gastro Flashcards

1
Q

prophylaxis of oesophageal varices?

A

propranolol -> non-selective B blocker

endoscopic variceal band ligation

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2
Q

tx for active variceal bleeding

A

A-E
correct clotting
terlipressin
prophylactic ABX -> reduces mortality
endoscopic band ligation
TIPSS if above fails

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3
Q

what is the best test to measure and monitor acute liver failure

A

prothrombin
as it has a shorter half life than albumin

ALT and AST arent great indicators of liver function in acute liver failure

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4
Q

after blood tests what scan/imaging can be used to determine the extent of alcoholic liver disease

A

transient elastography
-> also known as a fibroscan which looks at the extent of fibrosis by looking at the elasticity of the liver

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5
Q

how to distinguish between upper and lower GI bleed

A

high urea levels= upper GI as blood is digested into proteins which are metabolised into urea in the liver

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6
Q

alcohol units calculation?

A

total vol x ABV / 1000

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7
Q

iron studies for haemochromatosis

A

raised transferrin saturation,
raised ferritin
low TIBC

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8
Q

why does haematochromatosis cause hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

A

due to iron deposition in pituitary gland causing impaired function

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9
Q

ix of choice for pharyngeal pouch

A

barium with fluoroscopy

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10
Q

radiology sign of pancreatic cancer

A

double duct
- dilation of pancreatic and cbd

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11
Q

derranged LFT with T2DM

A

NAFLD

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12
Q

what is gilberts syndrome

A

autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase

unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
jaundice seen only in times of stress

no TX, just reassure

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13
Q

what is melanosis coli

A

disorder of pigmentation of the bowel wall. Histology demonstrates pigment-laden macrophages.

It is associated with laxative abuse-> senna

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14
Q

what is a carcinoid tumour

A

produce vasoactive amines -> 5HT, bradykinin, adrenaline, prostaglandins

these are inactivated by the liver and cause mets there

flushing
diarrhoea
bronchospasm
hypoT

ix: urinary 5HIAA
Mx: ortreotide
cyproheptadine might help

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15
Q

ix for post eradication of h pylori

A

urea breath test

stool not an option !!

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16
Q

why would ALP be raised in coeliac

A

due to low calcium so bone is broken down to increased this

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17
Q

what is seen on paracentesis that confirms SBP

A

> 250 neutrophils

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18
Q

side effect with TIPSS

A

exacerbates hepatic encephalopathy

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19
Q

plummer vinson symptoms

A

Plummers DIE: Dysphagia, Iron deficiency anemia, Esophageal webs

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20
Q

blood test results for anaemia of chronic disease

A

low Hb
low MCV
proportional rise of urea and creatinine

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21
Q

early signs of haemochromatosis

A

fatigue
erectile dysfunction
arthralgia

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22
Q

ABG renal tubular acidosis?

A

hypercholraemic met acidosis with normal anion gap

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23
Q

type 1 renal tubular acidosis

A

cant generate acid urine
causes hypokalaemia

24
Q

complications type 1 RTA

A

nephrocalcinosis and renal stones

25
Q

causes type 1 RTA

A

idiopathic
rheumatoid arthritis, SLE
Sjogren’s, amphotericin B toxicity
analgesic nephropathy

26
Q

type 2 RTA causes

A

decreased HCO3- reabsorption in proximal tubule

causes hypokalaemia

27
Q

complications of type 2 RTA

A

osteomalacia

28
Q

causes type 2 RTA

A

diopathic, as part of Fanconi syndrome, Wilson’s disease, cystinosis, outdated tetracyclines, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide, topiramate

29
Q

cause of type 3 RTA

A

carbonic anydrase 2 def
results in hypokalaemia
really rare

30
Q

type 4 RTA

A

reduction in aldosterone causes reduction in ammonium excretion

causes hyperkalaemia
caused by
hypoaldosteroism
diabetes

31
Q

2 1 4 low low more?

A

mnemonic for RTA
type 2 proximal CT
type 1 distal CT
type 4 CD

low low more
potassium !!

32
Q

sodium rapidly high to low causes?

A

high to low, brain will blow

cerebral oedema

33
Q

sodium rapidly low to high?

A

low to high -> brain will die

central pontine myelinolysis

34
Q

how to rule out pseudohyponatremia

A

calculate osmolar gap = measured serum osmol - calculated serum osmol

if gap if <10 then its normal

35
Q

how does acute pancreatitis cause reduced calcium

A

lipase causes liberation of free acids which bind to calcium and reduce its circulating concentration

36
Q

vitamin def that can cause haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

37
Q

what is pellagra

A

niacin (b3) def
causes diarrhoa, dermatitis, dementia

38
Q

ways to do rta qu

A
  1. Is urine pH > 5.3? => if Yes, it’s Type 1 RTA. => confirm w/ hypoK + kidney stones (‘stONE for type ONE’)
  2. If urine pH < 5.3, check K+ level.
    => if high, it’s Type 4 RTA (‘MORE k+ for type FOUR’)
    => if low, it’s Type 2 RTA
  3. Know the typical underlying causes
    - Type 1: Autoimmune = RA, Sjogren, SLE
    - Type 2: Fanconi syndrome
    - Type 4: DM nephropathy
39
Q

iron def anaemia vs anaemia of chronic disease bloods

A

TIBC is high in iron def

40
Q

tests needed before fundoplication surgery

A

Oesophageal ph
manometry studies

41
Q

hepatorenal syndrome mx

A

vasopressin analogues -> increases splanchnic circulation

volume expansion with 20% albumin

TIPSS

42
Q

what is the most sensitive marker of CLD -> cirrhosis

A

thrombocytopenia

43
Q

ix and mx of SIBO

A

ix: hydrigen breath test

Mx: correct underlying disease
rifaximin trial
co-amox/metronidazole if this doesnt work

44
Q

RF for SIBO

A

neonates with congential abdo issues
scleroderma
DM

45
Q

pellagra symptoms

A

Dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia/delusions, leading to death

46
Q

how to maintain remission of UC in patient who has:
severe relapse or >2 exacerbations within one year

A

oral azathioprine
oral mercaptopurine

47
Q

first line ix for acute mesenteric ischaemia

A

venous BG -> lactate

48
Q

child pugh score includes?

A

A - albumin
B - bilirubin
C - clotting
D - distention (ascites)
E - encephalopathy

49
Q

treatment of achalasia

A
  1. pneumatic (balloon) dilation is increasingly the preferred first-line option
    less invasive and quicker recovery time than surgery
    patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur
  2. Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms
  3. intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk
  4. drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, calcium channel blockers) has a role but is limited by side-effects
50
Q

ix for achalasia

A

oesophageal manometry
-> EXS tone on swallowing

barium swallow -> birds beak

chest xray
- wide mediastinum

51
Q

what is achalasia

A

Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus

52
Q

who is achalasia more common in

A

middle aged men and women

53
Q

px of achalasia

A

dysphagia to solids and liquids
heatburn
regurg of food

54
Q

blood results of a patient with alcoholic hepatitis

A

raised GGT
macrocytic anaemia -> due to deficiencies
ratio AST/ALT x2

55
Q

constipation mx

A

1st line: bulk forming e.g. Ispaghula Husk
2nd line hard stools: osmotic e.g. Macrogol
2nd line soft stools with tenesmus: stimulant e.g. Senna

Opioid induced: osmotic e.g. macrogol + stimulant e.g. Senna

Faecal impaction: high dose macrogol +/- disimpaction/enema/suppository

Note: Avoid stimulant in long term as causes electrolyte abnormalities

56
Q

what is the anatomical landmark for an upper gi bleed

A

origin proximal to the ligament of Treitz

this is the suspensory muscle of duodenum ans marks boundary between first and second parts