Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Each human has how many pairs of chromosomes?

A

23 pairs in total

22 autosomal pairs, 1 sex-linked pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

G0 phase of the cell cycle

A

Most cells are resting, carrying out their normal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

G1 phase of the cell cycle

A

1st growth phase as chromosomes become ready to be replicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

S phase of the cell cycle

A

DNA replication occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

G2 phase of the cell cycle

A

2nd growth phase involving proteins etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

M phase of the cell cycle

A

Mitosis - mechanical separation of cell into two daughter cells
Two daughter cells are identical, diploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Variation occurs during meiosis by two main methods, which are?

A

Crossing over

Independent segregation of homologous chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In meiosis, one diploid cell becomes…

A

Four haploid daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examples of sequence variations between genes?

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

Deletions/duplications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A polymorphism is…

A

A change in the genome that does not cause disease in its own right, but can predispose to a common disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chromosome 22 looks like a…

A

Teddy bear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A chromosome consists of…

A

Telomeres at each end
Short arm (p)
Centromere
Long arm (q)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A chromosome is metacentric if…

A

Both arms are roughly the same length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A chromosome is acrocentric if…

A

The p (short) arm is so short it is hard to observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A chromosome is telocentric if…

A

The centromere is located at the terminal end of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An aneuploidy is…

A

An abnormal number of chromosomes
Monosomy - missing chromosome from one pair
Trisomy - extra chromosome in a pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reciprocal translocations are when…

A

Segments from two different chromosomes have been exchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Robertsonian translocations are when…

A

A chromosome attaches to another chromosome at the centromere
Only occurs with 13, 14, 15, 21, 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Monosomy of the sex chromosomes causes…

A

Turner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trisomy of chromosome 21 causes…(means there are three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the normal two copies)

A

Down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is FISH?

A

DNA probes specifically bind to areas of individual chromosomes and apply a fluorescein stain to make the chromosome visible
Useful for detecting aneuploidies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Penetrance is defined as…

A

The likelihood of having the disease given you have the genetic mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mendelian inheritance encompasses which disorders?

A

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked
Mitochondrial disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autosomal dominant disease occurs when…

A

Autosomal dominant disease occurs when there is a single copy of the faulty gene, seen in all generations, and has a 50% risk of affecting the child if the parent is affected. Examples include Huntington’s disease and Marfan syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autosomal recessive disease occurs when…

A

Autosomal recessive disease occurs when an individual inherits two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent. It often only affects one generation of a family and has a 25% risk of affecting the child if both parents are carriers. Examples include cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

X-linked disease occurs when…

A

X-linked disease occurs when there is a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. The inheritance pattern is different for males and females, with males being more commonly affected and females being carriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mitochondrial disease occurs when…

A

Diseased mitochondria passed from mother to child

28
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

Occurs when cells within the same person have a different genetic makeup. e.g cancer

29
Q

Epigenetic variation describes…

A

Epigenetic variation refers to changes in how genes are expressed and function, without changing the underlying DNA sequence. These changes can be influenced by things like the environment and lifestyle, and can affect traits and disease susceptibility. These variations can be inherited from one generation to the next and studying them can help us understand how our genes and environment interact to affect our health and well-being.

30
Q

Methylation inhibits which process?

A

DNA transcription

Methylation is an epigenetic modification that involves the addition of a methyl group to a cytosine base in DNA, and this modification can interfere with the binding of transcription factors and other proteins to the DNA, thereby preventing the initiation of transcription.

31
Q

What is imprinting?

A

Variation in gene expression depending on which parent you inherit the gene from
e.g. in Angelman’s syndrome, mother’s UBE3A works fine but father’s is methylated

32
Q

Heteroplasmy is when…

A

Different daughter cells contain different proportions of mutant mitochondria (similar to mosaicism)

33
Q

Where are the 2 checkpoints in the cell cycle where DNA can acquire mutations?

A

Between G2 and M

Between G1 and S

34
Q

What is the function of oncogenes?

A

Promote cell division

35
Q

What is the function of tumour suppressors?

A

Inhibit cell division

36
Q

Only one copy of the tumour suppressor gene is required to be mutated for cancer to occur. True/False?

A

False

2 copies required

37
Q

Cancer is most often inherited as a high penetrance Mendelian disorder. True/False?

A

False. Cancer is most often not inherited as a high penetrance Mendelian disorder. Instead, most cancers are caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, and are considered multifactorial disorders. Only a small percentage of cancers are caused by high-penetrance inherited mutations in specific genes, such as BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations in breast and ovarian cancer.

38
Q

This disease is acquired through co-dominant inheritance

A

(Sickle cell anaemia) All blood is co-dominant inheritance e.g. type AB are two equally dominant gene expressions of blood type.

if an individual inherits two different alleles for a particular gene, neither allele is dominant or recessive over the other, and both are expressed in the phenotype.

For example, in the case of blood type, the A and B alleles are co-dominant. If an individual inherits one A allele and one B allele, they will express both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, resulting in blood type AB. Neither the A nor the B allele is dominant over the other, so both are expressed equally in the phenotype.

Similarly, in sickle cell anemia, the HbA and HbS alleles are co-dominant. If an individual inherits one HbA allele and one HbS allele, they will produce both normal hemoglobin and abnormal hemoglobin in their red blood cells, resulting in the symptoms of sickle cell anemia.

39
Q

A patient with this disease has 49 chromosomes

A

(Klienfelter Syndrome) Patients with Klienfelter’s have 3 sex chromosomes (47 XXY) and so they have in 49 total

40
Q

Multifactorial inheritance

A

If parent has cancer, likely to have multiple polymorphisms that confer to a small additional risk for that condition.

41
Q

the amount of protein produced is determined by

A
  1. rate of transcription (mRNA making)
  2. rate of splicing to mRNA
  3. Half life of mRNA
  4. Rate of processing polypeptide
42
Q

what is the difference between amniocentesis and direct genetic testing

A

amniocentesis for a fetus, or directly for a specific condition in a child or adult.

43
Q

antenatal testing for —-

A

Down’s syndrome.

44
Q

What is predictive testing in genetics?

A

Predictive testing involves testing a person for a specific gene mutation that has implications for them in the future. Examples include the BRCA1 breast cancer gene or the gene for Huntington’s chorea.

45
Q

What is carrier testing in genetics?

A

A: Carrier testing involves testing parents or potential parents for the gene for a specific autosomal recessive condition in order to calculate the risk of passing it to their children. An example of this is testing for the cystic fibrosis gene.

46
Q

What are some ethical issues to consider when performing genetic testing?

A

A: There are significant ethical implications for genetic testing, and it is essential to obtain consent and perform genetic counseling before doing the test. The greater the implications of the test, the more genetic counseling will be required.

47
Q

What is karyotyping in genetics testing?

A

A: Karyotyping involves looking at the number of chromosomes, their size, and basic structure. This is helpful in diagnosing conditions like Down’s syndrome and Turner syndrome.

48
Q

What is microarray testing in genetics?

A

A: Microarray testing involves cutting up the genetic material from an individual using enzymes, applying it to a plate, and separating molecules of different weights into different locations. This can be used to see what genes the person expresses, screen for chromosomal abnormalities and many common genetic conditions, and look for mutations in cancer cells.

49
Q

What is specific gene testing in genetics?

A

A: Specific gene testing can be done by splitting the two strands of DNA and adding a “gene probe” that contains complementary genetic code for a specific gene you want to test for. This is used to confirm whether a patient has a particular gene.

50
Q

What is DNA sequencing in genetics?

A

A: DNA sequencing is used for research purposes and involves splitting the two strands of DNA and revealing the exact sequence of nucleotides in that section of DNA. It has no role in routine clinical practice.

51
Q

Array CGH

A

is a high-resolution technique used for the detection of copy number variations (CNVs), which are known to be associated with intellectual disability, developmental delay, and congenital anomalies.

52
Q

PCR and Sanger sequencing

A

are useful for detecting point mutations or small insertions and deletions in specific genes.

53
Q

Which genetic abnormalities most commonly causes Down’s Syndrome?

A

Nondisjunction is the most common genetic abnormality that causes Down’s Syndrome. Nondisjunction occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during meiosis, resulting in one gamete (egg or sperm) receiving an extra copy of chromosome 21

54
Q

genetic conditions occurs due to genetic imprinting where the gene is deleted from the father?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

55
Q

Definition of incidence

A

New cases of a disease occurring in a population in a defined time period

56
Q

heterozygous

A

1 in 4 is being affected
Recessive dominate (both parents are carrier )
e.g cystic fibrosis

57
Q

characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder?

A

C. There is no male to male transmission of the condition

58
Q

D. del(5q), del(17p), trisomy 8

A

The long arm of a chromosome is referred to as ‘q’ and the short arm as ‘p’. An extra copy of a chromosome is termed ‘trisomy’ and loss of an entire chromosome is ‘monosomy’.

59
Q

Robertsonian translocation

A

is the centric fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes resulting in the formation of one large metacentric chromosome and one small fragment.

60
Q

45 X

A

Turner syndrome is characterised by the absence of an X chromosome.

61
Q

A. Edward syndrome

A

47 XY +18

62
Q

Many PRR are lectin-like

A

in that they recognize exposed microbial sugars

63
Q

In genetic tree if both male and females are effected then its most likely to be

A

Autosomal dominant

THUS no chance for a carrier

64
Q

If only womens are effected in genetic tree than is most likey

A

recessive disorder

50% chance to be a carrier

65
Q

Anticipation

A

is the phenomenon in which the age of onset of a condition lowers with each successive generation. (how early in his age will he show the symptoms of the genetic defect )Classically this is seen in trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease (CAG expansion), myotonic dystrophy (CTG), and fragile X-syndrome (CGG), and is caused by the repeated trinucleotide expanding further in each successive generation.