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Small animal medicine II > Gastrointestinal > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

What are functional abnormalities that can occur with the GIT?

A

Dysautonomia, cricopharyngeal achalasia, esophageal motility disorders

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2
Q

What are some specifics of GIT signs like vomiting regurgitation and diarrhea what you want to gather to make a better diagnosis?

A

Onset and duration
Frequency, progression, severity
Appearance
Diet

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3
Q

What are some characteristics of vomiting that regurgitation does not have?

A

Abdominal contractions, open/relaxed sphincters, reverse peristalsis, digested food, nausea and retching

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4
Q

What are some differences between small bowel and bowel diarrhea?

A

Large bowel is higher in frequency with normal fecal volumes, with more often urgency, tenesmus, mucous, and blood.

Small bowel can possibly have melena as well as steatorrhea with increased volume

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5
Q

List some key diseases of the oral cavity

A 
Periodontal
Viral papillomatosis
Odontogenic Neoplasia
Malignant oral masses
Eosinophilic granuloma complex
Gingivostomatitis
Foreign body
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6
Q

What disease has benign cauliflower-like lesions in and around the oral caivity?

A

Canine oral papillomavirus

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7
Q

T/F: Papillomatosis usually afffects younger dogs and will regress on its own as the dog’s immune system matures

A

True

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8
Q

T/F: Epulides - ondotogenic neoplasms are benign

A

True

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9
Q

What is the curative form of treatment for peripheral odontogenic fibromas?

A

Surgery

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10
Q

T/F: Peripheral odontogenic fibromas are invasive, ulcerated lesions in the mouth

A

False. non-invasive, non-ulcerative

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11
Q

What is the #1 malignant oral mass in the dog?

A

Malignant melanoma

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12
Q

How would you treat oral malignant cancer?

A

Surgery, chemo, radiation

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13
Q

What species is affected by eosinophilic granuloma complex?

A

Cats

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14
Q

What will you see on a FNA/cytology for EGC?

A

mixed eosinophilic and granulomatous reaction

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15
Q

T/F: prognosis for EGC is good, but recurrence is common

A

True

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16
Q

How do you treat EGC?

A

change food, steroids, flea control, pain management

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17
Q

What do you see with gingivostomatitis?

A

Severe chronic inflammation with ulcers and proliferative lesions

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18
Q

How do you treat gingivostomatitis?

A

medically for good oral hygiene, full mouth extractions, antibiotics

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19
Q

What are some signs you will see with pharyngeal diseases?

A

Dysphagia, retching, gagging, coughing, dyspnea, voice change*

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20
Q

What are some diseases that can occur with the pharynx?

A

Foreign body, inflammation/infection, obstruction, masses, neuromuscular dysfunction

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21
Q

What agents are typically the cause of tonsilar infections?

A

Viruses

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22
Q

What signs will you see with nasopharyngeal polyps?

A

Difficulty swallowing, nasal discharge, stertor

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23
Q

Where do nasopharyngeal polyps originate?

A

Middle ear

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24
Q

How do you treat a nasopharyngeal polyp?

A

Gentle traction to remove it

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25
Q

What is the #1 salivary gland disorder in dogs?

A

Sialocele

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26
Q

What is the disease in the salivary gland that responds to phenobarbitol called?

A

Sialadenosis

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27
Q

T/F: Sialoceles common cause acute pain and inflammation in the early course of disease

A

True

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28
Q

T/F: Sialoceles are hard and firm

A

False. Mobile, soft, flocculent

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29
Q

How do you treat sialoceles?

A

Surgical removal WITH BIOPSY*

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30
Q

How do you treat sialadenitis?

A

Treat primary disease, antibiotics, pain meds

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31
Q

What may you see with traumatic pharyngeal lesions (from a stick)?

A

Secondary infections, bloody saliva, pain, anorexia

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32
Q

What neurologic tests would want you want when dealing with an animal with dysphagia?

A

GAG reflex (CN IX and X)

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33
Q

What are some tests to run to evaluate and diagnose a dysphagic animal?

A

Radiographs, fluoroscopy, AcH antibody titer, endoscopy, MRI

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34
Q

How can you treat an animal with dysphagia?

A

elevation of food and water, treat specific disease, “thick-it”, feeding tubes

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35
Q

T/F: Cricopharyngal achalasia is a common disorder seen in male dogs.

A

False. Rare disease with breed predisposition - Cockers and Spaniels

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36
Q

What action is affected by cricopharyngeal achalasia?

A

Swallowing

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37
Q

What test can you run to evaluate cricopharyngeal achalasia?

A

Fluoroscopy with contrast

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38
Q

What treatment is there for cricopharyngeal achalasia?

A

Cricopharyngeal myotomy/myectomy, botox,

Also treat aspiration pneumonia

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39
Q

T/F: a sedated oral exam is a common part of oral and pharyngeal disease

A

True

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40
Q

T/F: Animals with esophageal disease are hungry but can’t eat!

A

True!

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41
Q

T/F: You will see vomiting often with esophageal disease.

A

FALSE. REGURGITATION!

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42
Q

Where would you perform radiographs with animals with esophageal disease?

A

Neck and Thorax

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43
Q

How would you act if your patient aspirated barium?

A

Give antibiotics and monitor. Most will be okay

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44
Q

What medication can cause esophagitis? (Hint: it’s an antibiotic)

A

Doxycycline

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45
Q

What will you most likely see on radiographs with esophagitis?

A

Not much significant value

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46
Q

What animal, dog or cat, gets a foreign body stuck in its esophagus more often?

A

Dog > cat

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47
Q

What are some risks when removing the foreign body in the esophagus from an animal?

A

Perforation. This can lead to effusion, pyothorax

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48
Q

What is esophageal stricture typically caused by?

A

Trauma, neoplasia, post-foreign body, post-anesthesia**

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49
Q

How can you treat esophageal stricture?

A

Balloon dilatation

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50
Q

What is the best method of diagnosing esophageal dysmotility?

A

Fluoroscopy

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51
Q

What may be a ddx for esophageal dilation in a cat?

A

Nasopharyngeal polyp

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52
Q

What can be a secondary symptom in a cat with nasopharyngeal polyp?

A

Megaesophagus

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53
Q

T/F: Megaesophagus is a severe, diffuse generalized dilation of the esophagus

A

True

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54
Q

T/F: Congenital megaesophagus patients will have abnormal neuromuscular innervation

A

True

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55
Q

What are the main causes of acquired megaesophagus?

A

Idiopathic, primary CNS, endocrine, lead toxitiy

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56
Q

What blood tests would you perform with megaesophagus?

A

CBC, Chem, UA, T4, cortisol

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57
Q

How do you treat megaesophagus?

A

Treat the underlying disease, nutritional support

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58
Q

How can you improve a dog’s eating habits if they have megaesophagus?

A

Thicken the food, feeding tube, elevate the food dishes (bailey 4 chairs)

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59
Q

What determines the prognosis in a patient with megaesophagus?

A

patient’s ability to tolerate the change in eating habits, severity of disease

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60
Q

What is the #1 cause of vascular ring anomaly?

A

Persistent right aortic arch

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61
Q

What CxS will you see with vascular ring anomaly?

A

Regurgitation, poor hair coat

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62
Q

What is the best treatment for vascular ring anomaly?

A

Surgery. sooner the better

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63
Q

What parasite is associated with the esophagus?

A

Spirocerca lupi

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64
Q

What must form in the esophagus in order to detect spirocerca lupi in the fecal test?

A

Fistula

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65
Q

T/F: Spirocerca lupi can cause sarcoma

A

True

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66
Q

T/F: Often spirocerca lupi disease, by the time it is diagnosed, is too advanced to treat

A

True

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67
Q

What are the two types of hiatal hernia?

A

Type 1 - sliding, intermittent displacement of LES and fundus into thorax

Type 2 - fundus only displaced

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68
Q

How would you diagnose and treat hiatal hernias?

A

Diagnose with DI and contrast

Treat with surgery or similar meds to esophagitis

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69
Q

T/F: Neoplasia is common in the esophagus, but has a good prognosis

A

False. Rare, with poor prognosis

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70
Q

T/F: Vomiting is a reflex

A

True

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71
Q

What are the phases of vomiting?

A

Nausea, retching, expulsion

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72
Q

T/F: The stomach, esophagus and sphincters are relaxed during vomiting

A

True

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73
Q

What systems are stimulated in regards to vomiting?

A

Cerebral cortex and limbic system, vestibular system -> chemoreceptor trigger zone

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74
Q

Where is the emetic center located in the brain?

A

Medulla oblongata

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75
Q

What types of stimuli affect the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

Motion (sickness)

Endogenous drug toxins

Pharynx, stomach stimuli

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76
Q

How does motion sickness (kinetosis) lead to vomiting?

A

Inner ear stimulation -> CRTZ activation -> dopamine and serotonin -> Ach from emetic center

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77
Q

What are some causes of CRTZ activation?

A

Opioids, toxins, uremia, motion

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78
Q

What are some DDx for acute vomiting? (<1 week)

A

Toxin, meds, diet, foreign body, pancreatitis, addison’s crisis

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79
Q

What are some DDx for chornic vomiting? (>1 week)

A

Intermittent foreign body, organ failure, pancreatitis, primary GIT disease

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80
Q

If the pet is vomiting and not systemically ill, how would you treat it?

A

Symptomatic therapy with diet and meds

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81
Q

If the pet is vomiting and is systemically ill, how would you treat it?

A

Treat symptoms, but also lab tests and image.

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82
Q

What are the ‘big 4’ tests to run with a pet that is vomiting?

A

PCV, TS, BG, AZO stick

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83
Q

Why would you run a CBC, chem, or UA on a dog that is vomiting?

A

To rule out possible underlying disease

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84
Q

Why would you run a cortisol test on a dog that is vomiting?

A

Rule out addison’s

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85
Q

T/F: If you are using U/S, you do not have to take rads on a pet that is vomiting.

A

False. US is complimentary

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86
Q

What can U/S tell you on a pet that is vomiting?

A

The alterations of the stomach lining and small intestine

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87
Q

What are some medical management treatments for patients that come in with acute vomiting, but are not ill?

A

antacids, fluids, and monitoring.

No water for 6-8 hours and taper in slowly. Bland diet

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88
Q

What are some medical treatments for patients that come in with vomiting and ARE ill?

A

catheter, fluids, antacids, pain mangement, nutrition

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89
Q

What are some risks to think about before giving a vomiting dog fluids?

A

Volume overload in heart failure patients, severe hypoproteinemia

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90
Q

What are the common H2 antacids used?

A

Famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine

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91
Q

What are the proton pump inhibitors used?

A

omeprazole and pantoprazole

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92
Q

What do antiemetic medications do?

A

Block the neurotransmitters at the receptor sites associated with emesis

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93
Q

What histamine antagonists are commonly used?

A

Diphenhydramine and meclizine

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94
Q

What histamine antagonist is useful with vestibular disease associated with vomiting?

A

Meclizine

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95
Q

What is the dopaminergic antagonist drug commonly used? Where does it work on the body?

A

Metoclopramide. Distal esophagus stimulation

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96
Q

What is the NK-1 receptor antagonist drug used?

A

Maropitant (cerenia)

97
Q

What is the gastric mucosal protectant used? What does it do?

A

Sulcralfate. Stimulates PG and reacts with HCl to form a paste that sticks to ulcers

98
Q

What drugs might you use in advanced vomiting related disease?

A

Misoprostol, octreotide

99
Q

What are some prokinetics used?

A

Metoclopramide, cisapride, ranitidine, erythromycin

100
Q

How does erythromycin stimulate intestinal motility?

A

Stimulates motilin in the gut which promotes movement

101
Q

What are some appetite stimulants used?

A

Cyproheptadine (H1 blocker, serotonin antagonist)

102
Q

What is the appetite stimulant used that is a tetracyclic antidepressant?

A

Mirtazapine

103
Q

T/F: Dogs and cats secrete lots of intrinsic factor from their parietal cells

A

False

104
Q

What is the nerve group in the submucosa of the stomach called?

A

Meissner’s plexus

105
Q

What is the nerve group in the muscularis of the stomach called?

A

Auerbach’s plexus

106
Q

What are some issues that can happen with the stomach?

A

Inflammation, ulceration, obstruction, neoplasia, infection

107
Q

What chemistry signs will you see with primary gastric disease?

A

Hypochloremia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, azotemia

108
Q

What does an elevated BUN, greater than creatinine suggest with the upper GIT?

A

Bleeding inside of the GIT

109
Q

What test would probably give the most information for the stomach?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

110
Q

When would endoscopy of the stomach be indicated?

A

When you rule out non-GI causes and have treated for the common ones like parasites, and diet change

111
Q

What are the pros and cons of gastric endoscopy?

A

Pros: Can detect ulcers, perform biopsies, find masses, foreign bodies, short recovery

Cons: cannot detect deeper diseases

112
Q

What are the pros and cons of gastric surgery?

A

Pros: full thickness biopsy, foreign bodies

Cons: longer recovery

113
Q

How do you approach a case of an animal with acute gastritis?

A

Check for systemic illness and treat according to symptoms.

ex: fluids, antacids, anti-emetics, r/o foreign body, pain meds

114
Q

T/F: The clinical signs for gastric foreign body is always persistent.

A

False. Persistent and intermittent

115
Q

What happens to the contents of the abdomen with GDV?

A

Compression of the caudal vena cava -> hypovolemic shock

Necrosis of gastric wall, splenic torsion, congestion, endotoxemic shock, DIC

116
Q

What types of dogs are predisposed to GDV?

A

Large breed dogs, barrel chested. Also those that eat fast and play right after

117
Q

What are some CxS seen with GDV?

A

Retching, ptyalism, abdominal distension, collapse

118
Q

What will you see on PE with GDV?

A

Tympany of abdomen, tachycardia, hypothermia, depression

119
Q

What do you see in radiographs on a dog with GDV?

A

“Popeye arm” shape fof the volvulus.

120
Q

How do you treat GDV?

A

Aggressive fluid therapy, decompress abdomen, SURGERY

121
Q

What happens in the stomach when it erodes or ulcerates?

A

Disruption of the normal proteins, decreased blood flow, hypersecretion of acid, decreasted mucus and bicarb

122
Q

What causes gastric ulcers and erosions?

A

Neoplasia, hypotension/volemia, trauma, medications

123
Q

What is the best way to diagnose a gastric ulcer/erosion?

A

Endoscopy

124
Q

What is the primary treatment to enhance the mucosal protection of the stomach?

A

Sucralfate

125
Q

What does helicobacter cause? (CxS)

A

Acute or chronic vomiting

126
Q

How do you treat helicobacter?

A

2 weeks of antibiotics (amoxicillin, metro, clarithromycin)

127
Q

What CxS are seen with gastric pythiosis?

A

Chronic vomiting, pyogranulomatous inflammation

128
Q

T/F: Pythiosis is nonfatal

A

False

129
Q

What is seen with gastric esophageal reflex?

A

Chronic vomiting

130
Q

How would you treat GER?

A

Find and treat the primary cause

131
Q

How do you diagnose inflammatory gastritis?

A

Endoscopy, surgical biopsy

132
Q

What is the major CxS with inflammatory gastritis?

A

Chronic vomiting

133
Q

What is the #1 sign of inflammatory gastritis on a CBC?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate

134
Q

How would you treat lymphoplasmacytic and eosinophilic gastritis?

A

Symptomatically with antacids, sucralfate, antiemetics, deworms, diet change

IMMUNE MODULATION (taper prednisone after response)

135
Q

What CxS is seen with atrophic gastritis?

A

Chronic vomiting

136
Q

what CxS is seen with hypertrophic gastropathy?

A

Chronic vomiting, projectile

137
Q

What kinds of dogs typically have hypertrophic gastropathy?

A

small, older breeds

138
Q

What happens with pyloric stenosis/hypertrophy?

A

muscular thickening of the pyloric sphincter, delayed gastric emptying

139
Q

How can an animal get pyloric stenosis?

A

Congenital: breed
Acquired: inflammation, neoplasia

140
Q

What CxS do you see with a gastrinoma?

A

Chronic vomiting

141
Q

What is a gastrinoma?

A

a tumor in the pancreas of the APUD which leads to the hypersecretion of gastric acid

142
Q

How do you diagnose gastrinoma?

A

Measure gastrin levels, and see what happens 48 hours after antacids are stopped

143
Q

How do you treat gastrinoma?

A

Surgical removal, PPI, octreotie

144
Q

T/F: Gastrinoma is non malignant and does not metastasize

A

False. Mets are often found at diagnosis

145
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in the stomach of the dog?

A

Adenocarcinoma (70%)

146
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in the stomach of the cat?

A

Lymphosarcoma

147
Q

What usually causes a delayed emptying of the stomach and/or motility disorders?

A

Inflammation, infection, obstruction, electrolyte imbalance, surgery, meds (opioids)

148
Q

How long does it normally take for the stomach to empty its contents into the small intestine?

A

8 hours

149
Q

How can you treat delayed gastric emptying disorders?

A

Cisapride*

150
Q

T/F: If you see a dog with vomiting and you see bacteria in gut, it is most likely helicobacter.

A

False

151
Q

T/F: Small intestine absorbs the nutrients, large intestine absorbs the water

A

True

152
Q

T/F: With diarrhea, the reabsorption of water from the lumen exceeds its secretion

A

False

153
Q

What is considered acute diarrhea, and chronic?

A

Acute < 3 weeks

Chronic > 3 weeks

154
Q

What are some things to think about to help guide the diagnosis in a pet that has diarrhea?

A

Onset, duration, appearance, frequency, food/diet, environment, toxin, meds, vomiting, systemic

155
Q

What may you see with small bowel diarrhea?

A

Weight loss, vomiting, high fecal volume, melena, steatorrhea

156
Q

What may you see with large bowel diarrhea?

A

High frequency of defecation, urgency, tenesmus, mucus, blood

157
Q

What might cause melena?

A

Ingestion of blood from GIT, ulcers, IMTP, foreign body, coagulopathy

158
Q

What drugs can cause melena?

A

NSAIDs, aspirin

159
Q

What PE techniques should be done on an animal that comes in with diarrhea?

A

Rectal exam, palation of abdomen, lymph node check, systemic illness check, hydration status

160
Q

When should you be more aggressive with tests and treatment on a patient with diarrhea?

A

The presence of weight loss, inappetence, dehydration

161
Q

What is a big goal of running labwork on an animal with diarrhea?

A

Rule out non-GI diseases, and get info on the extent of possible primary GI

162
Q

What tests can be done to check the extent of primary Gi disease?

A

CBC for anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia, eosinophilia, or normal values

163
Q

What does hypoproteinemia in a dog with diarrhea tell you?

A

Malabsorption of the small intestine

164
Q

What does hyperglobulinemia in a patient with diarrhea tell you?

A

FIP, infectious causes, neoplasia

165
Q

What does hypercalcemia ina patient with diarrhea tell you? Hypocalcemia?

A

Hyper - cancer, fungus

Hypo - Pancreatitis

166
Q

What does hypoglycemia in a patient with diarrhea tell you?

A

Septic abdomen, paraneoplastic syndromes, Addisons

167
Q

What does a hyponatremia with hyperkalemia tell you about a patient with diarrhea?

A

Addisons, pseudo addisons

168
Q

T/F: B12 values tell you the type of GI disease and helps rule out the presence of it

A

False. but it can tell you the animal is malabsorbing

169
Q

What does high pancreatic lipase tell you?

A

Pancreatitis

170
Q

T/F: Testing TLI is helpful for indirectly diagnosing pancreatitis

A

True.

171
Q

T/F: High TLI and low PLI is a strong sign for pancreatitis

A

False. Low TLI and High PLI

172
Q

What coagulation assessment can be found with malabsorptive diseases?

A

Decreased anti-thrombin

173
Q

What are the common antibiotics used to treat diarrhea?

A

Metronidazole, tylosin, clavamox, enrofloxacin

174
Q

How can you treat diarrhea?

A

Antibiotics, diet change, fluids, vitamin supplements, fiber, steroids (prednisone), probiotics

175
Q

What topical steroid can be applied to treat diarrhea that has less side effects and is more potent than prednisolone?

A

Budesonide

176
Q

T/F: You can’t give cyclosporine to cats

A

False. Can’t give azothioprine

177
Q

What immune modulators are commonly used with diarrhea?

A

Cyclosporine, azothiopine, chlorambucil

178
Q

What can Peptiobismol do to the stool?

A

Darken it. Also radioopaque

179
Q

T/F: B12 and folate levels are assessed to test suspected primary large intestine disorders

A

False. Small intestine. Normal values does not mean there is no primary disease

180
Q

T/F: Decreased albumin and cholesterol is a marker for primary large intestinal disease

A

False. Small intestine

181
Q

Why is it important to give nutritional supplementation when dealing with GI disease?

A

If the enterocytes are damaged, they cannot absorb any nutrients

182
Q

What is the new term for hemorrhagic gastroenteritis?

A

Acute hemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome (AHDS)

183
Q

What are the CxS seen with AHDS?

A

Hematemesis, hematochezia

184
Q

What is the expected PCV to be with AHDS?

A

> 60%

185
Q

How do you treat AHDS?

A

IV fluids, antibiotics, sucralfate, antiemetics, nutrition

186
Q

What is a sign of poor prognosis for AHDS?

A

Severe hypoproteinemia, sepsis

187
Q

What is the minimal fecal sample size required to run a fecal exam?

A

1 gram

188
Q

How does a cat or dog usually get dipylidium caninum?

A

Ingestion of fleas

189
Q

How do you treat tapeworms?

A

Praziquantel, fenbendazole

190
Q

T/F: Roundworms can be fatal

A

True with pulmonary involvement

191
Q

T/F: Is a parasite is suspected, just deworm the pet

A

True

192
Q

What types of animals are most affected by protozoa?

A

Young and immune compromised

193
Q

What do you primarily see with protozoal infections?

A

Diarrhea, maybe weight loss

194
Q

How do you diagnose giardia?

A

Fecal float, ELISA (do not use as recheck)

195
Q

How do you diagnose tritrichomonas for the cat?

A

Fecal PCR

196
Q

What is the cytological difference between giardia and trichomonas?

A

Giardia - falling leaf

Trichomonas - undulating, wavy membrane

197
Q

How do you treat giardia?

A

Fenbendazole x 5 days

198
Q

How do you diagnose and treat coccidia?

A

Fecal smear or float

Sulfadimethoxine (ALBON)

199
Q

T/F: Cryptosporidium is a severe life threatening disease

A

True, but only to immunocompromised. Self-limiting for all others

200
Q

What are the chances that a toxoplasmosis infected cat will shed its oocytes?

A

Very low

201
Q

What do antibody titers tell you about toxoplasma?

A

Only helps if the patient is sick, does not tell you if the pet is shedding oocytes or has disease

202
Q

How do you treat toxoplasmosis?

A

Clindamycin, TMS

203
Q

T/F: A dog with pythiosis can show both GI and cutaneous lesions

A

False. These do not occur together

204
Q

How do you diagnose pythiosis?

A

ELISA for antibody detection, biopsy of the lesions - SEVERE thickening of tissue

205
Q

How do you treat pythiosis?

A

Surgical removal, itraconazole treatment

206
Q

What is the prognosis of pythiosis?

A

Poor if the affected area is not removed

207
Q

What type of organism is histoplasma?

A

Dimorphic fungus

208
Q

What CxS is seen with histoplasmosis?

A

Diarrhea, weight loss, fever, respiratory disease

209
Q

How can you diagnose histoplasmosis?

A

FNA of tissue and fluid, biopsy, ELISA antigen

210
Q

How do you treat histoplasmosis?

A

Prolonged meds

211
Q

What is the prognosis for histoplasmosis?

A

Acute is fatal, multisystem involvement is poor, one organ affected is better

212
Q

How does an animal get sick from candida albicans?

A

It is an opportunistic bacteria that causes disease once the mucosal integrity of the GI tract is disrupted

213
Q

What are the top 3 bacteria associated with intestinal disease?

A

Salmonella, E. Coli, Campylobacter (large bowel)

214
Q

T/F: Fecal cultures alone are definitive to diagnose the disease

A

False. Interpret with CxS and other data

215
Q

When would you perform a fecal culture?

A

Chronic diarrhea, severely debilitated, sick with bloody stool

216
Q

What CxS do you see with salmon poisoning disease?

A

Fever, hematemesis, diarrhea, vomiting, lethargy, nasal/ocular discharge

217
Q

How do you diagnose salmon poisoning?

A

Fluke eggs in feces, history of fish eating, PCR, cytology of organisms inside the lymphocte

218
Q

How do you treat salmon poisoning and what is the prognosis?

A

Hospitalize, antibiotics, praziquantel

Prognosis is good if treated aggressively

219
Q

What does canine parvovirus type 2 like to target?

A

Rapidly dividing cells - GI, bone marrow, lymph nodes

220
Q

How do you definitively diagnose CPV?

A

PCR

221
Q

What are some major complications when treating CPV?

A

Sepsis, intussusception, pneumonia, DIC

222
Q

What is the prognosis for CPV?

A

If they survive the first 3-4 days, then good. Need supportive care

223
Q

What can feline panleukopenia cause?

A

Similar signs to CPV, but cerebellar hypoplasia

224
Q

T/F: You use CPV snap test to diagnose feline panleukopenia?

A

True

225
Q

What can feline coronavirus turn into?

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

226
Q

What must you do in order to diagnose intestinal neoplasia?

A

FNA or biopsy, cancer may not show up on imaging

227
Q

How do you treat small cell lymphoma? What is the response rate?

A

Chlorambucil, prednisolone (cats)

Response: 96%

228
Q

What does EPI lead to, malabsorption or maldigestion?

A

Maldigestion

229
Q

What is the #1 CxS for EPI?

A

weight loss

230
Q

How do you diagnose EPI?

A

Tripsin like immunoreactivity levels (TLI), and B12 (low with EPI)

231
Q

How can you treat EPI?

A

Give dried pancreatic extract, fresh raw pancreas from the butcher, B12 supplements (SQ)

232
Q

If the treatment for EPI fails, what is the next Ddx?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease, antibiotic responsive diarrhea, diabetes mellitus

233
Q

What should you rule out before considering ARD, food sensitivity, and IBD?

A

Infectious diseases, EPI, neoplasia, obstruction

234
Q

What is the next step if treatment with empiric therapy does not work, or the animal is getting worse?

A

Diet change, deworm, BIOPSY

235
Q

What breeds often have gut diseases?

A

Wheaton terriers, Irish setter, GSD, yorkie, sharpeis, boxers, main coon (IBD)

236
Q

How can you diagnose a food allergy or hypersensitivity?

A

Change the food and see the signs resolve

237
Q

How does antibiotic responsive diarrhea cause symptoms?

A

The competition for nutrients from overgrowth of bacteria leads to malabsorption and damage to the mucosal border

238
Q

What CxS might you see with ARD?

A

Small bowel diarrhea, stunted growth, borborygmi, gas accumulation

239
Q

How do you treat ARD?

A

Antibiotic trial with metronidazole or tylosin

Small animal medicine II (8 decks)

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