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Small Ruminants > Goats > Flashcards

Goats Flashcards

1
Q

How much of total ruminant population is made up of goats

A

16%

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2
Q

How do their eating habits affect the exposure of goats to GI parasites

A

Reject urine/faecal contaminated plants so less exposure

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3
Q

Susceptibility of goats to GI parasites

A

remain susceptible throughout life
because they can’t develop adaptive immunity

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4
Q

What behaviour do kids show

A

Hiding rather than following

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5
Q

When might we see teat biting in adult dairy goats

A

When in season but not mated

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6
Q

What do most goat diets use as the main ingredient

A

Maize silage

+ need access to grass or good quality hay

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7
Q

What should we feed pygmy goats and pets like
ANd what should we feed dairy goats like

A

Pets like sheep
Dairy goats like cattle

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8
Q

Which type of concentrate diet should we feed goats and why

A

Cattle
Due to copper requirement
- More tolerant of copper than sheep; so sheep diets have too little
- Less tolerant that pigs

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9
Q

Which breed of goat is less tolerant to copper than dairy breeds

A

Angora

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10
Q

What is drug elimination for in goats like compared to sheep

A

For things going through the liver = faster; half that of sheep
e.g for anthelmintics

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11
Q

How do pygmy breeds differ in how they metabolise drugs

A

Those that go through hepatic microsomal enzymes e.g sulphonamides, chloramphenicol
are metabolised faster

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12
Q

What are the only licensed drugs in goats

A

Eprinomectin, baytril (enrofloxacin), anaestamine (ketamine)

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13
Q

Can goats be classified as pets?

A

No. ALL are food producing

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14
Q

What are the mandatory withdrawal times for drugs not specifically licensed in goats

A

7 days for milk
28 days for meat

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15
Q

Why should we try and gives injections subcut or IV in goats

A

Small muscle mass means more likely to get nerve damage and lameness

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16
Q

Which goat is a meat breed

A

Boer

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17
Q

Which scoring system out of lumbar and sternal is better

A

Sternal because fat is carried internally rather than subcut so lumbar less accurate

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18
Q

Which clostridial vaccine should we choose for goats

A

4 in 1; for C perfringens B, C and D + Clostridium Tetani

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19
Q

What additional clostridial pathogens would we vaccinate for if confirmed on farm

A

C novyi
C chavoei

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20
Q

Which clostridial organism causes most disease in goats

A

C perfringens type D
= enterotoxaemia

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21
Q

Which types of clostridial can cause haemorrhagic enteritis in young kids

A

C perfringens type B and C

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22
Q

What are outbreaks of C perfringens D associated with

A

Stress
Or sudden introduction of lush carbohydrate rich food

Because have a normal population of clostridia in gut; but these conditions cause overgrowth and production of the toxin

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23
Q

What presentation with C perfringens D in goats is common vs rare

A

Common = enteric form
Rare to get pulpy kidney

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24
Q

Why are faecal swabs demonstrating C perfringens NOT enough to confirm infection

A

Because it is a normal gut commensal

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25
Q

How do we confirm C perfringens D infection

A

Via enterotoxin demonstration in the gut via ELISA

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26
Q

Should we vaccinate for respiratory diseases at the same time as clostridial

A

No

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27
Q

Vaccination protocol for pasteurellosis

A

Do if there is an issue on farm
2 doses 6 weeks apart + annual booster

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28
Q

Which disease (non clostridial) do most farms vaccinate against and what type

A

Johne’s
Killed vaccine
- Not licensed
Vaccinate kids from 2 weeks to 6 months and rear separately

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29
Q

What factors contribute to initiation of breeding season in female goats

A

MAINLY = decreasing day length
Also: temperature, nutrition, presence of a male

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30
Q

When is puberty in goats

A

5 months

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31
Q

When should we first serve female goats

A

From 7 months to 1.5 years

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32
Q

Oestrus cycle length in goats

A

19-21 days (NB: longer in pygmy goats)

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33
Q

Gestation length in goats

A

150 days

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34
Q

When is ovulation in relation to oestrus

A

24-36 hours after start of oestrus

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35
Q

What breeding behaviour do goats show in temperate vs northerm hemisphere regions

A

Temperate = seasonally polyoestrus

N hemisphere: totally anoestrus between march and august; then breed august to march

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36
Q

Which breeds have especially long seasons

A

Anglo hubian
Pygmy
Boer

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37
Q

Signs of oestrus

A

Bleathing, tail wagging, drop in milk yield (BUT get an increase just before oestrus), vaginal mucus, vulval reddening and oedema

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38
Q

When do we see prostaglandin effects in relation to administration

A

After 36 hours

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39
Q

Uses of prostaglandins

A

Abortion at any stage; CL dependent throughout pregnancy

Induction of parturition

Timing or synchronising oestrus by causing luteolysis

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40
Q

How can progestagens be used to bring on breeding season

A

Put in sponge; on day 9 inject prostaglandin; on day 11 remove sponge and inject serum gonadotrophin

Expect oestrus the next day or day after

41
Q

Best time for AI in relation to progesterone sponge removal

A

36-40 hours after

42
Q

What change do we need to make to progestagen control of breeding season if out of the breeding season (vs in transitory phase)

A

Need more serum gonadotrophin before sponge removal

43
Q

What is the main way to bring on breeding season when out of season

A

Using artificial lighting regimes
- Give 20 hours artificial light for 60 days from Jan 1st and expect oestrus 7-10 weeks ater

44
Q

What stops immature bucks being able to be used for mating

A

Penis adhesions dissolve at puberty

45
Q

Is progesterone assay a useful way of detecting pregnancy

A

No - can’t distinguish from false pregnancy

46
Q

When is best to do an ultrasound scan for pregnancy

A

From 45 days; can detect hydrometra at this point (false pregnancy)

47
Q

When can oes sulfate assay be used to diagnose pregnancy

A

50 days

48
Q

When can TA US be used to diagnose pregnancy

A

28 days

49
Q

What are the two causes of false pregnancy

A

Persistent CL after oestrus; commonly when with male but not mated

Persistent CL after embryonic death

50
Q

How long do false pregnancies of diferent causes last

A

If persistent CL with no pregnancy; less time than normal gestation

If persistent Cl after embryonic death lasts full gestation course or longer

51
Q

Treating hydrometra

A

Give prostaglandins to lyse CL
can give oxytocin a few days after to stimulate uterine involution

52
Q

Out of corticosteroids and prostanglandins which gives better fetal survival if treating pregnancy toxaemia

A

Corticosteroids

53
Q

What are the main factors in causing periparturient toxaemia

A

Overfat does
Multiple fetuses
(not so much due to underfeeding)

54
Q

WHat are maiden milkers and how do we treat it

A

Where older females not mated recently come into milk
- Reduce feed intake if well fed
- Prolactin inhibitors NOT useful

55
Q

Is freemartinism common

A

No
= much rarer than in cattle; most females born to male twins are normal

56
Q

How does polled intersex inheritance work

A

Dominant pol gene is linked to recessive intersex gene
–> When breeding two polled goats some offspring will be homozygous for intersex genes

57
Q

What is witch’s milk

A

Where newborn kids show mammary development and milk production in response to maternal hormones
- Does not need treatment

58
Q

What is different about chlamydia abortions in goats compared to sheep

A

Can occur at any stage of pregnancy in goats

59
Q

What is different about toxoplasma infection in goats vs sheep

A

Don’t get strong immunity so can stay dormant and then reactivate and shed
- So don’t necessarily keep does that aborted due to this

60
Q

Main nematode species affecting goats

A

Teladorsagia
Trichostrongylus
Haemonchus

61
Q

What do we need to be aware about when doing post treatment faecal egg counts

A
  • Takes 3 days to pass out any eggs in system
  • With avermectins can shock worms into not making eggs for a short period; so should tail until 2 weeks after treatment to check
62
Q

How to do selective treatment for helminths

A

FAMACHA anaemia score for Haemonchus
BCS, FEC, clinical signs

63
Q

Dosing with drenches dose rates compared to sheep

A

White (BZs) and clear (macrocyclic lactones) = DOUBLE dose

Yellow (levamisole), orange (nitriles) = 1.5 dose

64
Q

How often should small herds have feet trimmed
What about commercial

A

Ideally monthly
In commercial herds more like every 6 months

65
Q

Sign of acute laminitis in goats

A

Follows toxic condition
- Sudden onset of painful (front) feet, recumbency, walking on knees

66
Q

Subclinical laminitis

A

See haemorrhage of wall, heel, sole at routine trimming as fine red discolouration `

67
Q

Signs of chronic laminitis in goats

A

Chronically lame
Feet have very hard horn and deep feet (platform soles)
esp front feet; esp anglo-nubians and pygmy
So front feet hooves up to double the length of back feet

68
Q

Signs of Johne’s in goats

A

DO NOT GET DIARRHOEA
Weight loss, lethargy, rough coat, anaemia, milk drop

Usually young adult goats ~2/3 years

69
Q

Causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

70
Q

5 clinical forms of CAE

A

Arthritis
Weight loss
Hard udder
Encephalitis
Pneumonia

71
Q

Which is the most infectious bodily fluid for CAE

A

Milk

72
Q

How does CAE infection work

A

Infection via pooled milk/direct contact with body fluids [NO ENVIRONMENTAL TRANSMISSION]
–> Virus replicated in monocytes esp as they mature to macrophages
Stay infected for life

73
Q

Bovicola lice =

A

biting

74
Q

Linognathus lice (L stenopsis)

A

sucking

75
Q

Forage mites =

A

Cheytiella

76
Q

Which harvest mite affects goats

A

Trombicula autumnalis

77
Q

Which mites are itchy and which aren’t

A

Itchy = sarcoptes, psoroptes, trombicula, Cheytiella

Non-itchy = chorioptic, demodex

78
Q

How does demodex mange manifest in goats

A

AS hard nodules with yellow caseous material
On head, ears, body

79
Q

What is the causative agent of pustular dermatitis

A

Staph aureus

80
Q

What animal pour on ectoparasite controls to use in goats

A

Cow formulations
Fleece more like cattle since less lanolin that sheep

81
Q

What sucking mite affects goats

A

Linognathus stenopsis
- Cross infects sheep and goats

82
Q

Which biting mites affect goats

A

Bovicola caprae, limbate and crassiceps

83
Q

What does white/brown scabby lesions on back of pasterns suggest

A

Chorioptic mange

84
Q

What may be called goat pox but isnt

A

Pustular dermatitis (staphylococcal dermatitis)

85
Q

Where do we see pustular dermatitis lesions

A

On udder, teats, groin, ventrum
Not painful
Doesnt affect milk BUT can predispose to mastitis or seed infection into milk

86
Q

In which animals do we most commonly see pustular dermatitis

A

First time kidders after parturition

87
Q

When do we most commonly see chorioptic mange

A

Housed goats over winter

88
Q

Which bacteria cause pasteurella

A

M haemolytica (mainly A1, A2, A6)
P multocida

89
Q

Which strains cause mycoplasmosis

A

M ovipneumoniae
M arginine

90
Q

Which strains cause tuberculosis

A

Mainly M bovis
Also susceptible to M tuberculosis and M avium subsp avium

91
Q

What organisms cause infectiour scour from birth to 3 weeks

A

E coli
Crypto
Salmonella

92
Q

Which organisms cause infectious scour from 4 to 12 weeks

A

Coccidia
GI parasites

93
Q

What is the key in determining coccidiosis risk

A

Hygiene and management since all kids get infected in first few weeks

94
Q

Most common cause of mastitis

A

Haemolytic coagulase +ve staphs

95
Q

HOw is the milk secretion in goats different to cows

A

It is apocrine secretion not merocrine

96
Q

What different type of machine do we need for somatic cell counts. ingoats and why

A

DNA specific counting methods
- Because milk is apocrine secretion and otherwise the pinched off bits of cytoplasm would be detected as white blood cells

97
Q

Up to what age can we castrate using rubber ring or burdizzo

A

1 week

98
Q

At what age do we need a vet and anaesthetic for castration

A

2 months

99
Q

What can happen if putting disbudding iron on horns for too long

A

Cortical necrosis

Small Ruminants (22 decks)

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