Aviation legislation Flashcards

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1
Q

In order for a person to be labeled as a fit and proper person by CAA, they must meet what 6 requirements? (ACT 1990 S10)

A
  • A compliance history with transport safety regulatory requirements
  • A persons related experience (if any) within the transport industry
  • A persons knowledge of the applicable civil aviation system regulatory requirements
  • Any history of physical or mental health or serious behavioral problems
  • Any convictions for any transport safety offense, whether or not the conviction was in an NZ court or committed before the commencement of this act
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2
Q

who are required to hold aviation documentation? (S7) (17)

A
  • nz registered aircraft
  • pilots
  • flight crew
  • ATS personnel
  • aviation security personnel
  • aircraft maintenance personnel
  • air services
  • ATS
  • aerodromes and its operators
  • navigation installation providers
  • aviation training organizations
  • aircraft design, manufacture and maintenance organizations
  • aeronautical procedures
  • aviation security services
  • aviation meteorological services
  • aviation communication services
  • aviation personnel or person related to aviation
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3
Q

what is the PIC shall be responsible and have the right to do? (S13) (3)

A
  • responsible for safe operation in flight, the safety and wellbeing of all on board, and safety of cargo carried.
  • having final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all POB.
  • subject to section 13a, responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of this act and regulations and rules.
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4
Q

when are PIC allowed to breach and break rules for flying? (4) (S13A)

A
  • emergency involves danger to life or property
  • when breaking rules goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency
  • when there’s no other reasonable means of alleviating avoiding or assisting with the emergency
  • degree of danger. When complying with rules becomes a bigger hazard than the emergency
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5
Q

when are PIC not allowed to break the rules for flying? (S13A)

A
  • operation of an aircraft not NZ registered

- breach of an aircraft by a person whose not lawfully entitled to operate the plane.

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6
Q

when breaking the rules of the act the PIC must do what?

A
  • immediately notify the relevant ATC service of the action

- ASAP, notify the director of the action and the circumstances that necessitated it.

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7
Q

If a license holder is aware or has reasonable grounds to suspect, any change in their medical condition or the existence of any previously undetected medical conditions that may interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges to which his or her medical certificate relates, the license holder must do what? (S27)

A
  • advise the director of the change ASAP

- may not exercise the privileges to which the license holder medical certificate relates

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8
Q

If the director has reasonable grounds to believe that a license holder may be unable to exercise safely the privileges to which the license holder’s medical certificate relates, the director may do what? (S27 I)

A
  • suspend any medical certificate issued to the license holder
  • impose or amend any conditions, restrictions, or endorsements on any medical certificate issued to the license holder.
  • revoke and medical issued to license holder
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9
Q

who must a person who’s gotten their medical revoked, withdrawn, suspended, or disqualified surrender their medical too? (s27 I)

A

director, a person authorized by the director or a constable.

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10
Q

every holder of an aviation document commits an offence who, in respect of any activity or service to which the document relates, does or omits to do any act, causes or permits any act or omission, if the act causes any unnecessary danger to any other person or property is liable on conviction of what amount? (S43)

A
  • in the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding $10k or operating in a careless manner
  • in the case of body corporate, a fine not exceeding $100k
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11
Q

Every person who commits an offense who operates an aircraft in a careless manner is liable of conviction of what amount? (S43A);o998

A
  • in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $7,000
  • in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $35,000.
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12
Q

Every person commits an offense who operates, maintains, or services or does any other act in respect of any aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service, in a manner that causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property.

or permits any aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service to be operated, maintained, or any other act to be done in respect of any aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service in a manner which causes unnecessary danger to any other person or to any property is liable on conviction to what amount?

A
  • in the case of an individual, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding $10,000;
  • in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $100,000.
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13
Q

how is accident defined?

A

occurrence associated with aircraft operation, taking place between the time any person boards with the intention of flight to which plane disembarks and to engine or propeller coming to rest.

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14
Q

how is occurrence defined in regards to accident definition and personnel (3)

A

An occurrence which a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of:

  • being in the aircraft
  • direct contact with any part of the aircraft including detached ones
  • direct exposure to jet blast - except when injuries are self-inflicted or inflicted by others or when injuries are to stowaways hiding outside areas normally available
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15
Q

how is occurrence defined in regards to accident definition and aircraft (4) (11)

A

the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that:
- adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of aircraft
- would normally require major repair or replacement of affected component
damage that’s limited to engine cowlings, accessories or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin
- aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.

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16
Q

how is ACT defined?

A

The civil aviation act 1990

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17
Q

how is Aerobatic flight defined?

A
  • intentional manoeuvre in which the aircraft is sustained inverted flight or is rolled from upright to inverted or the inverse
  • maneuvers such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a stall turn, hammerhead, whip stall or combination
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18
Q

how is aerodrome elevation defined?

A

elevation of highest point of the landing area

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19
Q

how is the aerodrome operational area defined?

A

movement area at an aerodrome and it’s associated strips and safety area and any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations.

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20
Q

how is an aerodrome traffic circuit defined?

A

pattern flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

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21
Q

how is aeronautical information circular defined?

A

a notice containing information that doesn’t qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the NZAIP, but which relates to flight safety, air nav, technical administrative or legislative manners.

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22
Q

how is aeronautical information publication defined?

A

a publication issued by or with the authority of a state, and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.

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23
Q

how is AIP supplements defined?

A

temporary changes to the information contained in the NZAIP which are published by means of special pages.

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24
Q

how is ATC service defined?

A

service provided for the purposes of preventing collisions between aircraft and between obstructions on any manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air traffic.

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25
Q

how is Airworthiness certificate defined?

A

a NZ registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the director under part 21 or for a foreign registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the competent authority of the state of registry.

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26
Q

how is airworthy condition defined?

A

condition of an aircraft that complies with all the requirements prescribed by CAR relating to the design, manufacture, maintenance, modification repair, and safety.

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27
Q

how is alerting service defined?

A

air traffic service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organizations as required.

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28
Q

how is altitude defined?

A

the vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.

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29
Q

how is apron defined?

A

area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling parking, or maintenance.

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30
Q

how is ATC Clearance defined?

A

authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit.

31
Q

how is ATC instruction defined?

A

a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action

32
Q

how aviation event defined?

A

an event to be conducted below the minimum safe heights prescribed under part 91 that is:

  • airshow or practice for one
  • air race or practice for one
  • aerobatic competition
  • aerobatic training or practice
33
Q

how is AWIB service defined?

A

automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the facilitation of aviation and for the avoidance of doubt

34
Q

how is Basic Weather report defined?

A

verbal comment in support of aviation describing any of the following current weather conditions observed at a particular place or airspace.

35
Q

how is ceiling defined?

A

height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000ft covering more than half the sky.

36
Q

how is controlled flight defined?

A

any flight that’s subject to an ATC clearance.

37
Q

how is cost sharing flight defined? (4)

A

any flight thats performed solely for the carriage of persons where:

  • flight is not advertised to public
  • crew receive no payment
  • person carried by aircraft including the crew members, share equally in the cost of the flight
  • a cost-sharing flight isn’t an operation for hire or reward.
38
Q

how is cross country flight defined as?

A

a flight which extends more then 25nm in a straight line distance from the centre of the aerodrome of departure

39
Q

how is dangerous goods defined as?

A
  • articles or substances that are capable of posing risk to health, safety, property, or the environment
  • are listed in or classified in accordance with, the ICAO’s technical instructions for the sage transport of dangerous goods by air
  • have properties that would result in the articles or substances being classified as dangerous goods under the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
40
Q

how is day defined as?

A

hour between:

  • beginning of morning civil twilight, when centre of suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon
  • end of evening civil twilight which is when the centre of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon
41
Q

how is dual flight time defined?

A

flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and rated pilot on board a dual control aircraft.

42
Q

what is an ELT?

A

equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated frequency to facilitate a search and rescue operation.

43
Q

what is ELT (automatic fixed)

A

an ELT that’s automatically activated and permanently attached to an aircraft.

44
Q

what is ELT (survival)

A

an ELT that’s stowed in an aircraft in a manner which facilitates its ready use in an emergency. is removable from an aircraft and is manually activated.

45
Q

what is final reserve fuel defined as?

A

minimum quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight in event of any unplanned maneuvering in the vicinity of the destination or alternate or a suitable aerodrome

46
Q

what is fit and proper person defined as?

A

a person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the act.

47
Q

what is flight info service defined as?

A

air traffic service provided for the purpose of giving advice and info intended for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.

48
Q

what is a flight manual defined as?

A

manual associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the sage operations of the aircraft.

49
Q

what is flight plan defined as?

A

specified information required to be provided to an ATS unit or to a flight following service regarding an intended flight, or a portion a flight of an aircraft.

50
Q

what is flight time defined as?

A

total time from moment an aircraft first moves for purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at end of the flight. incl taxi, push back and holding time.

51
Q

what is height defined as?

A

the vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from a specific datum includes the vertical dimension of an object.

52
Q

what is incident defined as?

A

any occurrence other than an accident that’s associated with the operation of an aircraft and affects the safety of operation.

53
Q

whats the landing area defined as?

A

part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of aircraft

54
Q

whats night defined as?

A
  • hours between evening twilight which is when the center of the setting sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon
  • the beginning of morning civil twilight, which is when the center of the rising sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.
55
Q

what is passenger defined as?

A

any person carried by aircraft other than a crew member.

56
Q

what is pilot in command defined as?

A

pilot responsible for operation and safety of the aircaft.

57
Q

what is rating defined as?

A

authorization entered on or associated with a license certificate or logbook and forming part of it, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to aircraft or certificate.

58
Q

what is sartime defined as?

A

time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of alerting action.

59
Q

what is simultaneous operations defined as?

A

two or more aircraft operating from parallel runways taking off and or landing at same time

60
Q

what is takeoff weight defined as?

A

weight of the plane at the commencement of the takeoff run and includes everything and everyone carried on plane.

61
Q

what is type defined as?

A
  • in relation to the licensing of aviation personnel. means all aircraft of the same basic design,including all modifications thereto except those mods which result in a significant change in the handling of flight characteristics
  • in relation to the certification of aircraft engineers or propellers means those which are similar in design.
62
Q

what is VFR flight defined as?

A

flight conducted in accordance with visual flight rules.

63
Q

what is vicinity of an aerodrome defined as?

A

the area surrounding aerodrome where aircraft carry out maneuvers associated entering, leaving or operating within the circuit. shall not extend laterally beyond 10nm.

64
Q

what is visibility defined as?

A

ability as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night.

65
Q

What is visual meteorological conditions defined as?

A

meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distanced from cloud and ceiling equal to or better then specified minima

66
Q

what is visual reference defined as?

A

continuous reference to terrain

67
Q

what does ABN stand for?

A

aerodrome beacon

68
Q

what does DTHR stand for

A

displaced runway threshold

69
Q

what does ECT stand for?

A

evening civil twilight

70
Q

what does ME1 stand for?

A

medical examiner holding class 1

71
Q

what does ME2 stand for?

A

class 2

72
Q

what does MCT stand for?

A

morning civil twilight

73
Q

what does TBO stand for?

A

time before overhaul

74
Q

what does VPC stand for?

A

visual planning chart