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Year 5 Medicine > General > Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the firstline treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbemapezine

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2
Q

What anticoagulant is used for metallic heart valves?

A

Warfarin - INR target 3 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral

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3
Q

How long before endoscopy should PPI be stopped?

A

2 weeks

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4
Q

What medication can be considered for severe cyclical mastalgia?

A

Danazol

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5
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for UTI in 3rd trimester?

A

Amoxicillin

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6
Q

How long before surgery should you stop taking clopidogrel?

A

7 Days

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7
Q

What is trousseau’s sign?

A

Sign of malignancy, also known as migratory thrombophlebilitis, which presents as a tender nodule under the skin.

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8
Q

What is the initial starting dose of levothyroxine for patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism or patients over 50 compared to everyone else?

A

25mcg compared to 50mcg then titrated up

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9
Q

What are the electrolyte disturbances seen in Addisons disease?

A

Hyperkalaemia & hyponatraemia

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10
Q

What is used to decrease the risk of reoccurrence in triple negative breast cancer?

A

Whole breast radiotherapy

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11
Q

What are the signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Chvostek sign - reaction to percussion of the facial nerve in front of the ear lobe and below the zygomatic process. When present we get ipsilateral contraction of the muscles of the face.

perioral and extremity numbness, laryngospasm and arrhythmia

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12
Q

What is Lambert eaton syndrome?

A

Weakness in muscles of proximal arms and legs

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13
Q

How is time for re scanning AAA organised based on size?

A

3cm-4.4cm - 12 monthly
4.5-5.4 - 3 monthly
5.5 or above - 2 weeks to discuss treatment options

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14
Q

What C-peptide level do you expect to see with type 1 diabetes?

A

Low

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15
Q

What id the main ecg change seen in hypercalcaemia?

A

Short QT interval

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16
Q

What type of heart murmur can be indicated with a pulsating nailbed and what type of murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation - early diastolic

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17
Q

What is the treatment for acne vulgaris in pregnancy?

A

oral erythromycin

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18
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea when patient refuses ceftriaxone injection?

A

Oral cefixime and oral azithromycin

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19
Q

What medication is used for ligation of varicies after surgery?

A

Propranolol

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20
Q

What antibiotic is used in transplanted patients for a lung infection?

A

Co- Tramoxazole

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21
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer in gord or barents oesophagus patients?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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22
Q

What head injuries can present weeks after the injury?

A

Subdural

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23
Q

What cancer is gynaecomastia associated with?

A

Adenocarcinoma of lung

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24
Q

What antibiotics have an increased risk of intracranial hypertension?

A

Doxycycline

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25
Q

What antibiotic can affect the achilles tendon?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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26
Q

What is the most common cardiac problem associated with duchene muscular dystrophy?

A

Cardiomyopathy

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27
Q

What dementia is associated with MND?

A

Levy body

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28
Q

What test would help to confirm rheumatic fever?

A

Anti-streptolysisn O titre

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29
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is seen in legionella ?

A

Hyponatraemia

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30
Q

What is the best marker to asses if a second MI has occurred within days of a first?

A

Creatine kinase - they usually return to normal after 2-3 days whereas troponin take longer to come down

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31
Q

What medication toxicity can cause a green/yellow tinge to vision?

A

Digoxin

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32
Q

What is eczema herpeticum caused by?

A

HSV1

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33
Q

A lesion at what level will cause finger abduction weakness?

A

T1

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34
Q

What is the most prognostic marker of paracetamol overdose?

A

Prothrombin time

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35
Q

What TB drug can cause peripeheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid

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36
Q

What is firstline in minimal change disease?

A

Prednisolone

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37
Q

What is the immediate treatment/management for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Nimodipine and blood pressure control

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38
Q

What are the common causes of drug induced lupus?

A

TB medications - isoniazid
Procainamide, hydralazine, minocycline and phenytoin.

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39
Q

What are ground glass appearances of liver associated with ?

A

Chronic hep B infection

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40
Q

What is the most common site affected in ischaemic colitis?

A

Splenic flexure

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41
Q

What test is used for Addisons?

A

Short synacthen test

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42
Q

What clinical sign is associated with the bp monitor cuff?

A

Trousseaus

43
Q

What medication is given if high urinary ACR?

44
Q

What type of hearing loss does meningitis cause?

A

Sensorineural

45
Q

Why do coeliacs require annual vaccines?

A

Functional hyposplenism

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

A

Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

47
Q

What is the most common cause of occupational asthma?

A

Isocyanates

48
Q

What type of hernia is superior and medial to the pubic tubercle?

49
Q

What is the treatment for patients found to be MRSA positive?

A

Nasal mupirocin and chorhexidine for the skin

50
Q

What is the first line medication in ocular myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

51
Q

What is the treatment of acne in pregnancy?

A

Erythromycin and topical axelaic acid

52
Q

What CSF finding will confirm subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Xanthochromia, bilirubin and normal or raised opening pressure

53
Q

What is a risk of taking fluoxetine in third trimester pregnancy?

A

Persistent pulmonary hypertension

54
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is a common complication of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Hyponatraemia

55
Q

What is the prognosis of sarcoidosis and treatment?

A

Most patients get better without treatment

56
Q

What is the treatment for gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide

57
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is an indicator for pancreatitis severity?

A

Hypocalcaemia

58
Q

What is the most common infective organism in keratitis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dorzolamide for raised IOP?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

60
Q

What is the treatment for dry ARMD?

A

High dose beta-carotene and vitamin c and e

61
Q

What back pain cause improves with exercise?

A

Inflammatory back pain - ankylosing spondylitis

62
Q

What visual field defect is associated with temporal lesions?

A

Superior quadranopia

63
Q

What visual field defect is caused by parietal lesions?

A

Contralateral inferior quadranopia

64
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

65
Q

What is the ratio seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

AST/ALT is 2:1

66
Q

What CD4 count requires antibiotic prophylaxis?

67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of orlistat?

A

Pancreatic lipase inhibitor

68
Q

What test is of prognostic value in pancreatitis?

A

Blood glucose

69
Q

What condition can cause an isolated rise in haemoglobin?

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera

70
Q

What is the cause of kaposis sarcoma?

71
Q

What antibiotic is given empirically in suspected endocarditis?

A

IV amoxicillin

72
Q

What eyesight problems are acute angle closure glaucoma and primary open angle glaucoma associated with?

A

Acute = hypermetropia - long sighted
Primary = myopia - short sighted

73
Q

What is the uptake seen in nuclear scintigraphy of toxic multi nodular goitre?

A

Patchy uptake

74
Q

Where is fibrosis usually seen in TB?

A

Upper lung zones

75
Q

What is the management of a patient with mania taking antidepressants?

A

Stop antidepressant and start antipsychotic

76
Q

What his a common consequence of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

77
Q

What type of stemi can cause third degree heart block?

78
Q

What is Reynolds pentad?

A

Charcots triad plus hypotension and confusion

79
Q

What is the most common organism to cause infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

80
Q

What scoring system is used to measure disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis?

81
Q

In C difficile infections what pain medication should be withheld?

82
Q

What is the firstline medication in the management of ocular myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

83
Q

What ophthalmology condition causes change in colour vision?

A

Optic neuritis

84
Q

What medication do you change a doac to in a female thats become pregnant?

85
Q

When should antivirals be given in a pregnant woman with chicken pox exposure and no antibodies?

A

7-14 days post exposure

86
Q

What is the name of the yeast infection causing meningitis?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

87
Q

What marker detects severity of c dif infection?

88
Q

What bacteria is the most common to cause type 2 necrotising fasciitis?

A

Strep pyogenes

89
Q

What type of medication is tamsulosin?

A

A1 antagonist

90
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial otitis media?

A

H Influenzae

91
Q

What medication is used to treat an antipsychotic side effect of tar dive dyskinesia?

A

Tetrabenazine

92
Q

What is the most appropriate way to diagnose pertussis?

A

Nasal swab

93
Q

What is the most common type of non-hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

94
Q

What medication is given in severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Prednisolone

95
Q

What antibiotics to treat campylobacter?

A

Azithromycin or clarithromycin

96
Q

What bacteria causes endocarditis after valve surgery?

A

Staph epidermidis

97
Q

What shapes and negatives/positives are the bacteria causing meningitis?

A

S.Pneumonia = gram positive diplococci
N. Meningitidis = gram negative diplococci
H. Influenzae = gram negative cocobacilli
E.Coli = gram negative bacilli
L. Monocytogenes = gram positive rod

98
Q

What clinical scenario is associated with a galeazzi fracture seen?

A

Fall on hand with rotational force - displaced radial fracture, prominent ulnar head due to dislocation of the radio ulnar joint

99
Q

What do cotton wool spots on the retina represent?

A

Retinal Neovascularisation

100
Q

What is a thallium spect scan?

A

Scan to differentiate between malignant and non-malignant lesions

101
Q

What nerve root is associated with claw hand and what is the palsy name?

A

T1 Klumpke’s Palsy

102
Q

Which cranial nerves are affected by vestibular schwanomas?

103
Q

What s the most common site affected in UC?

104
Q

What can differentiate between graves and an alternative cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Diplopia is seen in graves

Year 5 Medicine (17 decks)

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