General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the firstline treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbemapezine

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2
Q

What anticoagulant is used for metallic heart valves?

A

Warfarin - INR target 3 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral

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3
Q

How long before endoscopy should PPI be stopped?

A

2 weeks

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4
Q

What medication can be considered for severe cyclical mastalgia?

A

Danazol

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5
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for UTI in 3rd trimester?

A

Amoxicillin

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6
Q

How long before surgery should you stop taking clopidogrel?

A

7 Days

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7
Q

What is trousseau’s sign?

A

Sign of malignancy, also known as migratory thrombophlebilitis, which presents as a tender nodule under the skin.

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8
Q

What is the initial starting dose of levothyroxine for patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism or patients over 50 compared to everyone else?

A

25mcg compared to 50mcg then titrated up

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9
Q

What are the electrolyte disturbances seen in Addisons disease?

A

Hyperkalaemia & hyponatraemia

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10
Q

What is used to decrease the risk of reoccurrence in triple negative breast cancer?

A

Whole breast radiotherapy

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11
Q

What are the signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Chvostek sign - reaction to percussion of the facial nerve in front of the ear lobe and below the zygomatic process. When present we get ipsilateral contraction of the muscles of the face.

perioral and extremity numbness, laryngospasm and arrhythmia

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12
Q

What is Lambert eaton syndrome?

A

Weakness in muscles of proximal arms and legs

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13
Q

How is time for re scanning AAA organised based on size?

A

3cm-4.4cm - 12 monthly
4.5-5.4 - 3 monthly
5.5 or above - 2 weeks to discuss treatment options

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14
Q

What C-peptide level do you expect to see with type 1 diabetes?

A

Low

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15
Q

What id the main ecg change seen in hypercalcaemia?

A

Short QT interval

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16
Q

What type of heart murmur can be indicated with a pulsating nailbed and what type of murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation - early diastolic

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17
Q

What is the treatment for acne vulgaris in pregnancy?

A

oral erythromycin

18
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea when patient refuses ceftriaxone injection?

A

Oral cefixime and oral azithromycin

19
Q

What medication is used for ligation of varicies after surgery?

A

Propranolol

20
Q

What antibiotic is used in transplanted patients for a lung infection?

A

Co- Tramoxazole

21
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer in gord or barents oesophagus patients?

A

Adenocarcinoma

22
Q

What head injuries can present weeks after the injury?

A

Subdural

23
Q

What cancer is gynaecomastia associated with?

A

Adenocarcinoma of lung

24
Q

What antibiotics have an increased risk of intracranial hypertension?

A

Doxycycline

25
Q

What antibiotic can affect the achilles tendon?

A

Ciprofloxacin

26
Q

What is the most common cardiac problem associated with duchene muscular dystrophy?

A

Cardiomyopathy

27
Q

What dementia is associated with MND?

A

Levy body

28
Q

What test would help to confirm rheumatic fever?

A

Anti-streptolysisn O titre

29
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is seen in legionella ?

A

Hyponatraemia

30
Q

What is the best marker to asses if a second MI has occurred within days of a first?

A

Creatine kinase - they usually return to normal after 2-3 days whereas troponin take longer to come down

31
Q

What medication toxicity can cause a green/yellow tinge to vision?

A

Digoxin

32
Q

What is eczema herpeticum caused by?

A

HSV1

33
Q

A lesion at what level will cause finger abduction weakness?

A

T1

34
Q

What is the most prognostic marker of paracetamol overdose?

A

Prothrombin time

35
Q

What TB drug can cause peripeheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid

36
Q

What is firstline in minimal change disease?

A

Prednisolone

37
Q

What is the immediate treatment/management for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Nimodipine and blood pressure control

38
Q

What are the common causes of drug induced lupus?

A

TB medications - isoniazid
Procainamide, hydralazine, minocycline and phenytoin.

39
Q

What are ground glass appearances of liver associated with ?

A

Chronic hep B infection

40
Q
A