ involving an attached thrombus.
atherosclerosis
29
Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in: reducing cardiac and smooth muscle _______________
contractions
30
The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is: cardiac arrhythmias and _____________.
fibrillation
31
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest? Insufficient blood is supplied to the _________________.
myocardium
32
The term cardiac arrest refers to the ________________ of all cardiac function
cessation
33
Uncontrolled essential ________________ is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure
hypertension
34
The definition of congestive heart failure is: inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the ____________ needs of the body.
metabolic
35
The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is: rupture and ______________.
hemorrhage
36
A common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications is: orthostatic _________________.
hypotension
37
The most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins is: increased _________ pressure
venous
38
More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:
an embolus.
39
. A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
ventricular filling is ____________.
reduced
40
In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they: reduce renin and ______________ secretion.
aldosterone
41
Septic shock is frequently caused by infections involving: gram-___________ endotoxin-producing bacteria
negative
42
The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
_______ capacity
vital
43
which applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?
PO2 is _____
low.
44
Epinephrine causes __________dilation
broncho
45
Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because: PO2 is _________ in the blood.
lower
46
Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood: as _____________ ion.
bicarbonate
47
What would result from hyperventilation?
Respiratory ___________
alkalosis
48
What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
The kidneys producing more ____________ ions
bicarbonate
49
The production of yellowish-green, cloudy, thick sputum is often an indication of _____________ infection.
bacterial
50
hemoptysis refers to _______________ streaks of blood in frothy sputum
Bright red
51
Orthopnea is: difficulty breathing when ________________
lying down.
52
What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
Serous nasal _____________, congestion, and sneezing
discharge
53
Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?
Viral mutation reduces _____________ from prior infections.
immunity
54
What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis
Sudden ______, sore throat, and drooling saliva
fever
55
Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
_______________ pneumoniae is the infecting agent.
Streptococcus
56
What is the cause of Legionnaires disease?
A gram-_____________ bacterium
negative
57
TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many ______________.
disinfectants
58
Histoplasmosis is caused by a:
fungus.
59
The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is centered on a/an: defect of the ___________ glands
exocrine
60
Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of: mucus plugs obstructing the flow of _____________ enzymes.
pancreatic
61
What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material? Rapid loss of _________________
consciousness
62
Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?
_____________ caused by drugs or anesthesia
Vomiting
63
What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
Chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the _________________
larger airways
64
Which of the following is typical of chronic bronchitis? Fibrosis of the ___________ wall
bronchial
65
When does flail chest usually occur? Several ______ are fractured at two sites.
ribs
66
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:
coronavirus.
67
In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:
high ___________ chloride content in saliva and sweat.
sodium
68
Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?
Hemoptysis and weight loss
69
Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric
acid?
Parietal cells
Chief cells
Mucous cells
Gastrin cells
Parietal cells
70
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Ascending colon
c. Ileum
71
When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of
pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
Secretin
72
________ breaks protein down into peptides
Trypsin
73
_______ nerve stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract
Vagus
74
In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so
as to support the functions of the structure?
Liver
75
Glycogenesis is likely to occur in the body immediately after __________
a meal
76
What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
Formation of __________ from protein and fat
glucose
77
________ salts emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins
bile
78
The visceral peritoneum forms the outer covering of the __________.
stomach
78
Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of
bile
79
The early stage of vomiting causes:
metabolic _________
alkalosis
80
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
Increased intra-abdominal ___________
pressure
81
Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
a. A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker
b. Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis
c. A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish
d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish
82
What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?
Hematemesis [vomiting blood]
83
How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
Chronic _____________ in stools
blood loss
83
A gluten-free diet as required for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:
certain grains.
84
hepatitis A Is transmitted by the ____________ route.
fecal-oraL
84
Bilirubin is a product of hemolysis of __________________ and breakdown of hemoglobin.
red blood cells (RBCs)
84
What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
____________ infection has developed.
Chronic
84
What does a vegetative state refer to?
Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued ____________ function
brainstem
84
What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
HCV
84
What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?
Decreased production of blood _____________ factors
clotting
84
What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
Idiopathic
[spontaneous/ unknown]
84
What is a major function of the limbic system?
Determines ___________ responses
emotional
85
Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
damage to the intestinal _________ .
villi
85
Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
______ hemisphere
Left
85
To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
Liver
85
What does the term melena mean?
Blood in a _________-colored stool
dark
86
_____________ usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.
Jaundice
86
Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:
gallstones and ___________ abuse
alcohol
86
Which factor(s) appear(s) to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?
__________ and immunological factors
Genetic
86
A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:
mumps
87
What is the best definition of aphasia?
The inability to comprehend or express ____________ appropriately
language
88
What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
Pressure on the _________ center in the medulla
emetic
89
Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the __________
CNS.
90
Secondary brain tumors usually arise from:
metastasized breast or ________ tumors.
lung
91
In cases of Guillain-Barr syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
Inflammation and demyelination of ______________ nerves, leading to ascending paralysis
peripheral
92
What does the term otorrhea mean?
CSF leaking from the _______ .
ear
93
The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is:
presence of blood irritates the ___________
neurons
94
Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
The uncontrolled discharge of __________ in both hemispheres
neurons
95
Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
Weakness and muscle atrophy in _________ limbs
upper
96
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
infection in the brain by a _________.
prion
97
Huntingtons disease is diagnosed by:
DNA analysis.
98
What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate
increased secretion of insulin?
_________ feedback control
Negative
99
What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
Benign tumor
100
Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Onset often occurs during _____________.
childhood
101
Which may cause insulin shock to develop?
Strenuous exercise
102
Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
cataracts
103
Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addisons disease?
Decreased _________________
glucocorticoids
104
Which hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus?
Deficit of _______
ADH
105
Dwarfism is caused by:
a deficit of _______________
somatotropin (GH).
106
Which is caused by Graves disease?
Hypermetabolism
107
Goiters may be caused by:
either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions
108
Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine?
Visceral and cutaneous _______________
vasoconstriction
109
Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means:
hunger.
110
Which hormones is involved in both the stress response and the antiinflammatory response?
Cortisol
111
Polydipsia occurs with diabetes mellitus when:
__________ causes dehydration.
polyuria
112
Catabolic effects of Cushings syndrome include:
osteoporosis.
113
Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?
Afferent arteriole to the _______________________ to the efferent arteriole
glomerular capillaries
114
Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the : ______________ > _______________
ureter to the bladder
115
Three openings from the ___________________ form the trigone.
urinary bladder
116
Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases
117
Involuntary urination by a child after age 4 or 5, when bladder control is expected, is referred
to as:
enuresis
118
Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
Cystitis
119
Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
congestion and ischemia stimulate release of __________ .
renin
120
Wilms tumor is a ___________ defect
genetic
121
Cystitis is more common in females because:
the ______________ is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora.
urethra
122
The normal pH of urine is:
4.5- 8.0.
123
Wilms tumor is:
an encapsulated mass in one ___________ .
kidney
124
Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:renal failure due to ________ damage
tubule
125
Excess urea and other nitrogen wastes in the blood is referred to as:
azotemia.
126
The potential unwanted, usually damaging outcomes of a primary condition or disease, such as paralysis following recovery from a stroke, are referred to as:
Sequelae
127
The maintaining of a relatively stable internal environment by the body is called
Homeostasis
128
An area of dead cells resulting from a lack of oxygen, where the function of the tissue or organ may be lost, is called a(n):
Infarction
129
The study of the physiologic (functional) changes as a result of a disease process is:
Pathophysiology
130
The number of new cases of a disease in a given population noted within a stated time period indicates the __________________ of a disease.
incidence
131
The term used to refer to undifferentiated cells that have variable nuclei and cell structures and is the basis for grading a tumor is:
Anaplasia
132
A factor that can trigger an acute episode of a condition or disease is referred to as a(n):
_____________ factor
Precipitating
133
Neoplasm means "new growth" and is commonly called a:
Tumor
134
_______________________ indicate(s) a high risk for the development of a certain disease or condition but not the certain development of the disease.
Predisposing factors
135
Prevention of a disease is linked to both the _______________________________ for a specific
disease.
etiology and predisposing factors
136
Renal failure or the excessive loss of bicarbonate through severe diarrhea can result in the body pH imbalance referred to as:
Metabolic acidosis
137
Hypokalemia can cause an irregular, abnormal cardiac rhythm referred to as:
Dysrhythmias
138
Typical causes of dehydration include vomiting, excessive sweating, use of concentrated supplements, and: diabetic
Diabetic ketoacidosis
139
Two thirds of the water in humans is contained in this fluid compartment:
Intracellular
140
Decrease in bone density, especially in weight-bearing areas, and depression of
neuromuscular activity are typical symptoms of the electrolyte imbalance referred to as:
Hypercalcemia
141
Drugs that cause increased excretion of water through the kidneys and urine production are classified as:
Diuretics
142
Hypoparathyroidism and malabsorption with effects such as tetany are characteristic of the electrolyte imbalance referred to as:
Hypocalcemia
143
Hyperventilation as a result of high anxiety or high fever may result in a pH imbalance referred to as: Respiratory ____________
alkalosis
144
The condition of high serum potassium levels as a result of renal failure is referred to as:
Hyperkalemia
145
Low sodium levels that may be caused by excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea is a condition referred to as:
Hyponatremia
146
Pain that lasts several months, often doesn't respond to pain therapy, and often has an unknown cause is referred to as: __________ pain
Chronic
147
Unmyelinated fibers that are involved in the transmission of chronic pain and thus transmit pain impulses slowly are: ___ fibers
C
148
Pain that originates in the skin, bone, or muscles and is conducted by sensory fibers is called:
Somatic pain
149
Nociceptors are: ______________ nerve endings
Free sensory
150
The level of stimulation required to perceive pain is called the pain:
Threshold
151
A type of general anesthesia where the patient can respond to commands but is unaware of the procedure and does not experience any discomfort is called:
neuroleptanesia
152
Myelinated nerve fibers that rapidly transmit acute pain information from the sensory fibers to the central nervous system are:
A Delta fibers
152
The tract in the spinothalamic bundle that carries slower impulses for chronic or dull pain is the: ____________________ tract
Paleospinothalamic
153
The system that informs the brain of incoming pain stimuli is the:
_________ activating system
Reticular
154
Pain that originates in the organs and is conducted by sympathetic fibers is called:
____________ pain
Visceral
155
First-aid directives for injury-related inflammation often recommends this four-step approach:
Rest, ice, compression, elevation
156
When scar tissue restricts the range of movement in a joint, which may eventually result in fixation or a deformity of the joint, this is referred to as: ____ contracture
A
157
The growth of children is often affected during the acute phase of burn recovery due to Compromised: __________ needs
metabolic
158
A small nodular area of cells and/or debris that forms in injured tissue that becomes chronically inflamed is called:
granuloma
159
Increased numbers of _______________ usually indicate an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection.
eosinophils
159
This group of drugs consists of natural or synthetic steroids (such as hydrocortisone) that are extensively used in the treatment of various inflammatory disorders but that also have significant undesirable side effects such as promoting osteoporosis.
Glucocorticoids
159
An open, painful, usually craterlike sore that often results from a severe or prolonged inflammation is called:
An ulcer
159
When leukocytes move in the direction of a chemical stimulus to the inflammation site, this process is called:
Chemotaxis
160
A method for rapid calculation of the percentage of the body affected by burns that assigns a numerical value to body parts and regions is called the:
Rule of Nines
160
The sensation of pain in the inflammatory response activates mast cells and basophils to release:
Histamines
161
That period when an infectious disease develops fully and all clinical manifestations appear is called the:
Acute period
162
Spherical or ball-shaped bacteria are classified as:
Cocci
163
The capacity of an organism to cause disease Is referred to as its:
Pathogenicity
164
The period of time between entry of the organism and appearance of clinical signs is called the: ____________ period
Incubation
164
Viruses that specifically infect bacteria are called:
Bacteriophages
165
The mode of action of antimicrobial drugs in which the organisms are not killed but their growth is inhibited is referred to as:
Microbiostatic
166
A type of diagnostic test that determines effective antibiotic dose for treating a specific infection is called the: __________________________ Concentration method
Minimum Inhibitory
167
A dangerous condition in the case of a systemic
infection in which pathogens are circulating and reproducing in the blood is referred to as:
Septicemia
167
Malaria is an example of what type of infection?
Protozoal
168
Fungal infections in which a normally harmless resident fungus becomes a pathogen is called a(n): ____________ infection
Opportunistic
169
The type of leukocyte that contains chemical mediators and plays an important part in allergic and inflammatory responses is the:
Basophil
169
One of the most significant differences between the primary and secondary immune response is that the: Secondary response happens __________ than the primary
faster
170
Cells that are responsible for long-term immunity because of the recognition of antigens that have previously activated the immune system are called: __________ cells
Memory
171
The two forms of lymphocytes are the:
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
171
The type of lymphocyte responsible for the production of antibodies (immunoglobulins) is the:
B lymphocyte
172
Immunodeficiency predisposes individuals to infections in general but particularly to microorganisms that are:
Opportunistic
173
A group of genes that are responsible for the production of self-antigens is called the:
Major _________________ complex
histocompatibility
174
The immunoglobulin that is found in tears and saliva is:
IgA
175
Transplant involving the replacement of a heart valve with a pig heart valve is an example of:
A _____________
xenograft
176
The body's capacity to respond and defend against the presence of any foreign substances is called:
Immunity
177
The percentage of blood composed of RBCs is referred to as the:
Hematocrit
178
The development of blood cells is called:
Hematopoiesis
179
The term for whole blood minus cells and clotting elements (fibrinogen) is:
Serum
179
A neoplastic blood disorder in which one or more types of leucocytes are undifferentiated, immature, or nonfunctional is referred to as:
Leukemia
180
The blood disorder characterized by an overproduction of erythrocytes and other cells in the bone marrow is referred to as:
Polycythemia
180
One of the signs/symptoms of aplastic anemia is flat, red, pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin that bleed excessively and are referred to as:
Thrombocytopenia
181
An anemia characterized by large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes is called ________________
anemia
Megaloblastic
182
A venous disorder in which a thrombus forms spontaneously in a vein without prior inflammation is referred to as:
Phlebothrombosis
182
Leukocytes that can enter the tissue and become macrophages are called:
Monocytes
183
The most common inherited disorder that is caused by a deficit or abnormality of clotting factor VIII is referred to as:
Hemophilia A
183
A syndrome that is caused by inadequate cell production by the bone marrow, and that can occur after chemotherapy or radiation treatment, is referred to as: ________________ syndrome
Myeloplastic
184
Prenatal diagnosis of thalassemia can be done by:
Chorionic villus assay and amniocentesis
184
Microscopically, the erythrocytes appear hypochromic and microcytic in the case of:
Iron deficiency anemia
185
The narrowing of an aortic or pulmonary valve that restricts the forward blood flow is referred to as:
Stenosis
186
Heart block occurs when the conduction is excessively delayed or stopped at the:
AV node and bundle of ____
His
186
Infective endocarditis, formerly called bacterial endocarditis, occurs in two forms:
Subacute and acute
186
The primary cause of septic shock is:
Infection
186
Plaques consisting of lipids, cells, fibrin, and debris, often with attached thrombi that can obstruct arteries and arterioles, are referred to as:
Atheroma's
187
The combined abnormalities of pulmonary valve stenosis, ventricular septal defect, dextroposition of the aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy are part of the congenital abnormality known as: __________ of Fallot
Tetralogy
187
A condition in which the extremities swell due to an obstruction of the lymphatic vessels is called:
lymphedema
188
Rheumatic fever is an acute systemic inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication of infection by: Group A _______________
Streptococcus
189
Structural defects of the heart that generally develop during the first 8 weeks of embryonic life are referred to as: ___________ heart defects
Congenital
190
A neoplastic disorder that involves malignant plasma cells that replace the bone marrow and erodes bone is referred to as: Multiple ____________
myeloma
191
The two types of Castleman Disease are:
unicentric and multicentric
192
The passage of fluid, solid particles, or vomitus into the trachea and lungs is referred to as:
Aspiration
193
A form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease that is an abnormal, permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles is called:
Emphysema
194
Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a result of: Diffuse __________ and epithelial
damage
alveolar
194
Some typical chronic complications of diabetes include: ______________ and infections
Neuropathy
195
In the blood, about 99% of the oxygen is: Bound to the _______________
hemoglobin
196
The cough reflex is controlled by the center for coughing in the: Medulla __________
oblongata
196
Influenza (the flu) is caused by a virus and is spread mainly by person to person by :
coughing/sneezing
196
The amount of air moving in and out of the lungs with normal breathing is referred to as the: ________ volume
Tidal
197
Bronchiolitis, a common infection in young children, is caused by: _____________ syncytial virus
Respiratory
197
A subjective sensation of discomfort when a person is unable to inhale enough air is referred to as:
Dyspnea
197
Deep, harsh breathing sounds resulting from thick mucus are referred to as:
Rhonchi
198
The primary control centers for breathing are located in the: Medulla oblongata and the _______
pons
198
Inappropriate ADH syndrome causes excess fluid retention and is caused by:
Excess _______________ of ADH
release
198
A severe form of hypothyroidism that occurs in adults and results in hypotension, hypoglycemia, and loss of consciousness is called:
Myxedema
198
When sputum is thick, yellowish-green, and cloudy, it is often an indication of:
_________________ infection
Bacterial
198
An adrenal cortex disorder most commonly caused by an autoimmune reaction and resulting in a deficiency of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens is called:
Addison's disease
198
The release of hormones is controlled by a feedback system involving: A sensor, an integrating center, and an ____________
effector
198
The part of the adrenal gland that releases epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine (noradrenalin) upon stimulation is the:
Adrenal medulla
199
Type 2 diabetes used to be referred to as: ___________________ diabetes
Mature onset
200
_______parathyroidism may be caused by: Problems following surgery, an autoimmune disorder, or congenital defects
Hypo
201
The three sections of the large intestine, in order from the ascending colon to the anus, are:
Transverse, descending, sigmoid
202
A common complication associated with digestive system disorders involves a significant change in the balance of:
Acids/bases and electrolytes
203
The activities of the digestive system are under: Neural and _____________ control
hormonal
204
Hematemesis refers to:
Blood in vomit
205
The most common group of drugs that can increase urine output has a mechanism of action that: Inhibits sodium chloride reabsorption in the ___________
tubules
206
The actual site of fertilization in a normal pregnancy is the:
Fallopian tubes
207
The hormone that is responsible for triggering the release of an ovum is:
Luteinizing hormone
208
The majority of pelvic inflammatory disease infections arise from:
Sexually transmitted diseases
209
The presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus on structures such as the ovaries, ligaments, or colon is referred to as:
Endometriosis
210
Cells in a malignant tumor appear: As ______________ shaped and varying in size
irregularly
211
The most common form of skin cancer is: ________ cell carcinoma
Basal
212
The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells is called:
Carcinogenesis
213
A chromosomal disorder in which there is a third #21 chromosome is called:
Down syndrome
214
Infections are common in the elderly, primarily as a result of: Poor ______________ , which impairs the immune response
circulation
215
One common change in the urinary system that is a result of the aging process, frequent nighttime urination, is termed: _____________
Nocturia
216
Some changes in the cardiovascular system that are often a result of the aging process are a decrease in size and number of cardiac muscle fibers, accumulation of collagen fibers in heart muscle, and: ______________ of the heart valves
Thickening
