General Operating and Flight Rules

Question 1

What should passengers comply with regarding rules? (91.5)

Answer 1

Any commands given to them by PIC.

Question 2

What authority does the PIC have? (91.203) (3)

Answer 2

• Give any commands required for the safety of the aircraft and of persons and property carried on the aircraft, including disembarking or refusing the carriage of:
  1. ) Anyone appearing to be under the influence of alcohol, or drugs, in the opinion of PIC, their carriage is likely to endanger the aircraft or its occupants.
  2. ) Any person, or cargo, which is likely to endanger the aircraft and its occupants based on the opinion of the PIC.

Question 3

What are the requirements for a person to operate an aircraft in a simulated instrument flight? (9)

Answer 3

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless:
1.) Aircraft has two seats and one seat is occupied by a safety pilot who is the holder of a current pilots license.
2.) Pilot has:
I.) Adequate forward vision and to each side of the aircraft.
II.) Competent observer to adequately supplement the vision of the safety pilot and
3.) The aircraft is equipped with:
I.) Fully functioning dual controls; and
II.) Pitch, roll, yaw and engine power controls that can operated from either pilot stations.
A person may be operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight that does not comply with previous paragraph, if:
1.) Simulated flight is outside controlled airspace.
2.) The means of simulating flight can be removed rapidly by the PIC.

Question 4

What must the PIC of an aircraft do to ensure a safe operation? (4)

Answer 4

A PIC of an aircraft must:
1.) Before flight, be satisfied that the aircraft is airworthy and in condition for safe flight, after:
I.) The documents (CAA 2129, tech log, flight manual, CAA 2173 and airworthiness certificate) have been inspected and the aircraft has been inspected.
2.) During the flight, ensure the safe operation of the aircraft and the safety of its occupants; and
3.) On completion of the inspections required and also of the flight, record in tech log or equivalent any defects identified on the aircraft during inspections of the flight.

Question 5

What should each crew member on duty be doing during take-off and landing regarding crewmember stations? (91.205) (2)

Answer 5

• Each crew member on duty during T/O and LDG in an aircraft other than a balloon, shall:
  1. ) Be at their station unless they need to perform duties in connection to the operation of the aircraft.
  2. ) Have their safety belt fastened.

Question 6

What are two instances in which crew members do not require shoulder harnesses to be fastened while at their crew member stations? (91.205) (2)

Answer 6

• Each crew member on duty during T/O and LDG shall have their shoulder harness fastened while at their crew member station unless:
  1. ) The seat isn’t equipped with one.
  2. ) Crew member cannot perform duties with shoulder harness fastened.

Question 7

When should a PIC of an aircraft wear their safety belts? (5) (91.207)

Answer 7

1. ) Each takeoff/landing.
2. ) When below 1000ft AGL.
3. ) When PIC determines it to be necessary.
4. ) Aerobatic flight.
5. ) At all times in a open cockpit.

Question 8

When can a PIC permit a passenger (pax) to unfasten their shoulder harness/safety belt? What is the condition required for this? (3)

Answer 8

1. ) During T/O and LDG.
2. ) When less than 1000ft AGL.
   - If the PIC is satisfied that such action is necessary for the passenger’s performance of an essential function associated with the flight.

Question 9

What seat position should the PIC have during takeoff and landing?

Answer 9

In the take-off configuration.

Question 10

What circumstances require children to not wear seatbelts? (2)

Answer 10

1. ) If they are held by an adult occupying a seat or berth and the child is secured by a safety belt of the adults.
2. ) Occupies a seat equipped with a child restraint system, if the child doesn’t exceed the specified weight limit for that system and is occupied by a parent/garden etc.

Question 11

Does wearing a safety belt apply to balloons and skydive aircraft?

Answer 11

No.

Question 12

When must a PIC of an aircraft use oxygen equipment in an unpressurised aircraft? What must they require? (91.209) (3)

Answer 12

• PIC of an unpressurised aircraft must, during any time the aircraft is being operated above 13,000 ft AMSL and during any period of more than 30 minutes that the aircraft is being operated between 10,000 ft and up to 13,000 ft AMSL REQUIRE:
  1. ) Each crew member and passengers to use supplemental oxygen.
  2. ) Each crew member to use portable O2 equipment, including a regulator and attached O2 mask, for any duty requiring movement from their usual station.

Question 13

What must the PIC of a pressurised aircraft do regarding oxygen equipment above 10000ft AMSL? (2)

Answer 13

1.) During any time the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000ft AMSL, require:
I.) Each crew member to use supplemental O2.
II.) Each crew member to use portable oxygen equipment including a regulator and attached O2 mask, for any duties away from their station.

Question 14

What must the PIC of a pressurised aircraft do regarding oxygen equipment between FL 350-410? (2)

Answer 14

1.) During any the the aircraft is being operated from FL 350-410, require:
I.) One pilot at a station to wear and use an O2 mask that either supply supplemental O2 at all times or automatically supplies supplemental O2 whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 ft AMSL.
II.) Two pilots to be at their station and each pilot to have access to an O2 mask that can be placed on the face and supplying O2 within 5 seconds.

Question 15

What must the PIC of a pressurised aircraft do regarding O2 equipment above FL410?

Answer 15

Anytime the aircraft is operated over FL410, must have one pilot at a pilot station to wear and use a damnd O2 at all times.

Question 16

If there is a pressurisation failure, what is each passenger required to do? When is this not required?

Answer 16

• PIC must ensure that each pax uses supplemental O2 (the oxygen masks that drop) during any time the cabin pressure is above 14000 ft AMSL unless it can descend to 14000ft or below in 4 minutes.

Question 17

What should the passenger briefing cover? (91.211) (6)

Answer 17

1.) Conditions for smoking.
2.) Applicable requirements for the occupation of seats and wearing of restraints.
3.) Location and means for operating the entry doors and emergency exits.
4.) When required:
I.) Location of survival and emergency equipment for pax.
II.) Use of floating equipment for flights over water.
5.) Procedures in case of an emergency landing.
6.) Use of electronic devices.

Question 18

Who can give the pax briefing?

Answer 18

PIC, crew member or person nominated by operator recorded presentation.

Question 19

What must the briefing require for flights above FL250?

Answer 19

Include a demo on the use of supplemental O2 equipment.

Question 20

What statement is required for passenger briefings?

Answer 20

“Civil Aviation Rules require passenger compliance with lighted passenger signs and crew instructions”.

Question 21

How should the pax briefing be supplemented/reinforced?

Answer 21

Supplemented by cards for the use of each pax:
I.) Diagram end method for emergency exits.
II.) Other instructions necessary for the use of emergency equipment for pax.

Question 22

No person shall taxi, take-off, or land an aircraft equipped with? Unless what? (4)

Answer 22

1. ) Pax food and beverage tray/table.
2. ) Pax serving cart.
3. ) Viewing screen that extends into the aisle.
   - Unless the equipment is stored in a secure position.

Question 23

What are the rules for operating a portable electronic device in an aircraft? What are the exemptions to these rules? (7)

Answer 23

• No person may operate, or operator, or PIC of an aircraft all the operation of, any portable electronic device that is designed to transmit electromagnetic energy, on any aircraft while that aircraft is operating under IF, OR during an instrument approach or departure procedure or during any other critical phase of flight.
• Do not apply to:
  1. ) Hearing aids.
  2. ) Heart pacemakers.
  3. ) Portable voice recorders.
  4. ) Electric shavers.
  5. ) Electronic watches.
  6. ) Any other device if the operator has determined that the device to be operated won’t cause interference with any aircraft system or equipment in the aircraft on which it is operated.

Question 24

Before a flight, what should the pilot of an aircraft be familiar with? (91.219) (5)

Answer 24

1. ) Aircraft flight manual (AFM) for that aircraft.
2. ) Any placards, listings, instrument markings, or any combo thereof, containing any operating limitation prescribe for that aircraft by the manufacturer or director.
3. ) Emergency equipment installed on aircraft.
4. ) which crew member is assigned to operate the emergency equipment.
5. ) Procedures to be followed for the use of the equipment (emergency) in an emergency situation.

Question 25

What flying equipment and operating information must be accessible to every flight crew member of the aircraft? (91.211)
What about for an aircraft weighing 5700KG with a certified seating capacity of 10 or more pax? (5)

Answer 25

1. ) Accurate means of indicating the time.
2. ) Appropriate aeronautical charts (Nav charts).
3. ) For IFR, every appropriate navigation en route, terminal area, approach, and instrument approach and departure chart.
4. ) For night operations, an operable torch for every flight crew member.
   - Must use a cockpit checklist covering the normal and emergency procedures for the operation of the aircraft IAW the AFM.

Question 26

What must a pilot operating an aircraft operating on, or near the vicinity of an aerodrome do? (5)

Answer 26

1.) Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding a collision.
2.) Unless otherwise authorised or instructed by ATC, conform with or avoid the aerodrome traffic circuit formed by other aircraft.
3.) Perform a left-handed circuit when approaching for a landing and after take-off from an aerodrome that is published in the AIPNZ unless:
I.) Pilot is instructed otherwise/authorised by ATC.
II.) The IFR procedure published in the AIPNZ for the runway being used specifies a right hand turn and the approach for LDG and T/O is being used IAW the instrument procedure.

Question 27

When can a pilot carry out a right-hand traffic circuit? What are the circumstances in which they shouldn’t?

Answer 27

• Must perform one if it’s published in the AIP, and that it states in the AIP that a right hand circuit for the runway must be used, unless:
  I.) Pilot is authorised/instructed otherwise by ATC.
  II.) IFR procedure published in the AIP for the runway being used specifies a left hand tur and the approach for landing/takeff is being performed IAW the instrument procedure.

Question 28

What must a pilot of an aircraft who has right of way do?

Answer 28

Maintain heading and speed, but isn’t relieved from the responsibilities of taking such action including collision avoidance maneuvers based on resolution advisories provided by ACAS, that will avert collision.

Question 29

If a pilot has to give way to another aircraft, what do they need to do?

Answer 29

• Avoid passing over, under, or in front of other aircraft, unless passing well clear of the aircraft taking into account the effects of wake turbulence.

Question 30

If a pilot of an aircraft is approaching another aircraft head-on, what must they do?

Answer 30

Alter heading to the right (turn right).

Question 31

In what right-of-way order should aircraft give way in terms of heavier than air aircraft, airships, gliders, balloons and parachutes. (5)

Answer 31

1. ) A power-driven heavier than air aircraft must give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
2. ) Airship gives way to balloons.
3. ) Glider gives way to balloons.
4. ) Power-driven aircraft gives way to aircraft towing other things.
5. ) All must give way to parachutes.

Question 32

What is the right of way rules for landing aircraft? (3).

Answer 32

A pilot in flight or on the surface must:

1. ) Give way to any other aircraft that is on final approach to land or is landing.
2. ) When the aircraft is one of 2 or more heavier-than-air aircraft approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, give way to the aircraft at a lower altitude; and
3. ) Not take advantage of right-of-way to pass in front of another aircraft, which is on final approach to land, or outside the aircraft?

Question 33

What is the right of way rules for aircraft taking-off?

Answer 33

A pilot of an aircraft must not take-off if there is an apparent risk of collision with another aircraft.

Question 34

What are the right of way rules for aircraft taxiing? (4)

Answer 34

A pilot of an aircraft taxiing on the maneuvring area of an aerodrome must:

1. ) Give way to aircraft landing, taking off, or about to take off.
2. ) When 2 aircraft are on a converging course, give way to other aircraft on the pilots right.
3. ) When 2 aircraft are approaching head on, or nearly so, stop or, where practicable, alter course to the right so as to keep well of other aircraft.
4. ) When overtaking other aircraft, give way and keep well clear of the aircraft being overtaken.

Question 35

What are the right of way rules for aircraft in distress?

Answer 35

Aircraft in distress must always be given way.

Question 36

What are the lighting requirements for aircraft? (3)

Answer 36

A pilot of an aircraft must not:

1. ) Operate an aircraft at night, unless it has lighted positions; or
2. ) Moor or move an aircraft at night on a water aerodrome unless the aircraft complies with the lighting requirement of international regulations for preventing collisions at sea.
3. ) Operate an aircraft at night that is required to be equipped with an anti-collision light system unless it is already operating.

Question 37

A person must not park or move an aircraft at night on a maneuvring area of an aerodrome that is in use for aircraft operations unless the aircraft:

Answer 37

1. ) Is clearly illuminated; or
2. ) Has lighted positions; or
3. ) Is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights.

Question 38

no person shall enter in any security area or security enhanced area of any designated aerodrome or designated installation unless they have what? (CAR 19.3) (2)

Answer 38

• wears an airport identity card on the front of their garment
• has in their possession another identity document or other identity documents for the time being

Question 39

director mat issue or approve identity card or other identity documents if what? (2)

Answer 39

• the director has made a favourable security check determination of the person whos applied for the card or document.
• director has decided that the person has undergone an alternative security check that’s acceptable to the director.

Question 40

every person commits an offence who smokes when what? (SECTION 1990 CCA ACT) (2)

Answer 40

• instructed not to smoke by a crew member, passenger information signs or placards
• while on any aircraft that’s carrying passengers for hire to reward or any internal flight

Question 41

What happens if you commit a smoking offence?

Answer 41

fine not exceeding $2,500

Question 42

no crew member while acting in their official capacity shall be in a state of what? (CAR 19.7)

Answer 42

state of intoxication or health which would have their capacity so to act to be impaired bt having consumed or used any intoxicant, sedative, narcotic or stimulant drug or preparation.

Question 43

no person may not carry what? (CAR 91.9) (4)

Answer 43

• carry a firearm in an aircraft
• cause a firearm to be carried in an aircraft
• permit a firearm to be carried in an aircraft
• discharge a firearm while on board aircraft

Question 44

a firearm may be carried in an aircraft if what? (4)

Answer 44

• fire arm is stored in an inaccessible place to every person on flight and is disabled
• aircraft is being used solely for the carriage of the person or group associated with the firearm and the operator permits the carriage and the firearm is disabled
• aircraft carrying livestock and operates deems it potentially necessary
• aircraft is being used for purpose of shooting animals on the ground but only if the firearm isn’t located until in the area within which the firearm is intended to be used and the aircraft carries only these persons performing an essential function of the shooting or flying.

Question 45

a firearm may be discharged when?

Answer 45

• in an aircraft carrying livestock if necessary for immobilisation of an animal
• from an aircraft for the purpose of shooting or immobilising animals if the discharge has no threat or cause potential injury and is not over any congested area of a city, town or settlement.

Question 46

a firearm may be carried in an aircraft by a person employed by the police law enforcement or military if what? (3)

Answer 46

• aircraft is being operated on an air transport or commercial transport operation, the person carrying is lawfully entitled to carry in course of duty, carrying their firearm in course of their duties, has been approved to carry by the director and complies with all restrictions set by director
• aircraft is being operated safely for carriage of police, law enforcers, military and persons under the care of such officers or personnel
• aircraft is being operated for police, law and only persons performing an essential function associated with special personnel carried in aircraft.

Question 47

a person operating an aircraft, except balloon must ensure that before takeoff or landing all passenger baggage aboard aircraft is stored away where? (CAR 91.2)

Answer 47

• baggage locker

- under the passenger seat where it can’t slide forward or hinder evacuation of aircraft.

Question 48

an operator mustn’t permit cargo to be carried in an aircraft unless what? (3)

Answer 48

• carried on a seat, in a cargo rack or loin, or in a compartments
• properly secured by a safety belt or other restraining device having enough strength ensure that the cargo doesn’t shift under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions.
• packaged and covered safely.

Question 49

an operator who permits carriage of cargo mustn’t permit cargo to what? (2)

Answer 49

• exceed load limitations for seats, berths or floor structure prescribed by flight manual
• located in a position that restricts the access to or use of any required emergency exit or the use of aisle between crew and passenger compartments

Question 50

don’t operate aircraft in regards to nearby aircraft when what? (CAR 91.2) (3)

Answer 50

• so close to other aircraft as to create a collision hazard
• in formation flight except by prior arrangement with each PIC in formation
• in formation carrying a passenger for hire/reward unless performing a parachute drop or an adventure aviation formation flight operation under the authority of the adventure operator .

Question 51

a pilot of an aircraft shall not allow any object to be what? (CAR 91.2)

Answer 51

dropped while in flight unless they’ve taken reasonable precautions to ensure the dropping doesn’t endanger persons or property.

Question 52

a pilot mustn’t operate an indicated airspeed of more than 250kts below 10,000ft AMSL when what?

Answer 52

• aircraft is operated under IFR in class D, E, F, G airspace
• aircraft is operated under VFR in class C, D, E, F, G

Question 53

a pilot can operate an indicated airspeed of more than 250kts below 10,000ft AMSL when what?

Answer 53

• minimum sage speed of aircraft prescribed in the flight manual is more than 250kts and the aircraft is operated at that speed
• aircraft is being operated at an aviation event.

Question 54

a pilot mustn’t operate aircraft under VFR regarding minimum heights when? (CAR 91.3) (3)

and who doesn’t this apply to?

Answer 54

• over any congested area of town/city at a height of less than 1000ft above surface or any obstacle that’s within a horizontal radius of 500m from point below aircraft
• over any area at a height of less than 500ft above surface of vehicle, vessel or structure that’s within radius of 150m from below aircraft
• over any area for any operation at a height less than required to execute on emergency landing in event of engine failure.
• PIC conducting takeoff/landing, continuing a bulked landing or discontinued approach or taxiing.

Question 55

a pilot may operate below minimum heights for VFR if the purpose of the flight requires aircraft to be flown at a height lower than that prescribed in VFR minimums only if what? (4)

Answer 55

• flight is performed without hazard to persons/property on the surface
• only persons performing an essential function associated with flight are carried
• aircraft is not flown at a height lower than what’s required for the purpose of the flight
• the horizontal distance that the aircraft is flown from any obstacle isn’t less than that necessary for the purpose of the flight

Question 56

a pilot may operate below minimum heights for VFR if they have what? (4)

Answer 56

• holds an instructor rating and is conducting flight training consisting of:
  (i) simulated engine failure after takeoff commencing below 1000ft Above surface
  (ii) simulated engine failure 1000ft above the surface provided the descent below 500ft is conducted within an LFZ
• holder of a current IR and who’s conducting IFR training, testing or practice under VFR
• operating ain aircraft within an LFZ
• operating at an aviation event

Question 57

can a PIC perform a takeoff under VFR in a plane that has snow, ice, frost, gathering on wings, stabilisers or control surfaces?

Answer 57

no

Question 58

a PIC mustn’t operate in aerobatic flight when what? (CAR 91.7)

Answer 58

• over an area that’s within a horizontal distance of 600m of a congested area like a town or an open area of assembly of people (except at aviation event)
• within any controlled airspace except with the authorisation of ATC

Question 59

A PIC mustn’t operate in aerobatic flight below 3000ft above the surface unless what?

Answer 59

• they hold an aerobatic rating in which they can operate in no less than 1500ft
• below a height of 1500ft above the surface if the pilot holds an aerobatic rating, doesn’t perform flight below height authorised in the rating and is participating in an aviation event.

Question 60

a PIC can have passengers in aerobatic flight only if what?

Answer 60

• pilot golds an aerobatic flight and the flight isn’t lower than 3000ft above the surface.

Question 61

No pilot shall tow an object other than a glider unless what? (CAR 91.7) (4)

Answer 61

• they hold a PPL and a tow rating, A CPL or an ATPL
• aircraft is equipped with a tow hook and has a quick-release mechanism
• aircraft has a positive rate of climb at altitude to be operated
• no passengers

Question 62

a PIC mustn’t operate an aircraft under VFR when visibility is less than what?

Answer 62

• Class B, C, D, E, G: 8km at or above 10,000ft AMSL, 5km below 10,000ft AMSL

Class F and G: 5km below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (whichever is higher)

Question 63

A PIC mustn’t takeoff/land an aircraft or fly in the vicinity of an aeroclub under VFR when flight visibility or cloud ceiling is less than what? (3)

Answer 63

• controlled aerodromes, 1500ft ceiling and 5km visibility
• uncontrolled aerodrome during the day, 600ft ceiling and 1.5km flight visibility
• uncontrolled aerodrome during the night, 1500ft ceiling and 8km flight visibility

Question 64

A PIC of an aircraft performing agricultural operations may operate in Class G airspace when what?

Answer 64

flight visibility is less than 5km but no less than 1.5km

Question 65

aircraft performing flight instruction may operate in an LFZ when flight visibility is what?

Answer 65

less than 5km but not less than 1.5km

Question 66

A PIC may perform a special VFR operation within controlled airspace in meteorological conditions below the minima if what? (5)

Answer 66

• ceiling and flight visibility is at least 600ft and at least 1500m
• aircraft is equipped with two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the appropriate frequency
• operation conducted is in compliance with ATC clearance and instructions
• only during the day
• clear of clouds

Question 67

A PIC mustn’t operate under VFR when the distance from the cloud is what? (5)

Answer 67

• Class B = Clear of cloud
• Class C, D, E = 1000ft vertically outside a CTR, 2km horizontally, 500ft vertically within a CTR.
• Class F and G above 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL = 2km horizontal and 1000ft vertical
• Class F and G below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL = clear of cloud and in sight of the surface