Fun Questions Flashcards

1
Q

painful infection of the soft tissue that is characterized by expanding local erythema, palpable lymph nodes, fever, and chills. Most cases are caused by cuts, abrasions, insect bites, and local burns

A

cellulitis

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2
Q

type of ulcer? medial leg, irregular shape, hyperpigmented periwound skin

A

venous ulcer

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3
Q

infection of the bone. Clinical characteristics include pain, fever, edema, erythema, and tenderness

A

osteomyelitis

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4
Q

hematocrit of 42% in females

A

normal finding

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5
Q

normal range of hematocrit for females

A

36-47%

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6
Q

practicing pinching between the first digit and the tip of the second digit would strengthen deficits in what N distribution

A

Median N

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7
Q

squeezing hang grip with elastic band resistance would strengthen deficits in what N distribution?

A

Median and Ulnar

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8
Q

Opposing thumb to the MCP jt of each finger would strengthen deficits in what N distrubution?

A

median

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9
Q

squeeze therapy putty between the sides of fingers would strengthen deficits in what N distrubution

A

Ulnar N

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10
Q

what are the lumbricals and interossei innervated bY

A

ulnar N

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11
Q

horizontal nystagmus can be a sign of what type of stroke

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

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12
Q

Ataxic gait is a symptom of what type of stroke

A

basilar A

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13
Q

Apraxia is a clinical symptom of what type of stroke

A

MCA

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14
Q

sensation of the lateral thigh N root

A

L2/3

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15
Q

sensation on anteromedial thing and leg N root

A

L3/4

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16
Q

senation on lat foot, muscles that control hip ABD N root

A

L4-S1

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17
Q

sensation on the plantar foot N root

A

S2/3

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18
Q

what has the greatest impact on healing time for fx? Age, diagnosis, sedentary lifestyle, or steroid usage

A

steroid usage

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19
Q

what muscles produce upward rotation with force coupling

A

upper trap, lower trap, serratus ant

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20
Q

action of posterior delt

A

ext, abd, and Er shoulder

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21
Q

action of rhomboids

A

elevate, retract, downwardly rot scapula

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22
Q

actions of teres major

A

extend, adduct, med rot

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23
Q

can you use a single device (ie 2 crutch, or a cane) for restricted WBing

A

NOOOOO

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24
Q

will increased protein help aid in wound healing for pressure injuries

A

yes

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25
Q

should o2 or protein be of more concern for a Pt. with a pressure ulcer in a vegetative state

A

protein

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26
Q

Is a skin flap an appropriate intervention for a pressure wound that is not healing

A

No, the underlying tissues would compromise the integrity of the skin flap

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27
Q

normal hallux extension ROM

A

0-70

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28
Q

Pain @ ant calcaneous on plantar aspect of the foot, worse in morning and during WBing activities throughout the day

A

plantar fascitis

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29
Q

functional ROM for ankle DF

A

0-10

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30
Q

what does the talar tilt test assess when in neutral DF

A

calcaneofibular lig

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31
Q

what does the anteior drawer test with ankle in neutral DF assess

A

anterior talofibular lig

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32
Q

what does compression of the shafts of the tibia and fibula at mid calf assess

A

syndesmosis lig injury (including anterior tibiofibular lig

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33
Q

Squeezing calf with ankle in neutral DF is to test

A

integrity of achilles tendon

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34
Q

is cryotherapy or thermotherapy more effective with RA

A

cryotherapy for inflamatory conditions such as RA

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35
Q

is thermotherapy appropriate for complex regional pain syndrome

A

NO, it may increase the symptoms

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36
Q

should you use paraffin wax when swelling is noted with osteoarthritis

A

no, if no swelling is noted it is appropriate

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37
Q

when can you begin plyometrics as rehab for ACL tear

A

10 weeks

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38
Q

subacute ex for ACL tear

A

mini squats

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39
Q

oswestry score starting at 8 then progressing to 60 good or bad

A

bad it is getting worse

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40
Q

oswestry score going from 60 to 8 good or bad

A

good the Pt. is getting better lets send them home

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41
Q

weakness of the buccinator a symptom of what

A

bell palsy

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42
Q

difficulty initiating urine is consistent with

A

prostate enlargement

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43
Q

loss of urine with sneezing or coughing

A

stress incontinence

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44
Q

palpitations can occour as a result of hormonal changes namely in

A

menopause

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45
Q

what is a sign of heart failure exacerbation: blood pressure change, or increase of fatigue

A

increase of fatigue

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46
Q

SOB, dependent, edema, productive cough are symptoms of….

A

CHF exacerbation

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47
Q

rash that starts as a red spod and expands with clearing of redness in the central area is a sign of

A

lyme disease

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48
Q

what is the most important factor when considering footwear for a diabetic Pt.?

A

snug fit

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49
Q

normal triglyeride level

A

below 150

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50
Q

normal BP

A

<120/80

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51
Q

normal fasting blood glucose

A

100

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52
Q

normal waist measurement

A

<35 for women, <40 for men

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53
Q

what is entrapment or injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, a purely sensory nerve. Injury affects sensation to the lateral thigh.

A

meralgia paresthetica

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54
Q

sequence of practice and rest times which rest time is much less than practice time

A

massed

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55
Q

practice intervals in which practice time is equal to or less than rest time

A

distributed practice

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56
Q

practice sequnce organize around on task, performed repeatedly, uninterupted by practice of other tasks

A

blocked practice

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57
Q

practice sequence in which several various tasks are ordered randomly across trials

A

random practice

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58
Q

does incentive spirometry improve COPD exercise tolerance

A

NO, incentive spirometry improves inspiration volumes not necessary for COPD

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59
Q

what is a good intervention for COPD pt with decreased ex tolerance

A

Pacing

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60
Q

what intervention would be appropriate for chest hypomobility, especially if there is a localized lung segment needing to be addressed

A

segemental breathing

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61
Q

should a ruler com into contact with a wound?

A

NO

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62
Q

what type of drug is omeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

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63
Q

what type of drug is cetirizine

A

histamine

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64
Q

what type of drug is benadryl

A

histamine

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65
Q

what type of drug is asprin

A

anticoagulant (will interfere with warfarin

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66
Q

entrapment of what nerve results in functional wrist drop

A

posterior interosseious

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67
Q

intrapment of what N results in inability ot flex the distal phalanx of the thumb and index finger

A

anterior interosseous syndrome

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68
Q

what nerve is effected if the Pt. cannot fully abd the little finger

A

ulnar N

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69
Q

shoulder Er and abd elicits what N

A

median N

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70
Q

shoulder IR and and ABD elicits what N

A

radial N

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71
Q

What is the position form MMT of lats

A

prone arms at side, palms facing the ceiling

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72
Q

where can upper urinary tract problems, such as kidney or ureter refer

A

groin

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73
Q

where can colon cancer or colitis refer pain

A

sacral area

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74
Q

where can pain generated from the bladder refer

A

suprapubic area, and/or lower back

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75
Q

where does junctional rhythm originate from

A

AV junction rather than SA node

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76
Q

EKC shows junctional rhythm, which is MOST likely absent from strip

A

P wave

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77
Q

weakness of what muscle causes winging

A

serratus anterior

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78
Q

what N innervates serratus anterior

A

long thoracic

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79
Q

what does the spinal accessory N innervate

A

SCM, traps

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80
Q

what does the axillary N innervate

A

deltoid and teres minor

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81
Q

what does the dorsal scapual N innervatie

A

rhomboids

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82
Q

what is a common sign of hypothyroidism

A

muscle ache (myalgia), bradycardia

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83
Q

what will benifit a child with athetoid CP’s goal for voluntary movent

A

co-contraction

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84
Q

are children with athetoid CP likely to have contractures

A

Not as much

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85
Q

best intervention for acute RA flare up?

A

REST and PROTECTION splinting to prevent excessive movement and reduce mechanical stresses

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86
Q

what does hemoglobin measure

A

oxygen carrying capacity of RBC

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87
Q

what is RBC count used to measure

A

oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

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88
Q

what is the INR used for

A

risk of hemorrhage, therputic anticoagulation requires INR of 2-3

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89
Q

what is erythrocyte sedimentation rate used to identify

A

inflammatory or necrotic processes

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90
Q

what is the thenar eminance innervated by

A

median N

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91
Q

what does the C8 nerve root innervated

A

hypothenar eminence

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92
Q

what does de quervain tenosynovitis affect

A

doral compartment

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93
Q

what does pronator teres effect? whee would paresthesia be caused

A

median N, thenar eminence

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94
Q

can superficial heat increase core tempatures

A

no

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95
Q

do patients wtih emphysema have elevated or decreased PaCO2?

A

elevated or normal

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96
Q

do Pt.s with COPD have low or high tone in accessory muscles

A

high (because they compensate and use them to breath)

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97
Q

what disease has enlarged air spaces, and destructive changes to the alveolar wall

A

emphysema

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98
Q

does emphysema involve the phrenic N

A

NOOOO

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99
Q

What is too high of BP 3 days after MI

A

160/90

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100
Q

120/80 progressing to 130/84, 3 days post mi ok?

A

yes

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101
Q

how much of an increase in HR is ok after MI

A

12-24 over RHR

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102
Q

what is the typical cause of significant increase in strength in 1 week of training

A

neural responses; increased recruitment of motor units firing

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103
Q

how long does muscle hypertrophy take to occour and at what intensity of training

A

4-8 weeks, at mod to high intensity

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104
Q

what is muscle fiber hyperplasia

A

increase in the number of muscle fibers (in response to heavy resistance training)

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105
Q

will pneumonia cause LE edema

A

no

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106
Q

can renal failure cause crackles and tachycardia

A

no

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107
Q

collection of axons and fibrous tissue causing sharp hooting and localized pain

A

neuroma

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108
Q

what can inadequate prosthetic tibial relief cause

A

skin breakdown

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109
Q

Do ALS pts with bulbar/respiratory weakness or distal extremity weakness have a more rapid prognosis

A

bulbar/respiratory

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110
Q

what do arm exercise max O2 uptake look like compared to LE exercise

A

30-40% lower

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111
Q

with forward head positioning are the suboccipital extensors in a shortened position or lengthened

A

shortened

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112
Q

with thoracic kyphosis are the long thoracic extensors shortened or lengthened

A

lengthened

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113
Q

kicking a rolling ball, catching a small ball, and hopping on one foot are gross motor tasks appropriate for what age

A

4 yo

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114
Q

kicking a stationary ball, fast walking, and walking on stairs with assistance are appropriate for what age

A

18 mo- 3 years

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115
Q

Dribbling a b-ball, riding a bicycle, and skipping are appropriate for children aged

A

5-6

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116
Q

catching a large ball, riding a tricycle, and running short distance are appropriate skills for aged

A

2-3

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117
Q

what does a borg of 13/20 convert to % of maximum heart rate

A

70%

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118
Q

is spinal muscle atrophy progressive

A

yes

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119
Q

is manual propulsion of WC or power WC more appropriate form spinal muscular atrophy long term

A

power WC

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120
Q

a child with spinal muscular atrophy how has not developed sitting posture, what is the likelyhood of walking

A

very slim prepare for Power WC

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121
Q

what is more likely to increase life satisfaction in the TBI realm? independence in bowel care, being married

A

independent in bowel care

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122
Q

is pursed lip breathing or diaphragmatic breathing more effective on a vent

A

diaphragmatic breathing

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123
Q

lack of blood flow to femoral head

A

avascular necrosis

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124
Q

necrotic bone lesion with no known cause

A

osteochondritis dessicans

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125
Q

whaere is osteochondritis dissecans typically seen

A

knee, talus, and elbow

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126
Q

with severe dehydration do we see an increase or decrease in RR

A

increased

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127
Q

with severe dehydration do we see cold or warm hands and feet

A

cold

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128
Q

are infants able to cry with severe dehydration

A

no

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129
Q

what is the best practice for long term motor learning for a Pt. with CVA?

A

varied random practice

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130
Q

Is BPPV or unilateral vestibular lesion more likely to have a positive rhomberg test

A

unilateral vestibular hypofunction

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131
Q

cerebellar lesions or unilateral vestibular hypofunxtion more likely to display ataxic gait

A

cerebellar lesions

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132
Q

What causes vertigo, postural instability, oscillopsia, and disequalibrium.

A

unilateral vestibular lesion

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133
Q

what does mononeuropathy of the sural N cause

A

balance deficits

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134
Q

headache, blurred vision, slurred speech represent

A

hypoglycemia

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135
Q

thickening of subcutaneous tissue, and loss of subcutaneous fat… resulting in dimpling of the skin

A

lipogenic effects

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136
Q

acetone breath, dehydration, weak/rapid pulse, kussmal respirations progressign to hyperosmolar coma

A

diabetic ketoacidosis

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137
Q

headache, cognitive change… neuropsychiatric conditions such as dementia, ataxia, psychosis, and peripheral neuropahy can be a result

A

B12 deficiency

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138
Q

how is an airborne isolation room set up

A

negative pressure, airflow from adjacent outside space into the room

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139
Q

what is furosemide used for

A

diuretic for tx of hypertension

140
Q

metformin is used for

A

diabetes diabetes

141
Q

methotrexate is used for

A

RA

142
Q

ATENOLOL IS USED FOR

A

beta blocker for HTN or angina

143
Q

what is the jaw jerk reflex used to test

A

trigeminal N

144
Q

hypermobility of the TMJ joint will cause

A

indentation behind the hypermobile condyle of the mandible

145
Q

what is the typical presentation of hypomobility of the TMJ

A

deviation toward the jt and hypermobility contralaterally

146
Q

how to calculate current density

A

current amplitude/conductive surface area

147
Q

hoehn and yahr stage IV

A

Pt. with disability mod-severe range

148
Q

test for achilles tendon tear

A

Thompson (Simmonds)

149
Q

test for avulsion fx from a fib brevis tendon pull

A

palpation of proximal base V

150
Q

test for calcaneofibular lig

A

talar tilt

151
Q

test for anterior talofibular lig tear

A

anterior drawer

152
Q

How should exercises be performed for lymphedema Pts

A

proximal to distal

153
Q

leg pain elicited with SLR can indicate

A

disc herniation

154
Q

would SLR increase or decrease pressure of facet jts

A

decrease because the trunk will move into flexion

155
Q

most accurate method of measuring heart rate

A

auscultation (apical HR)

156
Q

traction force on the L/s as % BW

A

30-50%

157
Q

pain and rebound tenderness is consistent with

A

peritoneal inflammation

158
Q

hand placement to encourage posterior basal expansion in segmental breathing

A

posterior aspect of the lower ribs

159
Q

inability to identify objects by touch

A

astereognosis

160
Q

impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements

A

dysdiadochokinesia

161
Q

inability to perform purposeful movements

A

apraxia

162
Q

communication disorder characterized by impaired language formation and use, which would impair the ability to name objects

A

aphasia (expressive)

163
Q

complication of Pt. with acute cervical injury, manifests with dizziness or light-headedness and ringing in ears when in a vertical position (sitting or standing)

A

orthostatic hypotension

164
Q

SCI at T6 or above, with significant increase in BP and pounding HA

A

autonomic dysreflexia

165
Q

is hypertonic pirifirmis more likely to cause SIJ dysfunction or limited hip ext

A

SIJ dysfunction

166
Q

what nerve root innervates piriformis and posterior thigh

A

L5/S1

167
Q

Innervaton of the anterior thigh

A

L2-L4

168
Q

Thrombocytopenia occours when platelets are less than

A

150,000

169
Q

what does thrombocytopenia put Pt.s at risk for

A

spontaneous bleeding

170
Q

what is leukopenia

A

leukocytes are less than normal causing a higher risk for infection

171
Q

what is thrombocytosis

A

increase in platelets

172
Q

what are symptoms of thrombocytosis

A

tendency to clot, splenomegaly, and easy bruising.

173
Q

leukocytosis is

A

a high number of keukocytes that are a response to an acute infection

174
Q

what is an important thing to teach parents of a child iwth meylomeningocele

A

watch for signs of increased cranial pressure; often an issue for children with hydrocephalus and they require a CSF shunt

175
Q

a child who W sits is most likely to have femoral antiverson or retroversion

A

antiversion (2/2 excessiver hip internal rotation and loss of passive ER)

176
Q

what motion increases pain with herniated disc

A

flexion/forward bending

177
Q

when a N is compromised what you expect as far as latency and conduction velocity

A

latency would increase and velocity would decrease

178
Q

what is latency

A

delay in transfer

179
Q

what is the posterior cuff

A

lateral rotators

180
Q

what is the anterior cuff

A

subscapularis

181
Q

rapidly ascending B muscle weakness with paresthesias but no anesthesia

A

GBS

182
Q

dramatic onset of symptoms which improve over 5-20 mins

A

TIA

183
Q

what is the largest factor in functional movement impairments

A

muscle weakness

184
Q

what population is spondyloisthesis found in

A

gymnasts, weight lifters, football linemen (repetitive flexion and hyperextension

185
Q

mechanism of injury for herniated nucleus pulposus

A

repetitive movement into flexion, rotation, side flexion, or extension

186
Q

elbow extension myotome

A

C7

187
Q

elbow flesion myotome

A

c5/6

188
Q

ulnar deviation of the wrist myotome

A

C8

189
Q

thumb IP ext myptome

A

C6-8

190
Q

excessive supination of the foot would cause what of the LE during stance

A

medial rot

191
Q

decreased DF of the ankle would cause

A

PF through swing phase (watch for toe drag)

192
Q

Pt. with weak knee ext, would exhibit what during stance phase

A

genu recurvatum

193
Q

valgus stress of the thumb would stress which side

A

ulnar

194
Q

would resisted isometric testing of ABd pollicis longus stress the radial collateral lig

A

NO

195
Q

apophysitis of the tibial tubercle

A

osgood-schlatter

196
Q

locking sensation is common in what type of knee injury

A

meniscus tear

197
Q

does sample size effect the significance of a P value

A

No

198
Q

If you give a Pt. a cane what do you expect at the opposite side, a reduction or increase in force of muscles

A

reduction

199
Q

what is most important intervention in stage I of PD? strengthening or posture/balance

A

posture and balance

200
Q

glute med innervation

A

L5/S1

201
Q

Adductor magnus innervation

A

L4

202
Q

iliopsoas innervation

A

L2-4

203
Q

Pectineus innervation

A

L2-3 (obturator N)

204
Q

What indicates a PAC on EKG

A

R wave, close to preceding R wave

205
Q

what does a prominent pathological Q wave indicate

A

transmural MI

206
Q

diminished P wave, with duration of QRS complexes appropriate

A

supraventricular tachycardia

207
Q

A-fib on EKG

A

inconsistent irregular R-R intervals

208
Q

will there be a delayed or increased cardiovascular response with exercise regularly

A

increased (the body will work better)

209
Q

will heart rate response increase or decrease in response to regular work out

A

decrease, as SV increases HR does not have to increase as much to maintain the same CO

210
Q

will cardiovascular resistance increase or decrease with regular training

A

decrease

211
Q

with poorly controlled DM do we see an increase or decrease in urine output

A

increase

212
Q

shakiness after exercise is more common with hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia

A

hypoglycemia

213
Q

stocking glove distribution paresthesis is common with what condition (often time in uncontrolled cases or undiagnosed)

A

DM

214
Q

what is the amount of air remianing in the lungs when expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled

A

residual volume

215
Q

at full inspiration, the lungs contain their max amount of gas what is the called

A

total lung capacity

216
Q

amount of air expelled after Pt. takes a maximal inspiration followed by maximal expiration

A

vital capacity

217
Q

amount of air in lungs at the end of a quiet exhalation

A

functional residual capacity

218
Q

what is the presence of outpouching in the wall of the colon or small instestine

A

diverticulitis

219
Q

what are signs and symptoms of diverticulitis

A

passing blood in the stool

220
Q

what is the inflammation of the esophagus 2/2 backwards flow of gastric juices

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

221
Q

signs and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease

A

painful swallowing, heartburn, dysphagia

222
Q

what is a chronic inflammatory disorder of mucosa and submucosa of the colon.

A

ulcerative colitis

223
Q

what are signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis

A

diarrhea and rectal bleeding

224
Q

what are signs and symptoms of peptic ulcer disease

A

weakness, diaphroesis, epigastric pain, coffee-ground emesis

225
Q

what is the act of performing a skill mentally before performing it physically

A

metal practice

226
Q

does elevation assist or hinder healing with ABI of 0.68

A

hinder, it will decrease the arterial flow and make the arterial insufficency worse

227
Q

Does compression help or hurt with arterial insufficiency

A

it will compromise perfusion more

228
Q

what is the first response in patients who have vascular disease and are at high risk for developing a pressure injury

A

offloading

229
Q

what is the result of reducing or suspending insulin

A

it will address the decreased Blood glucose level

230
Q

what is an abnormal blood glucose level

A

less than 100

231
Q

maxillary hypoplasia, elongated mid face, and short up-turned nose are characteristics of

A

a child with fetal alcohol syndrome

232
Q

what are common “problems” for children with fetal alcohol syndrome

A

fine motor dysfunction, visuomotor deficits, weak grasp

233
Q

what N innervates the superior oblique

A

trochlear N

234
Q

motor function of trigeminal N

A

open and close mouth

235
Q

what N are most active during the filling phase of micturition

A

sympathetic N from pelvic plexus

236
Q

what N fire in order to contract the bladder and begin emptying

A

parasympathetic N from the pelvic plexus

237
Q

what is micturition

A

urinating

238
Q

what is a normal pulse amplitude classification

A

2+

239
Q

what does 4+ pulse finding indicate on pulse amplitude classification

A

markedly increased pulse

240
Q

what is the first ting to do if a p/t with LBP c/o difficult initiating urine stream and increased frequency of urination. The Pt. is monitored biannually for this condition by MD

A

ask if the symptoms have changed since the Pt.’s last visit to the physician

241
Q

A PT notes area of reddened skin with out open lesions on the sacrum in a nonambulatory Pt. what of the following instruction to Pt. is MOST appropriate:

call MD
or
avoid laying in supine position

A

avoid laying in supine position

242
Q

what carpal bone is most likely to be fx during a FOOSH

A

scaphoid

243
Q

What is the highest level of functional activity that a 15 mo child with L1 myelomeningocele expected to achieve independently w/in 6 mo

A

sitting

244
Q

what is a bluish discoloration of nail bed and toes called

A

cyanosis

245
Q

what is associated wtih edema and localized tenderness

A

DVT

246
Q

what is associated with a palpable pulsing mass

A

Aneurysm

247
Q

Steps to take when Pt has a laceration on hand that is bleeding

A
  1. don gloves
  2. cover wound with sterile towel
  3. raise wound above level of heart to decrease blood flow to the area
  4. apply pressure to the wound
248
Q

if Pt. supine wiht knees off the edge of the table, PT flexes R hip passivly and L knee extends what is tight

A

L rectus femoris

249
Q

who is it approopriate to teach glossopharyngeal breathing to

A

high SCI Pt.

250
Q

what does the DGI assess

A

ability ot modify fait in response to task demands

251
Q

visual analog scale is used to

A

estimate perception of pain

252
Q

what two muscles make an appropriate force couple for upward rotation

A

upper trap and serratus anterior

UT: pulls up
SA: pull outward in horizontal direction

253
Q

act of muscles or what is it called when muscle groups moving together, in a synergistic manner, to produce movement around a joint

A

force couple

254
Q

A 74 year old contractor has a prominent forward lean
when he is in stance on the right lower extremity. From
this observation, PT would hypothesize that the MOST
LIKELY cause is:
A. Weak hip extensors on the left
B. Weak hip flexors on the left
C. Weak knee extensors on the right
D. Weak knee flexors on the right

A

c

255
Q

tenderness with palpation of subacromial area, painful arc with PROM, protective muscle spasms, end feel empty and painful

A

acute bursitis

256
Q

what end feel would fibrosis or adhesive capsulitis display

A

capsular

257
Q

what is volkmann ischemic contracture

A

nerve injury 2/2 compression of fluid, producing a deformed limb

258
Q

Thrombophlebitis of saphenous vein would present:

A

generalized leg pain, swelling, andincreased tep, and bluish discoloration

259
Q

blunt trauma, presents with sensory deficits: numbness and tingling and coolness of extremity

A

anterior compartment syndrome

260
Q

what is the best way to prevent hypertrophic scar formation after split thickness skin grafts

A

pressure garments

261
Q

what cause clasp-knife phenomenon

A

injury to descending motor pathways from cortex or brainstem

262
Q

if the basal ganglia is injured on the R which side of the body will show impairments

A

L

263
Q

what is seen with injury to basal ganglia

A

cogwheel resistance, tremor, rigidity

264
Q

after partial RC tear or impingement what ROM should the individual work in in the early stages

A

pain-free ROM

265
Q

what are adventitius breath sounds

A

abnormal sounds such as crackles, wheezes or stridor

266
Q

appropriate intervention for atelectasis

A

inscentive spirometry

267
Q

what involves the blockage that stops or slows conduction across that point in the nerve

A

neurapraxia

268
Q

is recovery possible with neurapraxia

A

yes

269
Q

what condition is the neural tube intact but axonal damage has occoured with wallerian degeneration

A

axonotmesis

270
Q

what condition involves the total loss of axon function with disruption of neural tube

A

neurotmesis

271
Q

what occurs when using intermittent pneumatic compression during inflation (compression phase)

A

increase in interstitial tissue pressure and venous blood flow

272
Q

tightness of the infraspinatus will limit

A

internal rotation (ability to touch scapula)

273
Q

R shoulder pian from r trap to thorax between scapulae; recent tendency to bruise easily, dark colored urine, clay colored stools… what is the organ referal

A

liver

274
Q

where can renal pain be referred to

A

shoulder same side

275
Q

where is pancreatic pain refered

A

L shoulder

276
Q

how often should resistance training be performed

A

~3x a week

277
Q

what of the following phases of running is MOST likely to aggravate HS injury

  • IC
  • Midswing
  • foot flat
  • deceleration (terminal swing)
A

deceleration

278
Q

does pec major attach to the scapula

A

NOOOOO

279
Q

what muscle if tight will cause ant scapular tilting?

  • ant delt
  • pec major
  • pec minor
  • rhomboids
A

pec minor

280
Q

breif duration nystagmus is consistant with

A

canalithiasis

281
Q

nystagmus that persists as long as the Pt. is inthe position

A

cupulothiasis

282
Q

exertional compartmetn syndrome presentation

A

exertional leg pain, decreased sensation after exertion, paresthesias

283
Q

stress fracture presentation

A

insidious onset pain correlates with cange in equipemtn or training, exacerbatied by offending activity, localized boney tenderness

284
Q

how to test for stress fx

A

percussion or vibration (tuning fork)

285
Q

best position to sleep for GI reflux

A

L sidelying with pillows to maintain position

286
Q

test position ofr iliopsoas

A

supine with hips and knees flexed to 90

287
Q

best way to produce rapid lasting changes in tissue length

A

creep phenomenon; via dynamic splint

288
Q

brain stem infarct rsluting in lateral medullary syndrome is most likely to demo what symptoms

A

loss of pain and tempature sensation on R side of body

289
Q

what fiber damage in the brain step would cause hemiparesis

A

corticospinal fibers

290
Q

what part of the brain stem supply descriminative touch and proprioceptive info

A

medial lemniscus

291
Q

what track carries sensory info regarding pain and temperature

A

spinothalamic tract

292
Q

damage to what crainial N would cause ipsilateral blindness

A

CN II (optic)

293
Q

what cranial N injury would cause deficits in eye movement up, down, and in… as well as pupillary reflex

A

oculomotor III

294
Q

what crainial N resluts in deficits looking inferomedially

A

trochlear N IV

295
Q

deficits with eye movemetn in wards, becuase the N turnes the eye outwards

A

abducent N

296
Q

Adenocarcinoma and basal cell carcinoma are malignant tumors of what

A

skin

297
Q

Fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma are malignant tumors of what

A

connective tissue

298
Q

what is the age range for the bayley

A

birth to 42 mo (3.5 years)

299
Q

what is an evaluation too for children with CP

A

GMFM

300
Q

what is teh age range and demographic for the gross motor function scale

A

CP kiddos, age 5 mo- 16 years

301
Q

what is the age randge for the peabody

A

birth to 72 mo (6 years)

302
Q

what is the bruininks Oseretsky Test age range

A

4-21 years of age

303
Q

during which months of pregnancy is manual lymphatic drainage contraindicated

A

first months

304
Q

what does the forward bend test evaluate in scoliosis

A

vertebral rotation

305
Q

what is actinomycosis

A

are infectious bacterial disease; presents with chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue, and fever

306
Q

what is osteomalacia

A

painful muscles weakness, bone pain, and tenderness

307
Q

what is alkaline phosphatase

A

enzyme produced by bone cells. an increased level would increase bone formaion 2/2 active osteoclasts

308
Q

what is septic arthritis

A

rapid onset, iver hours or day, with a joint that is swollen, red, tended, and war, with limited ROM 2/2 pain

309
Q

what is thrombophlebitis

A

inflammatory process that causes a blood clot to form and block one or more veins, usually in your legs

310
Q

what is granulomatous infection

A

Structure formed during inflammation that is found in many diseases. It is a collection of immune cells known as macrophages. Granulomas form when the immune system attempts to wall off substances it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate.

311
Q

head lag from birth to what age is normal when pulled from supine to sit

A

3 mo

312
Q

what are rapid deep preaths called

A

hyperventilation

313
Q

what is inward abdominal or chest wall movement with inspiration and outward with expiration called

A

paradoxical breathing

314
Q

what is rapid shallow breathing called

A

tachypnea

315
Q

what is breathing that waxes and wanes cyclically called

A

cheyne stokes

316
Q

is teres major and internal or external rotator

A

internal

317
Q

what do supraspinatus, teres minor, and infraspinatus do

A

external rotator

318
Q

a lesion is present proximal to the DRG, with a sensory nerve conduction velocity test the conduction time will be

A

normal

319
Q

what is reiter syndrome

A

reactive arthritis, is the classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis occurring after an infection, particularly those in the urogenital or gastrointestinal tract

320
Q

does ankylosing spondylotis have an increase or decrease in TLC, VC, and inspiroatory muscle function

A

decrease

321
Q

anterior glide of the talus is useful in increasing….

A

PF

322
Q

what mobilization would promote subtalar eversion

A

medial glide of calcaneus

323
Q

as resistance decrease on a theraband the antagonist

A

shortens

324
Q

As resistance decrease on theraband the agonist

A

elongates

325
Q

as resistance increase the agonist

A

shortens

326
Q

best location to test strength and sensation of L3 nerve root

A

knee extension and sensation over the medial aspect of the thigh

327
Q

Best location to test the S1 nerve root strength and dermatomal pattern

A

HS strength, and sensation over posterior thigh

328
Q

Testing of the lateral aspect of the knee evaluates what dermatome

A

L4/5

329
Q

C5/6 nerve root come from what part of the bracchial plexus

A

upper trunk of the brachial pelxus

330
Q

when taking anticoagulatns the Pt should be most concerned about what during exercise? ecchymosis or hypotension

A

ecchymosis, hypotension is not usually a SA of anticoagulants
bleeding and brusing highest concern

331
Q

lateral epicondylitis what is most likely to be the offending muscle? ECRB or supinator

A

ECRB

332
Q

normal Ejection fraction

A

55-75%

333
Q

what should be the first emphasis for wound treatment: depth, diameter, exudate, necrotic tissue

A

necrotic tissue

334
Q

after prostectomy what will most likely contribute to urinary incontinence: ureter, ductus deferens, levator ani, urethra

A

urethra, BECAUSE the prostate provides mechanical support to the urethra between the baldder neck and penis

335
Q

burn that is red or erythematous. slight edema may be present, but no blisters

A

superficial burn

336
Q

a burn that is characterised by a hard, parchment like eschar covering the area. The color can be white, charred, tan, mahogany, black, or red

A

full thickness burn

337
Q

intact blisters, bright pink, red, mottled red

A

superficial partial-thickness burn INTACT BLISTERS

338
Q

mix of red or waxy white color, surface is wed from broken blisters and marked edema

A

deep partial thickness burn

339
Q

what is desiccation

A

the removal of moisture from something

340
Q

is distal musculature spared with steriod induced myopathy

A

yes, until late stage

341
Q

With steroid induced myopathy do we see proximal or distal muscle weakness first

A

proximal, typically first report is difficulty climbing stairs

342
Q

is trunk musculature weakness an early finding or late finding with steroid induced myopathy

A

late

343
Q

If Pt. reports strong tingling sensatino but no contraction is elicicted do we increase amplitude or pulse duratino

A

pulse duration because the amplitude is already high if they have tingling, the longer the pulse the more likely the nerve will depolarize

344
Q

when a person leans forward on elbows in the chair what is the belifit

A

the diaphragm is raised upwards allowing the strength of the contraction to increase

345
Q

A Pt. post RLE amputation 2/2 vascular insufficiency. Which would most effect the LTG achievement of functional ambulation

  1. ROM of R hip
  2. condition of LLE
A
  1. condition of LLE

If the LLE is in rough shape you are not going to be walking anyway no matter what the RLE looks like

346
Q

does shingles present as a rash or scales

A

rash

347
Q

pain and paresthisa first or rash for shingles

A

pain and paresthesia