Airspace, Aerodromes & Heliports

Question 1

QNH settings passed by ATS to aircraft will be rounded down to the nearest whole hPA. A pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordance with the standard atmosphere will indicate what?

Answer 1

• altitude when set to a QNH altimeter setting

- flight level set to a pressure of 1013.2hPA

Question 2

a pilot must maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of the aircraft by reference to an altimeter that’s set in accordance with the following things.

Answer 2

• if above FL150 set QNH to 1013.2
• below 13,000ft, set QNH to whatever zone area QNH is, can be done e.g through ATIS
• between 13,000 ft and 15,000 ft set QNH given to ATS

Question 3

a pilot that’s ascending or descending must set the altimeter in accordance with the following things.

Answer 3

• when ascending above 13,000ft, set altimeter 1013.2 hPA

- when descending through FL 150, set altimeter to appropriate area QNH setting or aerodrome QNH altimeter setting.

Question 4

the pilot operating in Class G airspace must maintain vertical position by reference to the zone area QNH setting except that the appropriate aerodrome QNH setting must be used for what?

Answer 4

• takeoff, landing, and flight within the circuit

- intermediate and final approach

Question 5

A PIC of an aircraft operating within NZFIR under VFR in level cruising flight at more then 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL, must unless otherwise authorized by ATC, maintain the following altitudes or flight levels

Answer 5

flying at or below 13,000 ft AMSL
North ODD (270 -089 degrees)
South EVEN (269 - 90 degrees) with both being +500 feet
-when flying above FL150 up to FL275 same rules applies

Question 6

a PIC of an aircraft operating within the NZFIR under VFR mustn’t maintain level cruising flight when?

Answer 6

• at any level between 13,000 ft AMSL and FL 150 known as transition altitude unless authorized by ATC
• at any FL below 160 when an area QNH setting is 980 hPa or less.

Question 7

CAR 91 requires the pilot of an aircraft( not glider) operating under VFR in level cruising more than 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL to fly at an altitude or FL appropriate to the track with specified instructions, except when?

Answer 7

• when otherwise authorized by ATC during flight, within entering or leaving Class C or D airspace
• when operating within controlled airspace, where ATC may assign IFR levels to VFR aircraft.

Question 8

what should IFR have transponders set to within Auckland oceanic FIR or departing NZ FIR?

Answer 8

code assigned to departure

Question 9

what should IFR have transponders set while inbound to or overflying NZFIR? or within NZFIR

Answer 9

last assigned code or 2000

Question 10

what codes should VFR aircraft have with specific conditions?

• fire suppression and reconnaissance
• civil airplanes other than gliders or balloons
• gliders and balloons
• aircraft in general aviation areas
• within Auckland oceanic FIR
• Aircraft operating in aerodrome traffic circuit at controlled aerodromes
• defense airplanes
• defense helicopters

Answer 10

• 0111
• 1200
• 1300
• 1400
• 2000
• 2200
• 6000
• 6500

Question 11

a PIC of an aircraft operating in transponder mandatory airspace must unless authorized or instructed by ATC must operate the transponder in what mode?

Answer 11

• in Mode A or C

- in Mode S if the aircraft is equipped with Mode S transponder equipment and allocated a unique mode S

Question 12

a person mustn’t operate an aircraft with mode S transponder equipment unless what?

Answer 12

the state of registry has assigned the aircraft a unique mode S address code.

Question 13

what must you do if you aren’t operating a transponder in controlled airspace?

Answer 13

inform ATC prior to entering.

Question 14

what should you do if transponder fails?

Answer 14

notify ATC

Question 15

formation flying requires how many aircraft to operate a transponder?

Answer 15

only one unless specified otherwise by ATC

Question 16

the director may specify a control area as what? (CAR 71) (3)

Answer 16

• a terminal control area if the director determines that an approach control service is required at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
• upper control area if director determines that an area control service is required
• oceanic control area if the director determined that an area control service required over the high seas

Question 17

the upper limit of a control area mustn’t exceed what height?

Answer 17

FL660

Question 18

lower limit of a control area must what? (3)

Answer 18

• be at least 500ft below the flight paths of IFR flights that the director determines to require an ATC service
• be established at the highest practical altitude or not less than 700 ft above the surface of the earth.
• must coincide with a VFR cruising altitude or FL if the lower limit of a CTA is above 3000ft

Question 19

the director may designate as a control zone that portion of airspace around an aerodrome if what? (CAR 71)

Answer 19

• director determines that an aerodrome control service & an aerodrome and approach control service are required.
• traffic density and pattern require controlled airspace.

Question 20

lateral limits of a control zone must what? (4)

Answer 20

• encompass at least those portions of the airspace that aren’t within a CTA containing the paths of IFR flights arriving and departing from the aerodrome under IMC.
• extends to at least 5NM from the center of the aerodrome in the directions from which instruments approaches may be made
• take into account the category of IFR aircraft using the aerodrome and the areas of airspace that need to be protected for these IFR flights.
• Control zone with an upper limit above 3000ft AMSL must coincide with a VFR cruising altitude or specific FL.

Question 21

what is a VFR transit lane?
&
what happens when a VFR transit lane is active and how are they depicted on a VNC chart?

Answer 21

part of a CTR or CTA released as Class G airspace during daylight hours only, allowing VFR aircraft to transit through airspace not normally used by IFR, with the upper limit of 1000ft.

when active, aircraft operating VFR may enter and operate within the lane without clearance or reference to ATC. Depicted as T——

Question 22

you mustn’t operate in a General Aviation Area when? (CAR 91) (4)

Answer 22

• at night
• during the day unless GAA is active during the day permanently
• If GAA is made active by the approval of the ATC unit responsible for the airspace, approval has been given by the ATC unit to vacate the GAA
• The GAA is already active because another pilot has given notice to ATC to operate in it.

Question 23

How can aircraft enter Restricted Areas (RA) and how are they depicted on VNC charts?

Answer 23

may enter if given prior approval from designated administering authority and are seen on charts with an R

Question 24

what are danger areas and how are they seen on VNC charts?

Answer 24

• established to warn pilots of an area where the danger to aviation may be present. DA requires the pilot to have consideration of the danger present within the area prior to entering but doesn’t require approval. seen on charts as D—-

Question 25

A pilot mustn't operate in a RA unless what? (3)

Answer 25

- they have approval of the administering authority responsible - complies with any condition promulgated for operating within the RA - complies with any condition imposed by the administering authority for operation within the RA.

Question 26

a pilot mustn't operate within a DA unless what?

Answer 26

pilot has determined the activity associated with the DA will not affect safety.

Question 27

What are Military Operating Areas (MOA)? (CAR 91)

Answer 27

established to encompass intensive military options including live firing within any portion of an active MOA in NZ.

Question 28

Can non-NZ aircraft enter MOA?

Answer 28

no

Question 29

a pilot mustn't operate an aircraft within a MOA unless what?

Answer 29

- has the approval of the administering authority responsible to operate NZ aircraft within the MOA or to operate a foreign aircraft with any portion of the MOA whats within the territorial limits of NZ - complies with any conditions imposed while operating within MOA

Question 30

what are Low Flying Zones (LFZ)? (CAR 91) and how do you enter one ?

Answer 30

established to allow low-level flight training by using agencies. pilots not associated with the designated using agency are required to obtain a briefing and comply with any conditions applicable to LFZ, as a result of the agreement between the designated using agency and the landowner or lessee.

Question 31

when is LFZ active and what are the height restrictions?

Answer 31

daylight hours only and ground - 500ft AGL.

Question 32

a pilot must not fly in an LFZ when? (6)

Answer 32

- during the night - during the day unless the pilot is receiving dual flight instruction - during the day unless the pilot holds an instructor rating and is briefed on boundaries of LFZ and method of entry and exit - during the day unless the pilot has been briefed by using the same agency on the conditions of operating for flight within LF and complies with all conditions - during the day unless the pilot before entering, broadcast on appropriate frequency details of the flight and the proposed duration in LFZ - pilot maintains a listening watch on appropriate frequency while in LFZ and reports vacating.

Question 33

pilots operating within an LFZ must ensure what?

Answer 33

aircraft's operated without hazard to persons or property on surface and must not carry passenger unless dual flight instruction.

Question 34

what are MBZ?

Answer 34

established to provide increased protection to aircraft in areas of uncontrolled airspace where high density or special operation may occur.

Question 35

Non Radio (NORDO) aircraft mustn't enter MBZ unless what?

Answer 35

they have another station, such as an ATS unit or an aircraft, broadcasting the required reports on their behalf.

Question 36

how are MBZ seen on charts?

Answer 36

B----

Question 37

A pilot mustn't operate in an MBZ unless what? (5)

Answer 37

They make the following broadcast on radio frequency associated with MBZ: - at entry - aircraft callsign, position, altitude, intentions - joining circuit, callsign, position, altitude, intentions - before entering the runway for takeoff, callsign, runway in use, intentions after takeoff - at any other time at least at the intervals prescribed for the MBZ callsign, position, altitude, and intentions - maintain listening watch and activated if equipped landing lights or anti-collision

Question 38

PIC without an operable radio may operate within an MBZ for the uprose of enabling repairs to be made to radio only if what?

Answer 38

- turns on landing lights or anti-collision | - if practicable, arranges for another person to make broadcast required.

Question 39

how are VHZ depicted on VNC?

Answer 39

V---

Question 40

what are VHZ?

Answer 40

zones established to provide increased protection to aircraft in an area where volcanic activity may be present. requires pilet to operate in VMC by fay, in order to able to observe any ejecta or ash plume.

Question 41

A pilot mustn't operate within a VHZ when? (3)

Answer 41

- at night - in IMC - VMC during the day unless the pilot determines, that after going through relevant meteorological info in NOTAM, SIGMET info, and other info, that the VH will not affect the safety of flight.

Question 42

What is a Common Frequency Zone, how are they seen on VNC and what should pilots do in it? (CFZ)

Answer 42

zone established to encourage pilots to use a single HF frequency specified for the zone. although not mandatory pilots should transmit position, altitude and intentions relevant to prominent reporting points or features at entry or for traffic safety. Blue triangles.

Question 43

no person may use any place as an aerodrome unless what? (CAR 91)

Answer 43

the place is suitable for the purpose of taking off or landing of the aircraft concerned.

Question 44

no person may operate an aircraft at an aerodrome unless what? (CAR 91)(4)

Answer 44

- that person complies with any limitations and operational conditions on use of aerodrome notified by the operator - the runway is equipped with operable lighting, appropriate to that type of aircraft when landing or taking off a night and the lighting is activated - person maneuvers aircraft clear of any part of maneuvering area that's been notified or marked unsafe - the runway is clear of everything obstructing it during takeoff or landing other than persons, vehicles essential to the operation.

Question 45

no pilot may operate an aircraft in a circuit unless the aircraft can be maneuvered through what? (CAR 91)

Answer 45

- clear of obstructions | - without conflicting with the aerodrome traffic circuit or instrument approach procedure of any other aerodrome.

Question 46

what is an aerodrome movement area?

Answer 46

area that's part of the aerodrome intended to be used for takeoff/landing of aircraft or for surface movement of aircraft and includes the maneuvering area, maintenance area and apron

Question 47

what's a maneuvring area?

Answer 47

part of aerodrome used for takeoff/landing and for the surface movement of aircraft associated with takeoff/ landing.

Question 48

What's an apron?

Answer 48

a defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for the purpose of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling, parking, or maintenance.