Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMP Exam > Glossary Terms > Flashcards

Glossary Terms Flashcards

1
Q

Acceptance Criteria

A

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Accepted Deliverables

A

Products, results, or capabilities produced by a project and validated by the project customer or sponsors as meeting their specified acceptance criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accuracy

A

Within the quality management system, accuracy is an assessment of correctness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acquire Resources

A

The process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acquisition

A

Obtaining human and material resources necessary to perform project activities. Acquisition implies a cost of resources, and is not necessarily financial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Activity

A

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the course of a project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Activity Attributes

A

Multiple attributes associated with each schedule activity that can be included within the activity list. Activity attributes include activity codes, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Activity Duration

A

The time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity. See also duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Activity Duration Estimates

A

The quantitative assessment of the likely number of time periods that are required to complete an activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Activity List

A

A documented tabulation of the schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Activity-on-Node (AON)/Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

A

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Actual Cost (AC)

A

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Actual Duration

A

The time in calendar units between the actual start date of the schedule activity and either the data date of the project schedule if the schedule activity is in progress or the actual finish date is the schedule activity is complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adaptive Life Cycle

A

A project life cycle that is iterative or incremental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Affinity Diagrams

A

A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Agreements

A

Any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. This can take the form of a contract, memorandum of understanding (MOU), letters of agreement, verbal agreements, email, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alternative Analysis

A

A technique used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to execute and perform the work of the project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Analogous Estimating

A

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from similar a activity or project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Analytical Techniques

A

Various techniques used to evaluate, analyze, or forecast potential outcomes based on possible variations of project or environmental variables and their relationships with other variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Assumption

A

A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Assumption log

A

a project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Attribute sampling

A

A method of measuring quality that consists of noting the presence (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Authority

A

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Backward Pass

A

A critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bar Chart

A

A graphic display of schedule-related information. In the typical bar chart, schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity duration are shown as date-placed horizontal bars. See also Gantt chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Baseline

A

The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Basis of Estimates

A

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Benchmarking

A

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Benefits Management Plan

A

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bid Documents

A

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bidder Conference

A

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. Also known as contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bottom-up Estimating

A

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Budget

A

The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure (WBS) component or any schedule activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Budget at Completion (BAC)

A

The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Buffer/ Reserve

A

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. Often used with a modifier (e.g. management reserve, contingency reserve) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Business Case

A

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Business Value

A

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor. The benefit may be tangible, intangible, or both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cause and Effect Diagram/ Fishbone Diagram

A

A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Change

A

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Change Control

A

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, and approved or rejected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Change Control Board (CCB)

A

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Change Control System

A

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverable and documentation are managed and controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Change Control Tools

A

Manual or automated tools to assist with change and/or configuration management. At a minimum, the tools should support the activities of the CCB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Change Log

A

A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Change Management Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Change Request

A

A formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Charter/Project Charter

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Checklist Analysis

A

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Check Sheet

A

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Claim

A

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Claims Administration

A

The process of processing, adjudicating, and communicating contract claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Close Project or Phase

A

The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Closing Process Group

A

The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Code of Accounts

A

A numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Collect Requirements

A

The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs ad requirements to meet project objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Colocation

A

An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically located close to one another in order to improve communications, working relationships, and productivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Communication Methods

A

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Communication Models

A

A A description, analogy, or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Communication Requirements Analysis

A

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Communications Management Plan

A

A component of the project, program ,or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Communication Styles Assessment

A

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Communication Technology

A

Specific tools, systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Conduct Procurement

A

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Configuration Management Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control, and hot to record and report changes to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Configuration Management System

A

a collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Conformance

A

Within the quality management system, conformance is a general concept of delivering results that fail within the limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Constraint

A

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Context Diagrams

A

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Contingency

A

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project that may be accounted for with a reserve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Contingency Reserve

A

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Contingent Response Strategies

A

Response provided which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Contract

A

A contract is a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Contract Change Control System

A

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Control

A

Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variance, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Control Account

A

A management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Control Chart

A

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limited, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Control Costs

A

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Control Limits

A

The area composed of three standard deviations on either side of the centerline or mean of a normal distribution of data plotted on a control chart, which reflects the expected variation in the data. See also specification limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Control Procurement

A

The process of managing procurement relationships monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Control Quality

A

The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Control Resources

A

The process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual utilization of resources and performing corrective action as necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Control Schedule

A

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and manage changes to the schedule baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Control Scope

A

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Corrective Action

A

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Cost Aggregation

A

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the the various work packages to a given level within the project’s WBS or for a given cost control account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Cost Baseline

A

The approved version of the time-phased project budge, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through the formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cost-Benefit Analysis

A

A financial analysis tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cost Management Plan

A

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structure, and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

A

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing non-conformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

A

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

A

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for the complete work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meet defined performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

A

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Cost Variance (CV)

A

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Crashing

A

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Create WBS

A

The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Criteria

A

Standards, rules, or tests on which judgement or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Critical Path

A

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Critical Path Activity

A

An activity on the critical path in a project schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Critical Path Method (CPM)

A

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Data

A

Discrete, unorganized, unprocessed measurements or raw observations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Data Analysis Techniques

A

Techniques used to organize, assess, and evaluate data and information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Data Date

A

A point in time when the status of the project is recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Data Gathering Techniques

A

Techniques used to collect data and information from a variety of sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Data Representation Techniques

A

Graphic representations or other methods used to convey data and information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Decision-Making Techniques

A

Techniques used to select a course of action from different alternatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Decision Tree Analysis

A

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Decomposition

A

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Defect

A

An imperfection or deficiency in a project component where that component does not meet its requirements or specifications and needs to be either repaired or replaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Defect Repair

A

An intentional activity to modify a non-conforming product or product component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Define Activities

A

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Define Scope

A

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Deliverable

A

A unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Dependency/Logical Relationship

A

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Determine Budget

A

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Development Approach

A

The method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as predictive, iterative, incremental, agile, or a hybrid method.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Develop Project Charter

A

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Develop Project Management Plan

A

The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components and consolidating them into an integrated project management plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Develop Schedule

A

The process of analyzing activity sequences, duration, resources requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model for project execution and monitoring and controlling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Develop Team

A

The process of improving competences, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Diagramming Techniques

A

Approaches to presenting information with logical linkages that aid in understanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Direct and Manage Project Work

A

The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project’s objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Discrete Effort

A

An activity that can be planned and measured and that yields a specific output. Note: Discrete effort is one of three earned value management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Discretionary Dependency

A

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within particular application area or aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Documentation Reviews

A

The process to gathering a corpus of information and reviewing it to determine accuracy and completeness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Duration

A

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure (WBS) component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks. Contrast with effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Early Finish Date (EF)

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Early State Date (ES)

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Earned Value (EV)

A

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Earned Value Management

A

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Effort

A

The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure (WBS) component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks. Contrast with duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Emotional Intelligence

A

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Enterprise Environmental Factors

A

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Estimate

A

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable, such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Estimate of Activity Durations

A

The process of estimating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with the estimated resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Estimate Activity Resources

A

The process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of material, equipment, and supplies necessary to perform project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

A

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Estimate Costs

A

The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Estimate to Compete (ETC)

A

The expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Execute

A

Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work; providing the deliverables; and providing work performance information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Executing Process Group

A

Those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Expert Judgement

A

Judgement provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Explicit Knowledge

A

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

External Dependency

A

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Fallback Plan

A

An alternative set of actions and tasks available in the event that the primary plan needs to be abandoned because of issues, risks, or other causes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Fast Tracking

A

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Fee

A

Represents profit as a component of compensation to a seller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Finish Date

A

A point in time associated with a schedule activity’s completion. Usually qualified y one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled early, late, baseline, target, or current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has fished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Finish-to-Start (FS)

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

A

A type of fixed-price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Fixed-Price Contract

A

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

A

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FPEPA)

A

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustment to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Float/Slack/Free Float/ Total Float

A

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start dates of any successor or violating a schedule constraint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Flowchart

A

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Focus Groups

A

An elicitation technique that brings together pre-qualified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Forecast

A

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Forward Pass

A

A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule model from the project start date or a given point in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Functional Organization

A

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Funding Limit Reconciliation

A

The process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funds against any limits on the commitment of funds for the project to identify any variances between the funding limits and the planned expenditures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Gantt Chart

A

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity duration are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Grade

A

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Ground Rules

A

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Histogram

A

A bar chart that shows the graphical representation of numerical data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Historical Information

A

Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records, correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Identify Risks

A

The process of identifying individual risks as well as sources of overall risk and documenting their characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Identify Stakeholders

A

The process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing the documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Implement Risk Response

A

The process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Imposed Date

A

A fixed date imposed on a schedule activity or schedule milestone, usually in the form of a “start no earlier than” and “finish no later than” date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Incentive Fee

A

A set of financial incentives related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Incremental Life Cycle

A

An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successively add functionality within a predetermined time frame. The deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete only after the final iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Independent Estimates

A

A process of using a third party to obtain and analyze information to support prediction of cost, schedule, or other items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Influence Diagram

A

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Information

A

Organized or structured data, processed for a specific purpose to make it meaningful, valuable, and useful in specific contexts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Information Management Systems

A

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Initiating Process Group

A

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Input

A

Any item, whether internal or external to the project, which is required by a process before that process proceeds. may be an output from a predecessor process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Inspection

A

Examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to documented standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Interpersonal and Team Skills

A

Skills used to effectively lead and interact with team members and other stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Interpersonal Skills

A

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Interviews

A

A formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly.

184
Q

Invitation for Bid (IFB)

A

Generally, this term is equivalent to request for proposal. However, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

185
Q

Issue

A

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

186
Q

Issue Log

A

A project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored.

187
Q

Iterative Life Cycle

A

A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team’s understanding of the product increases. Iterations develop the product through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product.

188
Q

Knowledge

A

A mixture of experience value and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

189
Q

Lag

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

190
Q

Late Finish Date (LF)

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible point tin time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

191
Q

Late Start Date (LS)

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

192
Q

Lead

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to ta predecessor activity.

193
Q

Lessons Learned

A

The knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving future performance.

194
Q

Lessons Learned Register

A

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository.

195
Q

Lessons Learned Repository

A

A store of historical information about lessons learned in projects.

196
Q

Level of Effort (LOE)

A

An activity that does not produce definitive end products and is measured by passage of time.

197
Q

Life Cycle/ Project Life Cycle

A

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion.

198
Q

Log

A

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, or assumption.

199
Q

Make-or-Buy Analysis

A

The process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product.

200
Q

Make-of-Buy Decisions

A

Decisions made regarding the external purchase or internal manufacture of a product.

201
Q

Manage Communications

A

Manage Communications is the process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

202
Q

Management Reserve

A

An amount of the project budget or project schedule held outside of the performance measurement baseline (PMB) for management control purposes, that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project.

203
Q

Management Skills

A

The ability to plan, organize, direct, and control individuals or groups of people to achieve specific goals.

204
Q

Manage Project Knowledge

A

The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project’s objective and contribute to organizational learning.

205
Q

Manage Quality

A

The process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization’s quality policies and project.

206
Q

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement.

207
Q

Manage Team

A

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance.

208
Q

Mandatory Dependency

A

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

209
Q

Master Schedule

A

A summary-level project schedule that identifies the major deliverables and work breakdown structure (WBS) components and key schedule milestones. See also Milestone schedule.

210
Q

Matrix Diagrams

A

A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

211
Q

Matrix Organization

A

Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and directing the work of persons assigned to the project.

212
Q

Methodology

A

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

213
Q

Milestone

A

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio

214
Q

Milestone Schedule

A

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates. See also master schedule.

215
Q

Mind-Mapping

A

A technique used to consolidate ideas created through individuals brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

216
Q

Monitor

A

Collect project performance data, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

217
Q

Monitor and Control Project Work

A

The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.

218
Q

Monitor Communications

A

The process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met.

219
Q

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

A

Those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.

220
Q

Monitor Risks

A

The process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.

221
Q

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

A

The process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships, and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through the modification of engagement strategies and plans.

222
Q

Monte Carlo Simulation

A

An analysis technique where a computer model is iterated many times, with the input values chosen at random for each iteration driven by the input data, including probability distributions and probabilistic branches. Outputs are generated to represent the range of possible outcomes for the project.

223
Q

Multi-criteria Decision Analysis

A

This technique utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.

224
Q

Network/ Project Schedule Network Diagram

A

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

225
Q

Network Logic

A

All activity dependencies in a project schedule network diagram.

226
Q

Network Path

A

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

227
Q

Networking

A

Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or other organizations.

228
Q

Node

A

A point at which dependency lines connect on a schedule network diagram.

229
Q

Nominal Group Technique

A

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

230
Q

Objective

A

Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

231
Q

Opportunity

A

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives

232
Q

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

A

A hierarchical representation of the project organization, which illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities.

233
Q

Organizational Learning

A

A discipline concerned with the way individuals, groups, and organizations develop knowledge.

234
Q

Organizational Process Assets

A

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by performing organizations.

235
Q

Output

A

A product, result, or service generated by a process. May be an input to a successor process.

236
Q

Overall Project Risk

A

The effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty including individual risks, representing the exposure of stakeholders to the implications of variations in project outcome, both positive and negative.

237
Q

Parametric Estimating

A

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data project parameters.

238
Q

Path Convergence

A

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

239
Q

Path Divergence

A

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

240
Q

Percent Complete

A

An estimate expressed as a percent of the amount of work that has been completed on an activity or work breakdown structure component.

241
Q

Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)

A

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution.

242
Q

Performance Reviews

A

A technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline.

243
Q

Perform Integrated Change Control

A

The processes of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating decisions.

244
Q

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

A

The process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.

245
Q

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

The process of numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives.

246
Q

Phase/ Project Phase

A

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

247
Q

Phase Gate

A

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

248
Q

Plan Communications Management

A

The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities based on the information needs to each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project.

249
Q

Plan Cost Management

A

The process of defining how the project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.

250
Q

Planned Value (PV)

A

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

251
Q

Planning Package

A

A work breakdown structure (WBS) component below the control account with known wok content but without detailed schedule activities. See also control account.

252
Q

Planning Process Group

A

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to obtain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

253
Q

Plan Procurement Management

A

The process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers.

254
Q

Plan Quality Management

A

The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards.

255
Q

Plan Resource Management

A

The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and utilize physical and team resources

256
Q

Plan Risk Management

A

The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for the project.

257
Q

Plan Risk Responses

A

The process of developing options, selecting strategies ,and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks.

258
Q

Plan Schedule Management

A

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.

259
Q

Plan Scope Management

A

the process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.

260
Q

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

A

The process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders, based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.

261
Q

Plurality

A

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

262
Q

Policy

A

A structured pattern of actions adopted by an organization such that the organization’s policy can be explained as a set of basic principles that govern the organization’s conduct.

263
Q

Portfolio

A

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

264
Q

Portfolio Management

A

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

265
Q

Practice

A

A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may employ one or more techniques and tools.

266
Q

Precedence Relationship

A

A logical dependency used in the precedence diagramming method.

267
Q

Predecessor Activity

A

An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule.

268
Q

Predictive Life Cycle

A

A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle.

269
Q

Preventive Action

A

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

270
Q

Probability and Impact Matrix

A

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

271
Q

Procedure

A

An established method of accomplishing a consistent performance or result, a procedure typically can be described as the sequence of steps that will be used to execute a process.

272
Q

Process

A

A systematic series of activities directed toward causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

273
Q

Procurement Audits

A

The review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.

274
Q

Procurement Documentation

A

All documents used in signing, executing, and closing an agreement. Procurement documentation may include documents predating the project.

275
Q

Procurement Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire good ans services from outside of the performing organization.

276
Q

Procurement Statement of Work

A

Describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine in they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.

277
Q

Procurement Strategy

A

The approach by the buyer to determine the project delivery method and the type of legally binding agreement(s) that should be used to deliver the desired results.

278
Q

Product

A

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item. Additional words for products are material and goods. See also deliverable.

279
Q

Product Analysis

A

For projects that have a product as a deliverable, it is a tool to define scope that generally means asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be manufactured.

280
Q

Product Life Cycle

A

The series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

281
Q

Product Scope

A

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.

282
Q

Product Scope Description

A

The documented narrative description of the product scope.

283
Q

Program

A

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

284
Q

Program Management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.

285
Q

Progressive Elaboration

A

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

286
Q

Project

A

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

287
Q

Project Calendar

A

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities.

288
Q

Project Communications Management

A

Project Communication Management includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creations, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information.

289
Q

Project Cost Management

A

Project Cost Management includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing , funding, managing, and controlling costs so the project can be completed within the approved budget.

290
Q

Project Funding Requirements

A

Forecast project costs to be paid that are derived from the cost baseline for total or periodic requirements, including projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

291
Q

Project Governance

A

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.

292
Q

Project Initiation

A

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project.

293
Q

Project Integration Management

A

Project Integration Management includes the processes and activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the Project Management Process Groups.

294
Q

Project Management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

295
Q

Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

A

A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management. PMBOK includes proven traditional practices that are widely applied as well as innovative practices that are emerging in the profession.

296
Q

Project Management Information System

A

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes.

297
Q

Project Management Knowledge Area

A

An identified area of project management defined by its knowledge requirements and described in terms of its component processes, practices, inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques.

298
Q

Project Management Office (PMO)

A

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

299
Q

Project Management Plan

A

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

300
Q

Project Management Process Group

A

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. The Project Management Process Groups include initiating processes, planning processes, executing processes, monitoring and controlling processes, and closing processes. Project Management Process Groups are not project phases.

301
Q

Project Management System

A

The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.

302
Q

Project Management Team

A

The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities. See also project team.

303
Q

Project Manager (PM)

A

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project outcomes.

304
Q

Project Organization Chart

A

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

305
Q

Project Procurement Management

A

Project Procurement Management includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team.

306
Q

Project Quality Management

A

Project Quality Management includes the processes for incorporating the organization’s quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements, in order to meet stakeholder expectations.

307
Q

Project Resource Management

A

Project Resource Management includes the processes to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project.

308
Q

Project Risk Management

A

Project Risk Management includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project.

309
Q

Project Schedule/ Schedule

A

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

310
Q

Project Schedule Management

A

Project Schedule Management includes the processes required to manage the timely completion of the project.

311
Q

Project Scope

A

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions.

312
Q

Project Scope Management

A

Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

313
Q

Project Stakeholder Management

A

Project Stakeholder Management includes the processes required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

314
Q

Project Team

A

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives. See also Project Management Team.

315
Q

Project Team Directory

A

A documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information.

316
Q

Proposal Evaluation Techniques

A

The process of reviewing proposals provided by suppliers to support contract award decisions.

317
Q

Prototypes

A

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it.

318
Q

Quality

A

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristic fulfills requirements.

319
Q

Quality Audits

A

A quality audit is a structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

320
Q

Quality Checklists

A

A structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.

321
Q

Quality Control Measurements

A

The documented results of quality control activities.

322
Q

Quality Measurement Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

323
Q

Quality Management System

A

The organizational framework whose structure provides the policies, processes, procedures, and resources required to implement the quality management plan. The typical quality management plan should be compatible to the organization’s quality management system.

324
Q

Quality Metrics

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

325
Q

Quality Policy

A

A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

326
Q

Quality Report

A

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

327
Q

Quality Requirement

A

A condition or capability that will be used to assess conformance by validating the acceptability of an attribute for the quality of a result.

328
Q

Questionnaires

A

Written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large number of respondents.

329
Q

RACI Chart

A

A common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

330
Q

Regression Analysis

A

An analytical technique where a series of input variable are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship

331
Q

Regulations

A

Requirements imposed by a governmental body. These requirements can establish product, process, or service characteristics, including application administrative provisions that have government-mandated compliance.

332
Q

Request for Information (RFI)

A

A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service or seller capability.

333
Q

Request for Proposal (RFP)

A

A type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. In some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

334
Q

Requests for Quotation (RFQ)

A

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospective sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes used in place of request for proposal and, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

335
Q

Requirement

A

A condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.

336
Q

Requirements Documentation

A

A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

337
Q

Requirements Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

338
Q

Requirements Traceability Matrix

A

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

339
Q

Reserve Analysis

A

An analytical technique to determine the essential features and relationships of components in the project management plan to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project.

340
Q

Residual Risk

A

The risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

341
Q

Resource

A

A team member or any physical item needed to complete the project.

342
Q

Resources Breakdown Structure

A

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

343
Q

Resource Calendar

A

A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available.

344
Q

Resource Histogram

A

A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods.

345
Q

Resource Leveling

A

A resource optimization technique in which adjustments are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocation of resources and which may affect the critical path. See also resource optimization technique and resource smoothing.

346
Q

Resource Management Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled.

347
Q

Resource Manager

A

An individual with management authority over one or more resources.

348
Q

Resource Optimization Technique

A

A technique in which activity start and finish dates are adjusted to balance demand for resources with the available supply. See also resource leveling and resource smoothing.

349
Q

Resource Requirements

A

The types and quantities of resources required for each activity in the work package.

350
Q

Resource Smoothing

A

A resource optimization technique in which free and total float are used without affecting the critical path. See also resource leveling and resource optimization technique.

351
Q

Responsibility

A

An assignment that can be delegated within a project management plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment.

352
Q

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

A

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

353
Q

Result

A

An output form performing project management processes and activities. Results include outcomes (eg integrated systems, revised processes, restructured organization, tests, trained personnel, etc.) and documents (eg policies, plans, studies, procedures, specification, reports, etc.) See also deliverables.

354
Q

Rework

A

Action taken to bring a defective or non-conforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

355
Q

Risk

A

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

356
Q

Risk Acceptance

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.

357
Q

Risk Appetite

A

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

358
Q

Risk Audit

A

A type of audit used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management process

359
Q

Risk Avoidance

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

360
Q

Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

A

A hierarchical representation of potential risk sources

361
Q

Risk Categorization

A

Organized by sources of risk (eg, using the RBS), the area of the project affected (eg using the WBS), or other useful category (eg project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.

362
Q

Risk Category

A

A group of potential causes of risk

363
Q

Risk Data Quality Assessment

A

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.

364
Q

Risk Enhancement

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

365
Q

Risk Escalation

A

A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledges that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed.

366
Q

Risk Exploiting

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

367
Q

Risk Exposure

A

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

368
Q

Risk Management Plan

A

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.

369
Q

Risk Mitigation

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to decrease the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

370
Q

Risk Owner

A

The person responsible for monitoring the risks and for selecting and implementing an appropriate risk response strategy.

371
Q

Risk Register

A

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded.

372
Q

Risk Report

A

A project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management process, which summarized information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk.

373
Q

Risk Review

A

A meeting to examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with overall project risk and with identified individual project risks.

374
Q

Risk Sharing

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity.

375
Q

Risk Threshold

A

The measure of acceptable variation around an objective that reflects the risk appetite of the organization and stakeholders. See also risk appetite.

376
Q

Risk Transference

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party together with ownership of the response.

377
Q

Role

A

A defined function to be performed by a project team member, such as testing, filing, inspecting, or coding.

378
Q

Rolling Wave Planning

A

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, which the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

379
Q

Root Cause Analysis

A

An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk. A root cause may underlie more than one variance or defect or risk.

380
Q

Schedule Baseline

A

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

381
Q

Schedule Compression

A

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

382
Q

Schedule Data

A

The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule.

383
Q

Schedule Forecasts

A

Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated.

384
Q

Schedule Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

385
Q

Schedule Model

A

A representation of the plan for executing the project’s activities including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts.

386
Q

Schedule Network Analysis

A

A technique to identify early and late start dates as well as early and late finish dates for uncompleted portions of project activities.

387
Q

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

A

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value

388
Q

Schedule Variance (SV)

A

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

389
Q

Scheduling Tool

A

A tool that provides schedule component names, definitions, structural relationships, and formats that support the application of a scheduling method.

390
Q

Scope

A

The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project. See also project scope and product scope.

391
Q

Scope Baseline

A

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

392
Q

Scope Creep

A

The uncontrolled expansion to a product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

393
Q

Scope Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

394
Q

Secondary Risk

A

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

395
Q

Self-Organizing Teams

A

A team formation where the team functions with an absence of centralized control.

396
Q

Seller

A

A provider or supplier of products, services, or results to an organization.

397
Q

Seller Proposals

A

Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.

398
Q

Sensitivity Analysis

A

An analysis technique to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model.

399
Q

Sequence Activities

A

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.

400
Q

Services Level Agreement (SLA)

A

A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider.

401
Q

Simulation

A

An analytical technique that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives.

402
Q

Source Selection Criteria

A

A set of attributes desired y the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract.

403
Q

Specification

A

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristics that are required.

404
Q

Specification Limits

A

The area, on either side of the centerline, or mean, of data plotted on a control chart that meets the customer’s requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than the area defined by the control limits. See also control limits.

405
Q

Sponsor

A

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

406
Q

Sponsoring Organization

A

The entity responsible for providing the project’s sponsor and a conduit for project funding or other project resources.

407
Q

Stakeholder

A

An individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio.

408
Q

Stakeholder Analysis

A

A technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine who interests should be taken into account throughout the project.

409
Q

Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

A

A matrix that compares the current and desired stakeholder engagement levels.

410
Q

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution.

411
Q

Stakeholder Register

A

A project document including the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders.

412
Q

Standard

A

A document established by an authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.

413
Q

Start Date

A

A point in time associated with a schedule activity’s start, usually qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, target, baseline, or current.

414
Q

Start-to Finish (SF)

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started.

415
Q

Start to Start (SS)

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

416
Q

Statement of Work (SOW)

A

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

417
Q

Statistical Sampling

A

Choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

418
Q

Successor Activity

A

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule.

419
Q

Summary Activity

A

A group of related schedule activities aggregated and displayed as a single activity.

420
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option.

421
Q

Tacit Knowledge

A

Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experiences, and insights.

422
Q

Tailoring

A

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

423
Q

Team Charter

A

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

424
Q

Team Management Plan

A

A component of the resource management plan that describes when and how team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed.

425
Q

Technique

A

A defined systematic procedure employed by a human resource to perform an activity to produce a product or result or deliver a service, and that may employ one or more tools.

426
Q

Templates

A

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data.

427
Q

Test and Evaluation Documents

A

Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets the quality objectives started in the quality management plan.

428
Q

Threat

A

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives.

429
Q

Three-Point Estimating

A

A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates where there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

430
Q

Threshold

A

A predetermined value of a measurable project variable that represents a limit that requires action to be taken if it is reached.

431
Q

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

A

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.

432
Q

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

A

A measure of the cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

433
Q

Tolerance

A

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

434
Q

Tool

A

Something tangible, such as a template or software program, used in performing an activity to produce a products or result.

435
Q

Tornado Diagram

A

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

436
Q

Trend Analysis

A

An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical trends.

437
Q

Trigger Condition

A

An event or situation that indicates a risk is likely to occur

438
Q

Unanimity

A

Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action.

439
Q

Update

A

A modification to any deliverable, project management plan component, or project document that is not under formal change control.

440
Q

Validate Scope

A

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

441
Q

Validation

A

The assurance that a produce, service, or result meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders. Contrasts with verification.

442
Q

Variance

A

A quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value.

443
Q

Variance Analysis

A

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

444
Q

Variance at Completion (VAC)

A

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion.

445
Q

Variation

A

An actual condition that is different from the expected condition that is contained in the baseline plan.

446
Q

Verification

A

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or result complies with regulation, requirements, specification, or imposed condition. Contrast with validation.

447
Q

Verified Deliverables

A

Completed project deliverables that have been checked and confirmed for correctness through Control Quality process.

448
Q

Virtual Teams

A

Groups of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles with little or no time spent meeting face to face.

449
Q

Voice of the Customer

A

A planning technique used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of project product development.

450
Q

WBS Dictionary

A

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the work breakdown structure (WBS).

451
Q

What-If Scenario Analysis

A

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives.

452
Q

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

453
Q

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Component

A

An entry in the work breakdown structure (WBS) that can be at any level

454
Q

Work Package

A

The work defined at the lowest level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for which cost and duration estimates are managed.

455
Q

Work Performance Data

A

The raw observations and measurement identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work.

456
Q

Work Performance Information

A

The performance data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information.

457
Q

Work Performance Reports

A

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.

PMP Exam (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions