GI, Topnotch Flashcards

1
Q

Vertebral level: Umbilicus

A

IVD of L3-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vertebral level: Subcostal plane

A

10th rib, L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Iliac tubercle

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Central regions of the anterior abdomen (3)

A

1) Epigastric 2) Periumbilical 3) Hypogastric/pelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lateral regions of the anterior abdomen

A

1) Hypochondriac 2) Lumbar 3) Inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dermatomal level: Apex of supraclavicular fossa

A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dermatomal level: Acromioclavicular joint

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dermatomal level: Radial side of antecubital fossa

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dermatomal level: Dorsal surface of proximal phalanx of thumb

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dermatomal level: Dorsal surface of proximal phalanx of middle finger

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dermatomal level: Dorsal surface of proximal phalanx of little finger

A

C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dermatomal level: Ulnar side of antecubital fossa

A

T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dermatomal level: Apex of axilla

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dermatomal level: Nipple/4th ICS MCL

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dermatomal level: Midway between nipple and xiphisternum MCL

A

T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dermatomal level: Xiphisternum

A

T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dermatomal level: 1/4 between xiphisternum and umbilicus MCL

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dermatomal level: 1/2 between xiphisternum and umbilicus, MCL

A

T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dermatomal level: Umbilicus MCL

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dermatomal level: Midpoint of inguinal ligament

A

T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dermatomal level: Anteromedial thigh

A

L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dermatomal level: Medial femoral condyle

A

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dermatomal level: Medial malleolus

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dermatomal level: Dorsum of foot

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dermatomal level: Lateral heel

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dermatomal level: Popliteal fossa

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dermatomal level: Ischial tuberosity

A

S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dermatomal level: Perianal area 1 cm lateral to mucocutaneous junction

A

S4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most superficial abdominal muscle

A

External oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

External oblique: Direction of fibers

A

Obliquely downward and medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Immediately deep to the external oblique

A

Internal onlique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Internal oblique: Direction of fibers

A

Obliquely upward and medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Components of conjoint tendon

A

Aponeurotic fivers of 1) Internal oblique 2) Transversus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Muscle whose aponeurosis splits to form the rectus sheath

A

Internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Innermost abdominal muscle

A

Transversus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Muscle on either side of line alba

A

Rectus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lateral borders of rectus abdominis

A

Linea semilunaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Crescentic border on the posterior wall of the abdomen midway between the umbilicus and pubic crest

A

Arcuate line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Characteristic arrangement of fibers above arcuate line

A

Internal oblique aponeurosis splits to form rectus sheath (present posterior layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Characteristic arrangement of fibers below arcuate line

A

Internal oblique aponeurosis is superficial to the rectus sheath (absent posterior layer) and transversalis fascia is directly below the rectus abdominis muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Contents of rectus sheath (4)

A

1) Rectus abdominis 2) Pyramidalis 3) Superior and inferior epigastric vessels 4) Lower 5 intercostal and subcostal vessels and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Boundaries of foramen of Winslow: Anterior

A

Hepatoduodenal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Boundaries of foramen of Winslow: Posterior

A

IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Boundaries of foramen of Winslow: Superior

A

Caudate lobe of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Boundaries of foramen of Winslow: Inferior

A

Superior part of duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Extensions of visceral peritoneum (3)

A

1) Mesentery 2) Ligaments 3) Omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Layers: Mesentery

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Layers: Ligaments

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Supports hollow viscous to body wall for neurovascular communication

A

Mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Connects viscera to each other or to the body wall

A

Ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Connects the stomach with other viscera

A

Omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Layers: Greater omentum

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Abdominal policeman

A

Greater omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 parts of greater omentum

A

1) Gastrophrenic 2) Gastrosplenic 3) Gastrocolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Layers: Lesser omentum

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Greater omentum connects

A

Greater curvature and proximal duodenum to transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lesser omentum connects

A

Lesser curvature to fissure for ligamentum venosum and porta hepatic of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hepatoduodenal ligament: Posterior

A

Portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hepatoduodenal ligament: Anterior to the right

A

CBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hepatoduodenal ligament: Anterior to the left

A

Hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Inflammation of this layer of peritoneum causes rebound tenderness and guarding

A

Parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Brough about by congestion of the venous drainage of the abdomen

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Paracentesis at the midline goes through these layers (7)

A

1) Skin 2) Superficial fascia 3) Deep fascia 4) Linea alba 5) Transversalis fascia 6) Extraperitoneal fat 7) Parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Paracentesis lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and above the deep circumflex artery goes through these layers (7)

A

1) Skin 2) External oblique 3) Internal oblique 4) Transversus abdominis 5) Transversalis fascia 6) Extraperitoneal fat 7) Parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Branches of the splenic artery (2)

A

1) Left gastroepiploic 2) Short gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Branches of the common hepatic artery (3)

A

1) Right gastric 2) Right and left hepatic 3) Gastroduodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Branches of the gastroduodenal artery (2)

A

1) Right gastroepiploic 2) Superior pancreaticoduodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Branches of the SMA (5)

A

1) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal 2) Middle colic 3) Right colic 4) Ileocolic 5) Jejunal-ileal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Branches of the IMA (3)

A

1) Left colic 2) Sigmoid 3) Superior rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Common site of aortic aneurysm

A

Just proximal to the bifurcation at L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Occlusion of the celiac artery results in collateral circulation by way of anastomosis between

A

Pancreaticoduodenal and gastroduodenal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Branch of celiac artery eroded: Penetrating ulcer of posterior wall of stomach

A

Splenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Branch of celiac artery eroded: Lesser curvature of stomach

A

Left gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Posterior wall of 1st part of duodenum

A

Gastroduodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Erosion of celiac circulation may present as referred pain at

A

Shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Tributaries of IVC (8)

A

1) Right and left hepatic 2) Right suprarenal 3) Right gonadal 4) Right and left renal 5) Inferior phrenic 6) Lumbar 7) Right and left common iliac 8) Median sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

May be compressed by aneurysm of SMA causing renal and adrenal htn

A

Left renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tributaries of portal venous circulation

A

1) Superior mesenteric 2) Inferior mesenteric 3) Splenic 4) Left gastric 5) Paraumbilical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Length of esophagus

A

25 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Esophagus: Enters the stomach at

A

Cardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Continuous above with laryngeal part of pharynx at the level of

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Passes through diaphragm at the level of

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Structures through diaphragm: T8

A

IVC and right phrenic via Caval hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Structures through diaphragm: T10

A

Esophagus and vagus via esophageal hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Structures through diaphragm: T12

A

Aorta, thoracic duct, and azygos vein via aortic hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Esophageal constrictions

A

1) Upper/Pharyngoesophageal 2) Middle/Thoracic 3) Inferior/Diaphragmatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Upper esophageal constriction is caused by

A

Cricopharyngeus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Middle esophageal constriction is caused by

A

Aortic arch and left main bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Inferior esophageal constriction is caused by

A

Esophageal hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

T/F Esophageal constrictions are common sites of carcinoma

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the neck: Anterior (2)

A

1) Trachea 2) Recurrent laryngeal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the neck: Posterior (2)

A

1) Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia 2) Vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the neck: Lateral

A

Thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the thorax: Anterior (4)

A

1) Trachea 2) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve 3) Left main bronchus 4) Pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the thorax: Posterior (5)

A

1) Bodies of thoracic vertebrae 2) Thoracic duct 3) Azygos vein 4) Right posterior intercostal artery 5) Descending thoracic aorta

96
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the thorax: Right (2)

A

1) Mediastinal pleura 2) Azygos vein

97
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the thorax: Left (4)

A

1) Left subclavian 2) Aortic arch 3) Thoracic duct 4) Mediastinal pleura

98
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the abdomen: Anterior

A

Posterior surface of left lobe of liver

99
Q

Relations of the esophagus in the abdomen: Posterior

A

Left crus of diaphragm

100
Q

Arterial supply to the esophagus: Upper 3rd

A

Inferior thyroid artery from subclavian

101
Q

Arterial supply to the esophagus: Middle 3rd

A

Descending thoracic aorta

102
Q

Arterial supply to the esophagus: Lower 3rd

A

Left gastric artery from celiac trunk

103
Q

Venous drainage of the esophagus: Upper 3rd

A

Inferior thyroid vein

104
Q

Venous drainage of the esophagus: Middle 3rd

A

Azygos vein

105
Q

Venous drainage of the esophagus: Lower 3rd

A

Left gastric vein

106
Q

Lymphatic drainage of esophagus: Upper 3rd

A

Deep cervical

107
Q

Lymphatic drainage of esophagus: Middle 3rd

A

Superior and inferior mediastinal

108
Q

Lymphatic drainage of esophagus: Lower 3rd

A

Celiac

109
Q

Management for oesophageal haemorrhage from varicose by balloon insertion

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore Balloon Insertion

110
Q

Average distance between external nasal orifices and stomach

A

44 cm

111
Q

Capacity of stomach

A

1.5 L

112
Q

Part of esophagus near the GEJ

A

Cardia

113
Q

Part of esophagus that is dilated superiorly

A

Fundus

114
Q

Part of esophagus between the fundus and pylorus (major part)

A

Body

115
Q

Distal part of stomach

A

Pylorus

116
Q

Sharp indentation of the stomach that approximates the junction of the body and pylorus

A

Angular incisura/notch

117
Q

Concave border of stomach

A

Lesser curvature

118
Q

Convex border of stomach

A

Greater curvature

119
Q

Level of the cardiac orifice of stomach

A

6th left costal cartilage 2-4 cm from median plane at the level of T10 or T11

120
Q

Level of the fundus of stomach

A

5th left rib, MCL

121
Q

Level of the greater curvature of stomach

A

Up to 10th costal cartilage

122
Q

Level of the pyloric antrum of stomach

A

9th costal cartilage or at L1 approximately 1.25 cm from midline

123
Q

Level of the pyloric canal of stomach

A

Right side, L2-L4

124
Q

Layer that hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Muscularis externa

125
Q

Anterior relations of stomach (3)

A

1) Diaphragm 2) Left lobe of liver 3) Anterior abdominal wall

126
Q

Posterior relations of stomach (2)

A

1) Omental bursa 2) Pancreas

127
Q

On which the stomach rests when a person is lying supine

A

Stomach bed

128
Q

Forms the stomach bed

A

Structures forming the posterior wall of the omental bursa

129
Q

Structures forming the posterior wall of the omental bursa (6)

A

1) Left dome of diaphragm 2) Spleen 3) Left kidney and adrenal gland 4) Splenic artery 5) Pancreas 6) Transverse mesocolon and colon

130
Q

Blood supply of stomach: Lesser curvature

A

Right and left gastric arteries

131
Q

Blood supply of stomach: Greater curvature

A

Right and left gastroepiploic arteries

132
Q

Blood supply of stomach: Fundus

A

Short gastric artery

133
Q

Largest branch of the celiac trunk

A

Splenic artery

134
Q

Largest arterial supply to the stomach and smallest branch of the celiac trunk

A

Left gastric artery

135
Q

Venous drainage of stomach: Right and left gastric

A

Portal vein

136
Q

Venous drainage of stomach: Left gastroepiploic and short gastric

A

Splenic vein to the portal vein

137
Q

Venous drainage of stomach: Right gastroepiploic

A

Superior mesenteric to portal vein

138
Q

PSY supply to the stomach (2)

A

1) Anterior vagal trunk from left vagus 2) Posterior vagal trunk from right vagus

139
Q

PSY supply to stomach

A

T6-T9

140
Q

Most gastric ulcers occur at

A

Lesser curvature, directly above the incisura

141
Q

Carcinomas of the stomach are mostly found in

A

Distal 3rd

142
Q

Distance from nasal orifices: Proximal esophageal narrowing

A

18 cm

143
Q

Distance from nasal orifices: Middle esophageal narrowing

A

28 cm

144
Q

Distance from nasal orifices: Distal esophageal narrowing

A

44 cm

145
Q

Length of duodenum

A

25 cm

146
Q

Duodenojejunal junction is seen at what level

A

L2

147
Q

Parts of duodenum

A

1) Superior 2) Descending 3) Horizontal 4) Ascending

148
Q

Length of part of duodenum: Superior

A

5 cm

149
Q

Length of part of duodenum: Descending

A

7-10 cm

150
Q

Length of part of duodenum: Horizontal

A

6-8cm

151
Q

Length of part of duodenum: Ascending

A

5 cm

152
Q

Level of part of duodenum: Superior

A

L1

153
Q

Level of part of duodenum: Descending

A

L1-3

154
Q

Level of part of duodenum: Horizontal

A

L3

155
Q

Level of part of duodenum: Ascending

A

L3-2

156
Q

Blood supply of duodenum: Superior part

A

Superior pancreaticoduodenal

157
Q

Blood supply of duodenum: Inferior part

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal

158
Q

Venous drainage of duodenum: Superior part

A

Superior pancreaticoduodenal to portal

159
Q

Venous drainage of duodenum: Inferior part

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal to superior mesenteric

160
Q

Duodenal ulcers most often occur at: Anterior vs posterior wall

A

Anterior

161
Q

Perforation of ulcers most often occur at: Anterior vs posterior wall

A

Anterior

162
Q

Blood type with increased risk of gastric ulcer

A

A

163
Q

Blood type with increased risk of duodenal ulcer

A

O

164
Q

Most commonly eroded artery in gastric ulcer perforation

A

Left gastric artery

165
Q

Most commonly eroded artery in duodenal ulcer perforation

A

Gastroduodenal

166
Q

Jejunoileal segment: Jejunal part

A

Proximal 2/5

167
Q

Jejunoileal segment: Ileal part

A

Distal 3/5

168
Q

Jejunoileal segment: Length

A

6-7 m

169
Q

Quadrant: Jejunum

A

LUQ

170
Q

Quadrant: Ileum

A

RLQ

171
Q

Jejunum: Color

A

Deep red

172
Q

Jejunum: Caliber

A

2-4 cm

173
Q

Jejunum: Wall

A

Thick & heavy

174
Q

Jejunum: Vascularity

A

Greater

175
Q

Jejunum: Vasa rect

A

Long

176
Q

Jejunum: Arcades

A

Few, large

177
Q

Jejunum: Fat

A

Less

178
Q

Jejunum: Plicae circularis

A

Large, tall

179
Q

Jejunum: Lymphoid nodules

A

Few

180
Q

Ileum: Color

A

Paler pink

181
Q

Ileum: Caliber

A

2-3 cm

182
Q

Ileum: Wall

A

Thin and light

183
Q

Ileum: Vascularity

A

Less

184
Q

Ileum: Vasa recta

A

Short

185
Q

Ileum: Arcades

A

Many

186
Q

Ileum: Fat

A

More

187
Q

Ileum: Plicae circulares

A

Low, sparse, absent in distal segment

188
Q

Ileum: Lymphoid nodules

A

Many

189
Q

Instussuceptus vs intussucipiens: Proximal segment that invaginates

A

Instussuceptus

190
Q

Instussuceptus vs intussucipiens: Distal segment that receives invaginating segment

A

Intussucipiens

191
Q

Intussusception: Most common

A

Ileocecal

192
Q

Intussusception: More common, children vs adult

A

Children

193
Q

Intussusception: Signs of obstruction

A

1) Right-sided colicky abdominal pain 2) Abdominal distention 3) Hematochezia

194
Q

Pancreas: Anterior, R to L

A

1) Transverse mesocolon 2) Lesser sac 3) Stomach

195
Q

Pancreas: Posterior, R to L

A

1) Bile duct 2) Portal and splenic veins 3) IVC 4) Aorta 5) SMA 6) Left psoas 7) Left suprarenal 8) Left kidney 9) Spleen

196
Q

Pancreas: Parts

A

1) Head 2) Neck 3) Body 4) Tail 5) Uncinate process

197
Q

Pancreas: Part that overlies superior mesenteric vessels

A

Neck

198
Q

Pancreas: Part that lies to the left of the SMA and SMV

A

Body

199
Q

Pancreas: Part that is closely related to the hilum of the spleen and left colic flexure

A

Tail

200
Q

Pancreas: Uncinate process projects from

A

Inferior part of the head

201
Q

Pancreas: Uncinate process extends medially to the left, posterior to the

A

SMA

202
Q

Main vs accessory pancreatic duct: Extends the length of the pancreas

A

Main

203
Q

Main vs accessory pancreatic duct: Enters the duodenum

A

Both

204
Q

Main vs accessory pancreatic duct: Joins the bile duct

A

Main

205
Q

Main pancreatic duct joins the bile duct to form the

A

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

206
Q

Accessory pancreatic duct lies in the

A

Head

207
Q

Pancreas: Blood supply (3)

A

1) Superior pancreaticoduodenal from gastroduodenal 2) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal from SMA 3) Pancreatic arteries from splenic

208
Q

Pancreatectomy: With splenic artery ligation

A

Warshaw technique

209
Q

Pancreas: Venous drainage

A

Mainly into splenic vein

210
Q

Most common cause of extrahepatic obstruction of biliary system

A

Pancreatic CA

211
Q

Pancreas: Cancer of body and neck may cause obstruction of (2)

A

1) Portal circulation 2) IVC

212
Q

Liver: Structures located posteriorly (8)

A

1) Diaphragm 2) Right kidney 3) Hepatic flexure of colon 4) Duodenum 5) GB 6) IVC 7) Esophagus 8) Fundus of stomach

213
Q

Liver: Covered by peritoneum except at

A

Posteriorly, called bare area

214
Q

Ligamentum teres hepatis is located between what structures

A

1) Left lobe 2) Quadrate lobe

215
Q

Ligamentum venosum is located between

A

1) Left lobe 2) Caudate lobe

216
Q

Liver: Anatomical lobes

A

1) Left 2) Right

217
Q

Liver: Right lobe is divided into

A

Caudate and quadrate lobes

218
Q

Liver: Segments

A

1) Medial superior I 2) Lateral superior II 3) Lateral inferior III 4) Medial inferior IV 5) Anterior inferior V 6) Posterior inferior VI 7) Posterior superior VII 8) Anterior superior VIII

219
Q

Liver: Apices of cross-sections of portal lobules

A

Central vein

220
Q

Liver: Centers of cross-sections of portal lobules

A

Portal triad

221
Q

Portal vein is formed by union of

A

1) Superior mesenteric vein 2) Splenic vein

222
Q

Liver: % blood supplied by portal vein

A

70%

223
Q

Liver: Biopsy is usually done at

A

Right 10th ICS MAL

224
Q

Gallbladder: Lies at which surface of the liver

A

Inferior

225
Q

Gallbladder: Capacity

A

30-50 mL

226
Q

Gallbladder: Posterior relations

A

1) Transverse colon 2) 1st and 2nd parts of duodenum

227
Q

Gallbladder: Cystohepatic triangle

A

Triangle of Calot

228
Q

Triangle of Calot: Boundaries

A

1) Superior - Liver 2) Inferior - Cystic duct 3) Medial - Common hepatic duct

229
Q

Triangle of Calot: Content

A

Cystic artery

230
Q

Cystic artery is USUALLY a branch of

A

Right hepatic artery

231
Q

Common site of impacted gallstone

A

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

232
Q

Impacted gallstone at hepatopancreatic ampulla: Referred pain

A

Epigastric region

233
Q

Stone blocking the cystic duct: Characteristic pain

A

Biliary colic

234
Q

Describe biliary colic

A

Begins in the epigastric region but moves to a point where 9th costal cartilage intersects the lateral border of the rectus sheath

235
Q

Dermatomes of referred pain of GIT

A

T5-L1

236
Q

Valve of Houston is associated with what organ

A

Rectum