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Year 3 > GI Pharmacology > Flashcards

GI Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Three important centres affecting nausea and vomiting are the vomiting centre, the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and the vestibular nuclei. These are located in the ____________

A

Medulla

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2
Q

The __________ contains receptors (opioid mu, kappa, dopamine-type 2 [D2], neurokinin-1 [NK1], and serotonin [5-HT3] that detect emetic agents in the blood and relays information to the vomiting centre

A

CTZ (Chemoreceptor trigger zone)

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3
Q

Toxic agents, microorganisms, toxins, cytotoxic drugs, and mechanical distension can lead to the release of mediators/neurotransmitters from ___________________ cells in the lining of the GI tract.

A

Enterochromaffin

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4
Q

Main NT’s/mediators involved in control of vomiting

A

Acetylcholine
Histamine
5-HT
Dopamine
Substance P

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5
Q

Name three substances that are carried through the bloodstream that directly stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

Opioids
Ketoacids
Urea

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6
Q

Vomiting predominantly in the morning is associated with which three conditions?

A

Pregnancy
Uraemia
Alcoholic gastritis

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7
Q

Distal intestinal obstruction or gastrocolic fistulas can produce what kind of vomiting?

A

Feculent emesis

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8
Q

What type of vomiting is associated with increased intracranial pressure?

A

Projectile vomiting

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9
Q

Vomiting during or shortly after a meal is associated with which gastric condition?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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10
Q

MOA of Metoclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonist

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11
Q

MOA of Chlorpromazine

A

D2 receptor antagonist

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12
Q

MOA of Ondansetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

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13
Q

MOA of Cyclizine

A

H1 receptor blocker

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14
Q

MOA of H1 receptor antagonists: The vomiting centre possesses neutrons which are rich in cholinergic and histamine receptors. These types of neutrons are especially involved in the transmission from the vestibular apparatus or periphery to the vomiting centre. _______________ acts to block the histamine receptors in the CNS, thus reducing activity along these pathways.

A

Cyclizine

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15
Q

Indication for this H1 receptor antagonist include nausea and vomiting caused by:
- Motion sickness
- Narcotic analgesics
- Anaesthetics in the post-operative period
- Vomiting associated with radiotherapy

A

Cyclizine

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16
Q

Adverse effects of Cyclizine (H1 receptor antagonist)?

A

Drowsiness
Confusion
Constipation
Urinary retention (possibly d/t anticholinergic effects)

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17
Q

Contraindications for Cyclizine (H1 receptor antagonist)?

A

Acute alcohol intoxication- may increase the toxicity of alcohol

18
Q

Primary site of action for 5HT-3 receptor antagonist (Ondansetron)?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

19
Q

MOA of 5HT-3 receptor antagonist:

Chemotherapy and radiotherapy —> serotonin from enterochromaffin cells of the small intestine —> presumably initiating a vomiting reflex through stimulation of 5-HT3 receptors located on vagal afferents. _______________ may block the initiation of this reflex. Activation of vagal afferents —> central release of serotonin from the CTZ. Thus, the antiemetic effect of _____________ is probably d/t the selective antagonism of 5-HT3 receptors on neurons located in either the peripheral or CNS, or both.

A

Ondansetron

20
Q

Indication for 5HT-3 receptor antagonist (Ondansetron)?

A

Vomiting d/t cytotoxic drugs or radiation; postoperative

21
Q

Adverse effects of 5HT-3 receptor antagonist (Ondansetron)?

A

HA
Dizziness
Constipation
QT prolongation

22
Q

Contraindication for 5HT-3 receptor antagonist (Ondansetron)?

A

Arrhythmia having QTc prolongation

23
Q

Antipsychotic phenothiazines such as _____________ act to antagonist the D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, but they also block histamine and muscarinic receptors

A

Chlorpromazine

24
Q

This drug is a D2 receptor antagonist closely related to the phenothiazine group, that acts centrally on the CTZ and also has a peripheral action on the GI tract itself, increasing the motility of the oesophagus, stomach, and intestine. This not only adds to the anti-emetic effect, but explains its use in the tx of GORD

A

Metoclopramide

25
Q

MOA of Metoclopramide?

A

Inhibits D2 receptor in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Also has prokinetic effects

26
Q

Indications for _____________ include:
- Delayed chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting
- Radiotherapy induced N & V
- Symptomatic treatment of N & V, including acute migraine induced N & V

A

Metoclopramide

27
Q

Adverse effects of this drug include disorders of movement, fatigue, motor restlessness, spasmodic torticollis (involuntary twisting of the neck). Also stimulate prolactin release, causing galactorrhoea and disorders of menstruation

A

Metoclopramide

28
Q

Contraindications for _______________ :
- GI haemorrhage
- GI mechanical obstruction
- History of neuroleptic or ____________-induced tardive dyskinesia
- Parkinson’s disease
- Combination with levodopa or dopaminergic drugs

A

Metoclopramide

29
Q

This NT has a direct relaxant effect on the gut by activating muscular D2 receptors in the lower oesophageal sphincter and stomach (fundus and antrum)

A

Dopamine

30
Q

_________________ inhibits the release of ACh from intrinsic myenteric cholinergic neurons by activating pre-junctional D2 receptors, which leads to an indirect inhibition of the musculature

A

Dopamine

31
Q

This drug promotes gut motility by inhibiting presynaptic and postsynaptic D2 receptors, which leads to an indirect inhibition of the musculature.

A

Metoclopramide

32
Q

This drug promotes gut motility by inhibiting presynaptic and postsynaptic D2 receptors, and antagonists presynaptic inhibition of muscarinic receptors, which promotes release of ACh. This in turn leads to increased lower oesophageal sphincter and gastric tone, increased intragastric pressure, and accelerated gastric emptying.

A

Metoclopramide

33
Q

What is the primary ligand of NK1 receptor antagonists?

A

Substance P, a nociceptor NT

34
Q

Which glucocorticoid can be used for chemotherapy and radiotherapy-induced N&V, postoperative N&V?

A

Dexamethasone

35
Q

A patient is receiving highly emetogenic chemotherapy for metastatic carcinoma. To prevent chemotherapy-induced N&V, she is likely to be treated with which of the following?

A. Levodopa
B. Methotrexate
C. Misoprostol
D. Ondansetron
E. Omeprazole

A

D. Ondansetron (5-HT3 receptor antagonists are highly effective at preventing chemo-induced N&V)

36
Q

Spasmodic torticollis is a side effect of which antiemetic drug?

A. Aprepitant
B. Cyclizine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Nabilone
E. Ondansetron

A

C. Metoclopramide

37
Q

The following drugs act on various receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?

Aprepitant

A

Neurokinin 1

38
Q

The following drugs act on various receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?

Cyclizine

A

Histamine 1

39
Q

The following drugs act on various receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?

Metoclopramide

A

Dopamine 2

40
Q

The following drugs act on various receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?

Ondansetron

A

5-HT3 (serotonin)

41
Q

The following drugs act on various receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic

42
Q

A patient is recently diagnosed as having Parkinson’s disease. Which antiemetic drug is contraindicated in this patient?

A. Aprepitant
B. Cyclizine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
E. Scopolamine

A

C. Metoclopramide, as it is a dopamine receptor antagonist

Year 3 (23 decks)

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