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Year 5 Medicine > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the firstline treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbemapezine

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2
Q

What anticoagulant is used for metallic heart valves?

A

Warfarin - INR target 3 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral

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3
Q

How long before endoscopy should PPI be stopped?

A

2 weeks

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4
Q

What medication can be considered for severe cyclical mastalgia?

A

Danazol

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5
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for UTI in 3rd trimester?

A

Amoxicillin

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6
Q

How long before surgery should you stop taking clopidogrel?

A

7 Days

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7
Q

What is trousseau’s sign?

A

Sign of malignancy, also known as migratory thrombophlebilitis, which presents as a tender nodule under the skin.

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8
Q

What is the initial starting dose of levothyroxine for patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism or patients over 50 compared to everyone else?

A

25mcg compared to 50mcg then titrated up

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9
Q

What are the electrolyte disturbances seen in Addisons disease?

A

Hyperkalaemia & hyponatraemia

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10
Q

What is used to decrease the risk of reoccurrence in triple negative breast cancer?

A

Whole breast radiotherapy

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11
Q

What are the signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Chvostek sign - reaction to percussion of the facial nerve in front of the ear lobe and below the zygomatic process. When present we get ipsilateral contraction of the muscles of the face.

perioral and extremity numbness, laryngospasm and arrhythmia

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12
Q

What is Lambert eaton syndrome?

A

Weakness in muscles of proximal arms and legs

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13
Q

How is time for re scanning AAA organised based on size?

A

3cm-4.4cm - 12 monthly
4.5-5.4 - 3 monthly
5.5 or above - 2 weeks to discuss treatment options

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14
Q

What C-peptide level do you expect to see with type 1 diabetes?

A

Low

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15
Q

What id the main ecg change seen in hypercalcaemia?

A

Short QT interval

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16
Q

What type of heart murmur can be indicated with a pulsating nailbed and what type of murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation - early diastolic

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17
Q

What is the treatment for acne vulgaris in pregnancy?

A

oral erythromycin

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18
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea when patient refuses ceftriaxone injection?

A

Oral cefixime and oral azithromycin

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19
Q

What medication is used for ligation of varicies after surgery?

A

Propranolol

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20
Q

What antibiotic is used in transplanted patients for a lung infection?

A

Co- Tramoxazole

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21
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer in gord or barents oesophagus patients?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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22
Q

What head injuries can present weeks after the injury?

A

Subdural

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23
Q

What cancer is gynaecomastia associated with?

A

Adenocarcinoma of lung

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24
Q

What antibiotics have an increased risk of intracranial hypertension?

A

Doxycycline

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25
What antibiotic can affect the achilles tendon?
Ciprofloxacin
26
What is the most common cardiac problem associated with duchene muscular dystrophy?
Cardiomyopathy
27
What dementia is associated with MND?
Levy body
28
What test would help to confirm rheumatic fever?
Anti-streptolysisn O titre
29
What electrolyte imbalance is seen in legionella ?
Hyponatraemia
30
What is the best marker to asses if a second MI has occurred within days of a first?
Creatine kinase - they usually return to normal after 2-3 days whereas troponin take longer to come down
31
What medication toxicity can cause a green/yellow tinge to vision?
Digoxin
32
What is eczema herpeticum caused by?
HSV1
33
A lesion at what level will cause finger abduction weakness?
T1
34
What is the most prognostic marker of paracetamol overdose?
Prothrombin time
35
What TB drug can cause peripeheral neuropathy?
Isoniazid
36
What is firstline in minimal change disease?
Prednisolone
37
What is the immediate treatment/management for subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Nimodipine and blood pressure control
38
What are the common causes of drug induced lupus?
TB medications - isoniazid Procainamide, hydralazine, minocycline and phenytoin.
39
What are ground glass appearances of liver associated with ?
Chronic hep B infection
40
What is the most common site affected in ischaemic colitis?
Splenic flexure
41
What test is used for Addisons?
Short synacthen test
42
What clinical sign is associated with the bp monitor cuff?
Trousseaus
43
What medication is given if high urinary ACR?
ACE
44
What type of hearing loss does meningitis cause?
Sensorineural
45
Why do coeliacs require annual vaccines?
Functional hyposplenism
46
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?
Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2
47
What is the most common cause of occupational asthma?
Isocyanates
48
What type of hernia is superior and medial to the pubic tubercle?
Inguinal
49
What is the treatment for patients found to be MRSA positive?
Nasal mupirocin and chorhexidine for the skin
50
What is the first line medication in ocular myasthenia gravis?
Pyridostigmine
51
What is the treatment of acne in pregnancy?
Erythromycin and topical axelaic acid
52
What CSF finding will confirm subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Xanthochromia, bilirubin and normal or raised opening pressure
53
What is a risk of taking fluoxetine in third trimester pregnancy?
Persistent pulmonary hypertension
54
What electrolyte abnormality is a common complication of subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Hyponatraemia
55
What is the prognosis of sarcoidosis and treatment?
Most patients get better without treatment
56
What is the treatment for gastroparesis?
Metoclopramide
57
What electrolyte abnormality is an indicator for pancreatitis severity?
Hypocalcaemia
58
What is the most common infective organism in keratitis?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
59
What is the mechanism of action of dorzolamide for raised IOP?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
60
What is the treatment for dry ARMD?
High dose beta-carotene and vitamin c and e
61
What back pain cause improves with exercise?
Inflammatory back pain - ankylosing spondylitis
62
What visual field defect is associated with temporal lesions?
Superior quadranopia
63
What visual field defect is caused by parietal lesions?
Contralateral inferior quadranopia
64
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
Primary hyperaldosteronism
65
What is the ratio seen in alcoholic hepatitis?
AST/ALT is 2:1
66
What CD4 count requires antibiotic prophylaxis?
< 200
67
What is the mechanism of action of orlistat?
Pancreatic lipase inhibitor
68
What test is of prognostic value in pancreatitis?
Blood glucose
69
What condition can cause an isolated rise in haemoglobin?
Polycythaemia rubra vera
70
What is the cause of kaposis sarcoma?
HHV-8
71
What antibiotic is given empirically in suspected endocarditis?
IV amoxicillin
72
What eyesight problems are acute angle closure glaucoma and primary open angle glaucoma associated with?
Acute = hypermetropia - long sighted Primary = myopia - short sighted
73
What is the uptake seen in nuclear scintigraphy of toxic multi nodular goitre?
Patchy uptake
74
Where is fibrosis usually seen in TB?
Upper lung zones
75
What is the management of a patient with mania taking antidepressants?
Stop antidepressant and start antipsychotic
76
What his a common consequence of subarachnoid haemorrhage?
SIADH
77
What type of stemi can cause third degree heart block?
Inferior
78
What is Reynolds pentad?
Charcots triad plus hypotension and confusion
79
What is the most common organism to cause infective exacerbation of COPD?
Haemophilus influenzae
80
What scoring system is used to measure disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis?
DAS28
81
In C difficile infections what pain medication should be withheld?
Opioids
82
What is the firstline medication in the management of ocular myasthenia gravis?
Pyridostigmine
83
What ophthalmology condition causes change in colour vision?
Optic neuritis
84
What medication do you change a doac to in a female thats become pregnant?
LMWH
85
When should antivirals be given in a pregnant woman with chicken pox exposure and no antibodies?
7-14 days post exposure
86
What is the name of the yeast infection causing meningitis?
Cryptococcal meningitis
87
What marker detects severity of c dif infection?
WBC
88
What bacteria is the most common to cause type 2 necrotising fasciitis?
Strep pyogenes
89
What type of medication is tamsulosin?
A1 antagonist
90
What is the most common cause of bacterial otitis media?
H Influenzae
91
What medication is used to treat an antipsychotic side effect of tar dive dyskinesia?
Tetrabenazine
92
What is the most appropriate way to diagnose pertussis?
Nasal swab
93
What is the most common type of non-hodgkin lymphoma?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
94
What medication is given in severe alcoholic hepatitis?
Prednisolone
95
What antibiotics to treat campylobacter?
Azithromycin or clarithromycin
96
What bacteria causes endocarditis after valve surgery?
Staph epidermidis
97
What shapes and negatives/positives are the bacteria causing meningitis?
S.Pneumonia = gram positive diplococci N. Meningitidis = gram negative diplococci H. Influenzae = gram negative cocobacilli E.Coli = gram negative bacilli L. Monocytogenes = gram positive rod
98
What clinical scenario is associated with a galeazzi fracture seen?
Fall on hand with rotational force - displaced radial fracture, prominent ulnar head due to dislocation of the radio ulnar joint
99
What do cotton wool spots on the retina represent?
Retinal Neovascularisation
100
What is a thallium spect scan?
Scan to differentiate between malignant and non-malignant lesions
101
What nerve root is associated with claw hand and what is the palsy name?
T1 Klumpke's Palsy
102
Which cranial nerves are affected by vestibular schwanomas?
5, 7, 8
103
What s the most common site affected in UC?
Rectum
104
What can differentiate between graves and an alternative cause of hyperthyroidism?
Diplopia is seen in graves

Year 5 Medicine (17 decks)

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