GI session 9/10 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: it is essential for the CRTZ to have a functional blood brain barrier

A

FALSE: The CRTZ is exposed to the blood, just like the rest of the areas of the CNS that DO have functional BBB. In fact, it is essential that CRTZ does not have a functional BBB or it would not be able to continuously ‘sample’ the chemical composition of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drug has become a first-line antiemetic in dogs and cats, and has an injectable formulation that may cause less stinging when chilled before injection.

A

Maropitant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Metoclopramide is used first as a prokinetic. Which of its side effects gives it a second use?

A

Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diphenhydramine, a ‘first-generation’ antihistamine (H1 receptor antagonist), is typical of many first-generation antihistamines in that it has anticholinergic (muscarinic cholinergic antagonist) effects. Name some anticholinergic effects.

A

ileus
xerostoma (dry mouth)
urinary retention
dry eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drug class is apomorphine?

A

Dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drug class is loperamide?

A

opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drug class is Diphenoxylate?

A

Opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is Diphenhydramine an effective antiemetic in cats?

A

ineffective in cats, inconsistant effectiveness in dogs

low bioavilability in dogs (<10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Preciosa, an 8-year-old, 25-pound Minatare Poodle, is well-known at your clinic because she tolerates handling, even rough handling, anywhere on her body, EXCEPT anything involving opening her mouth, at which point she becomes completely unhinged. You are seeing Preciosa on emergency because she very recently consumed an unknown quantity of baker’s chocolate. If you choose to administer an emetic, which emetic would be the best choice?

A

Apomorphine - injectable!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When oral antacids are co-administered to patients taking a fluoroquinolone antibacterial drug, what order should the drugs be given in?

A

Administer the fluoroquinolone, wait 2 hours, then give antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Aluminum containing antacids and sucralfate can prevent oral absorption of drugs that chelate with aluminum. When given together, which drug classes should be given 2 hours prior to ensure absorption?

A

Fluoroquinolones
Digoxin
Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which drug class has an evidence-basis for being the most effective choice to attain a sustained gastric pH increase?

A

PPI

Omeprazole, Pantoprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which drug drug forms a polymeric barrier over the gastric mucosa

A

Sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sulfasalazine and 5-ASA are used to treat inflammatory bowel disease occurring in the

A

large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___________ is an appetite stimulant with documented effectiveness in cats, while _______ stimulates growth hormone release and is an FDA-approved appetite stimulant in dogs.

A

mirtazapine, capromorelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for Tritrchomonas?

A

Ronidazole

17
Q

What is Praziquantel used to treat?

A

Cestodes

18
Q

What condition should you rule out before prescribing Maropitant?

A

obstruction

19
Q

Are H2 antagonists such as Famotidine effective in the prevention of gastric ulceration associated with NSAID administration?

A

NO

used for treatment of ulcers, nor prevention

20
Q

Which GI protectant is effective at preventing ulcers when given with NSAIDs but not with glucocorticoids?

A

Misprostol

21
Q

What is an AE effect of metronidazole?

A

Neurotoxicity

22
Q

Which form of chronic enteropathy is most commonly diagnosed in young patients?

A

food responsive enteropathy

23
Q

Why would testing a blood cobalamin level be potentially indicated in patients presenting with chronic gastrointestinal signs?

A

Cobalamin deficiency can support a diagnosis of distal small intestinal enteropathy

  • absorbed in the ileum
  • most helpful in cats
  • deficiency can cause anemia, weakness, and contribute to diarrhea
  • vitamin B12
  • water soluble therefore excess levels excreted by kidney
24
Q

What signalment indicates abdominal imaging may be helpful in cases of chronic enteropathy?

A

older patients with weight loss, palpable abnormalities (mass), progressive and severe clinical signs

25
Q

What are the 2 drugs prescribed to manage antibiotic-responsive enteropathy?

A

Metrondiazole and Tylosin

26
Q

What drug class is Budesonide?

A

Glucocorticoid

helpful in chronic inflammatory enteropathy

27
Q

Why quality of Budesonide makes it good for treating steroid responsive chronic enteropathy?

A

orally administered

high topical activity with low systemic bioavailability

28
Q

What is the recommended length for an elimination diet trial in a patient with suspected food responsive enteropathy?

A

2-4 weeks

29
Q

What is the recommended length for a patient with suspected food responsive enteropathy who is showing signs of cutaneous adverse food reaction?

A

8-12 weeks with cutaneous signs

30
Q

Name signs of GI adverse food reactions

A
  • inc daily number of bowel movements
  • cutaneous signs
  • otitis externa
  • pruritus