Fun Questions Flashcards
1
Q
painful infection of the soft tissue that is characterized by expanding local erythema, palpable lymph nodes, fever, and chills. Most cases are caused by cuts, abrasions, insect bites, and local burns
A
cellulitis
2
Q
type of ulcer? medial leg, irregular shape, hyperpigmented periwound skin
A
venous ulcer
3
Q
infection of the bone. Clinical characteristics include pain, fever, edema, erythema, and tenderness
A
osteomyelitis
4
Q
hematocrit of 42% in females
A
normal finding
5
Q
normal range of hematocrit for females
A
36-47%
6
Q
practicing pinching between the first digit and the tip of the second digit would strengthen deficits in what N distribution
A
Median N
7
Q
squeezing hang grip with elastic band resistance would strengthen deficits in what N distribution?
A
Median and Ulnar
8
Q
Opposing thumb to the MCP jt of each finger would strengthen deficits in what N distrubution?
A
median
9
Q
squeeze therapy putty between the sides of fingers would strengthen deficits in what N distrubution
A
Ulnar N
10
Q
what are the lumbricals and interossei innervated bY
A
ulnar N
11
Q
horizontal nystagmus can be a sign of what type of stroke
A
anterior inferior cerebellar artery
12
Q
Ataxic gait is a symptom of what type of stroke
A
basilar A
13
Q
Apraxia is a clinical symptom of what type of stroke
A
MCA
14
Q
sensation of the lateral thigh N root
A
L2/3
15
Q
sensation on anteromedial thing and leg N root
A
L3/4
16
Q
senation on lat foot, muscles that control hip ABD N root
A
L4-S1
17
Q
sensation on the plantar foot N root
A
S2/3
18
Q
what has the greatest impact on healing time for fx? Age, diagnosis, sedentary lifestyle, or steroid usage
A
steroid usage
19
Q
what muscles produce upward rotation with force coupling
A
upper trap, lower trap, serratus ant
20
Q
action of posterior delt
A
ext, abd, and Er shoulder
21
Q
action of rhomboids
A
elevate, retract, downwardly rot scapula
22
Q
actions of teres major
A
extend, adduct, med rot
23
Q
can you use a single device (ie 2 crutch, or a cane) for restricted WBing
A
NOOOOO
24
Q
will increased protein help aid in wound healing for pressure injuries
A
yes
25
should o2 or protein be of more concern for a Pt. with a pressure ulcer in a vegetative state
protein
26
Is a skin flap an appropriate intervention for a pressure wound that is not healing
No, the underlying tissues would compromise the integrity of the skin flap
27
normal hallux extension ROM
0-70
28
Pain @ ant calcaneous on plantar aspect of the foot, worse in morning and during WBing activities throughout the day
plantar fascitis
29
functional ROM for ankle DF
0-10
30
what does the talar tilt test assess when in neutral DF
calcaneofibular lig
31
what does the anteior drawer test with ankle in neutral DF assess
anterior talofibular lig
32
what does compression of the shafts of the tibia and fibula at mid calf assess
syndesmosis lig injury (including anterior tibiofibular lig
33
Squeezing calf with ankle in neutral DF is to test
integrity of achilles tendon
34
is cryotherapy or thermotherapy more effective with RA
cryotherapy for inflamatory conditions such as RA
35
is thermotherapy appropriate for complex regional pain syndrome
NO, it may increase the symptoms
36
should you use paraffin wax when swelling is noted with osteoarthritis
no, if no swelling is noted it is appropriate
37
when can you begin plyometrics as rehab for ACL tear
10 weeks
38
subacute ex for ACL tear
mini squats
39
oswestry score starting at 8 then progressing to 60 good or bad
bad it is getting worse
40
oswestry score going from 60 to 8 good or bad
good the Pt. is getting better lets send them home
41
weakness of the buccinator a symptom of what
bell palsy
42
difficulty initiating urine is consistent with
prostate enlargement
43
loss of urine with sneezing or coughing
stress incontinence
44
palpitations can occour as a result of hormonal changes namely in
menopause
45
what is a sign of heart failure exacerbation: blood pressure change, or increase of fatigue
increase of fatigue
46
SOB, dependent, edema, productive cough are symptoms of....
CHF exacerbation
47
rash that starts as a red spod and expands with clearing of redness in the central area is a sign of
lyme disease
48
what is the most important factor when considering footwear for a diabetic Pt.?
snug fit
49
normal triglyeride level
below 150
50
normal BP
<120/80
51
normal fasting blood glucose
100
52
normal waist measurement
<35 for women, <40 for men
53
what is entrapment or injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, a purely sensory nerve. Injury affects sensation to the lateral thigh.
meralgia paresthetica
54
sequence of practice and rest times which rest time is much less than practice time
massed
55
practice intervals in which practice time is equal to or less than rest time
distributed practice
56
practice sequnce organize around on task, performed repeatedly, uninterupted by practice of other tasks
blocked practice
57
practice sequence in which several various tasks are ordered randomly across trials
random practice
58
does incentive spirometry improve COPD exercise tolerance
NO, incentive spirometry improves inspiration volumes not necessary for COPD
59
what is a good intervention for COPD pt with decreased ex tolerance
Pacing
60
what intervention would be appropriate for chest hypomobility, especially if there is a localized lung segment needing to be addressed
segemental breathing
61
should a ruler com into contact with a wound?
NO
62
what type of drug is omeprazole
proton pump inhibitor
63
what type of drug is cetirizine
histamine
64
what type of drug is benadryl
histamine
65
what type of drug is asprin
anticoagulant (will interfere with warfarin
66
entrapment of what nerve results in functional wrist drop
posterior interosseious
67
intrapment of what N results in inability ot flex the distal phalanx of the thumb and index finger
anterior interosseous syndrome
68
what nerve is effected if the Pt. cannot fully abd the little finger
ulnar N
69
shoulder Er and abd elicits what N
median N
70
shoulder IR and and ABD elicits what N
radial N
71
What is the position form MMT of lats
prone arms at side, palms facing the ceiling
72
where can upper urinary tract problems, such as kidney or ureter refer
groin
73
where can colon cancer or colitis refer pain
sacral area
74
where can pain generated from the bladder refer
suprapubic area, and/or lower back
75
where does junctional rhythm originate from
AV junction rather than SA node
76
EKC shows junctional rhythm, which is MOST likely absent from strip
P wave
77
weakness of what muscle causes winging
serratus anterior
78
what N innervates serratus anterior
long thoracic
79
what does the spinal accessory N innervate
SCM, traps
80
what does the axillary N innervate
deltoid and teres minor
81
what does the dorsal scapual N innervatie
rhomboids
82
what is a common sign of hypothyroidism
muscle ache (myalgia), bradycardia
83
what will benifit a child with athetoid CP's goal for voluntary movent
co-contraction
84
are children with athetoid CP likely to have contractures
Not as much
85
best intervention for acute RA flare up?
REST and PROTECTION splinting to prevent excessive movement and reduce mechanical stresses
86
what does hemoglobin measure
oxygen carrying capacity of RBC
87
what is RBC count used to measure
oxygen carrying capacity of the blood
88
what is the INR used for
risk of hemorrhage, therputic anticoagulation requires INR of 2-3
89
what is erythrocyte sedimentation rate used to identify
inflammatory or necrotic processes
90
what is the thenar eminance innervated by
median N
91
what does the C8 nerve root innervated
hypothenar eminence
92
what does de quervain tenosynovitis affect
doral compartment
93
what does pronator teres effect? whee would paresthesia be caused
median N, thenar eminence
94
can superficial heat increase core tempatures
no
95
do patients wtih emphysema have elevated or decreased PaCO2?
elevated or normal
96
do Pt.s with COPD have low or high tone in accessory muscles
high (because they compensate and use them to breath)
97
what disease has enlarged air spaces, and destructive changes to the alveolar wall
emphysema
98
does emphysema involve the phrenic N
NOOOO
99
What is too high of BP 3 days after MI
160/90
100
120/80 progressing to 130/84, 3 days post mi ok?
yes
101
how much of an increase in HR is ok after MI
12-24 over RHR
102
what is the typical cause of significant increase in strength in 1 week of training
neural responses; increased recruitment of motor units firing
103
how long does muscle hypertrophy take to occour and at what intensity of training
4-8 weeks, at mod to high intensity
104
what is muscle fiber hyperplasia
increase in the number of muscle fibers (in response to heavy resistance training)
105
will pneumonia cause LE edema
no
106
can renal failure cause crackles and tachycardia
no
107
collection of axons and fibrous tissue causing sharp hooting and localized pain
neuroma
108
what can inadequate prosthetic tibial relief cause
skin breakdown
109
Do ALS pts with bulbar/respiratory weakness or distal extremity weakness have a more rapid prognosis
bulbar/respiratory
110
what do arm exercise max O2 uptake look like compared to LE exercise
30-40% lower
111
with forward head positioning are the suboccipital extensors in a shortened position or lengthened
shortened
112
with thoracic kyphosis are the long thoracic extensors shortened or lengthened
lengthened
113
kicking a rolling ball, catching a small ball, and hopping on one foot are gross motor tasks appropriate for what age
4 yo
114
kicking a stationary ball, fast walking, and walking on stairs with assistance are appropriate for what age
18 mo- 3 years
115
Dribbling a b-ball, riding a bicycle, and skipping are appropriate for children aged
5-6
116
catching a large ball, riding a tricycle, and running short distance are appropriate skills for aged
2-3
117
what does a borg of 13/20 convert to % of maximum heart rate
70%
118
is spinal muscle atrophy progressive
yes
119
is manual propulsion of WC or power WC more appropriate form spinal muscular atrophy long term
power WC
120
a child with spinal muscular atrophy how has not developed sitting posture, what is the likelyhood of walking
very slim prepare for Power WC
121
what is more likely to increase life satisfaction in the TBI realm? independence in bowel care, being married
independent in bowel care
122
is pursed lip breathing or diaphragmatic breathing more effective on a vent
diaphragmatic breathing
123
lack of blood flow to femoral head
avascular necrosis
124
necrotic bone lesion with no known cause
osteochondritis dessicans
125
whaere is osteochondritis dissecans typically seen
knee, talus, and elbow
126
with severe dehydration do we see an increase or decrease in RR
increased
127
with severe dehydration do we see cold or warm hands and feet
cold
128
are infants able to cry with severe dehydration
no
129
what is the best practice for long term motor learning for a Pt. with CVA?
varied random practice
130
Is BPPV or unilateral vestibular lesion more likely to have a positive rhomberg test
unilateral vestibular hypofunction
131
cerebellar lesions or unilateral vestibular hypofunxtion more likely to display ataxic gait
cerebellar lesions
132
What causes vertigo, postural instability, oscillopsia, and disequalibrium.
unilateral vestibular lesion
133
what does mononeuropathy of the sural N cause
balance deficits
134
headache, blurred vision, slurred speech represent
hypoglycemia
135
thickening of subcutaneous tissue, and loss of subcutaneous fat... resulting in dimpling of the skin
lipogenic effects
136
acetone breath, dehydration, weak/rapid pulse, kussmal respirations progressign to hyperosmolar coma
diabetic ketoacidosis
137
headache, cognitive change... neuropsychiatric conditions such as dementia, ataxia, psychosis, and peripheral neuropahy can be a result
B12 deficiency
138
how is an airborne isolation room set up
negative pressure, airflow from adjacent outside space into the room
139
what is furosemide used for
diuretic for tx of hypertension
140
metformin is used for
diabetes diabetes
141
methotrexate is used for
RA
142
ATENOLOL IS USED FOR
beta blocker for HTN or angina
143
what is the jaw jerk reflex used to test
trigeminal N
144
hypermobility of the TMJ joint will cause
indentation behind the hypermobile condyle of the mandible
145
what is the typical presentation of hypomobility of the TMJ
deviation toward the jt and hypermobility contralaterally
146
how to calculate current density
current amplitude/conductive surface area
147
hoehn and yahr stage IV
Pt. with disability mod-severe range
148
test for achilles tendon tear
Thompson (Simmonds)
149
test for avulsion fx from a fib brevis tendon pull
palpation of proximal base V
150
test for calcaneofibular lig
talar tilt
151
test for anterior talofibular lig tear
anterior drawer
152
How should exercises be performed for lymphedema Pts
proximal to distal
153
leg pain elicited with SLR can indicate
disc herniation
154
would SLR increase or decrease pressure of facet jts
decrease because the trunk will move into flexion
155
most accurate method of measuring heart rate
auscultation (apical HR)
156
traction force on the L/s as % BW
30-50%
157
pain and rebound tenderness is consistent with
peritoneal inflammation
158
hand placement to encourage posterior basal expansion in segmental breathing
posterior aspect of the lower ribs
159
inability to identify objects by touch
astereognosis
160
impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements
dysdiadochokinesia
161
inability to perform purposeful movements
apraxia
162
communication disorder characterized by impaired language formation and use, which would impair the ability to name objects
aphasia (expressive)
163
complication of Pt. with acute cervical injury, manifests with dizziness or light-headedness and ringing in ears when in a vertical position (sitting or standing)
orthostatic hypotension
164
SCI at T6 or above, with significant increase in BP and pounding HA
autonomic dysreflexia
165
is hypertonic pirifirmis more likely to cause SIJ dysfunction or limited hip ext
SIJ dysfunction
166
what nerve root innervates piriformis and posterior thigh
L5/S1
167
Innervaton of the anterior thigh
L2-L4
168
Thrombocytopenia occours when platelets are less than
150,000
169
what does thrombocytopenia put Pt.s at risk for
spontaneous bleeding
170
what is leukopenia
leukocytes are less than normal causing a higher risk for infection
171
what is thrombocytosis
increase in platelets
172
what are symptoms of thrombocytosis
tendency to clot, splenomegaly, and easy bruising.
173
leukocytosis is
a high number of keukocytes that are a response to an acute infection
174
what is an important thing to teach parents of a child iwth meylomeningocele
watch for signs of increased cranial pressure; often an issue for children with hydrocephalus and they require a CSF shunt
175
a child who W sits is most likely to have femoral antiverson or retroversion
antiversion (2/2 excessiver hip internal rotation and loss of passive ER)
176
what motion increases pain with herniated disc
flexion/forward bending
177
when a N is compromised what you expect as far as latency and conduction velocity
latency would increase and velocity would decrease
178
what is latency
delay in transfer
179
what is the posterior cuff
lateral rotators
180
what is the anterior cuff
subscapularis
181
rapidly ascending B muscle weakness with paresthesias but no anesthesia
GBS
182
dramatic onset of symptoms which improve over 5-20 mins
TIA
183
what is the largest factor in functional movement impairments
muscle weakness
184
what population is spondyloisthesis found in
gymnasts, weight lifters, football linemen (repetitive flexion and hyperextension
185
mechanism of injury for herniated nucleus pulposus
repetitive movement into flexion, rotation, side flexion, or extension
186
elbow extension myotome
C7
187
elbow flesion myotome
c5/6
188
ulnar deviation of the wrist myotome
C8
189
thumb IP ext myptome
C6-8
190
excessive supination of the foot would cause what of the LE during stance
medial rot
191
decreased DF of the ankle would cause
PF through swing phase (watch for toe drag)
192
Pt. with weak knee ext, would exhibit what during stance phase
genu recurvatum
193
valgus stress of the thumb would stress which side
ulnar
194
would resisted isometric testing of ABd pollicis longus stress the radial collateral lig
NO
195
apophysitis of the tibial tubercle
osgood-schlatter
196
locking sensation is common in what type of knee injury
meniscus tear
197
does sample size effect the significance of a P value
No
198
If you give a Pt. a cane what do you expect at the opposite side, a reduction or increase in force of muscles
reduction
199
what is most important intervention in stage I of PD? strengthening or posture/balance
posture and balance
200
glute med innervation
L5/S1
201
Adductor magnus innervation
L4
202
iliopsoas innervation
L2-4
203
Pectineus innervation
L2-3 (obturator N)
204
What indicates a PAC on EKG
R wave, close to preceding R wave
205
what does a prominent pathological Q wave indicate
transmural MI
206
diminished P wave, with duration of QRS complexes appropriate
supraventricular tachycardia
207
A-fib on EKG
inconsistent irregular R-R intervals
208
will there be a delayed or increased cardiovascular response with exercise regularly
increased (the body will work better)
209
will heart rate response increase or decrease in response to regular work out
decrease, as SV increases HR does not have to increase as much to maintain the same CO
210
will cardiovascular resistance increase or decrease with regular training
decrease
211
with poorly controlled DM do we see an increase or decrease in urine output
increase
212
shakiness after exercise is more common with hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia
hypoglycemia
213
stocking glove distribution paresthesis is common with what condition (often time in uncontrolled cases or undiagnosed)
DM
214
what is the amount of air remianing in the lungs when expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled
residual volume
215
at full inspiration, the lungs contain their max amount of gas what is the called
total lung capacity
216
amount of air expelled after Pt. takes a maximal inspiration followed by maximal expiration
vital capacity
217
amount of air in lungs at the end of a quiet exhalation
functional residual capacity
218
what is the presence of outpouching in the wall of the colon or small instestine
diverticulitis
219
what are signs and symptoms of diverticulitis
passing blood in the stool
220
what is the inflammation of the esophagus 2/2 backwards flow of gastric juices
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
221
signs and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease
painful swallowing, heartburn, dysphagia
222
what is a chronic inflammatory disorder of mucosa and submucosa of the colon.
ulcerative colitis
223
what are signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis
diarrhea and rectal bleeding
224
what are signs and symptoms of peptic ulcer disease
weakness, diaphroesis, epigastric pain, coffee-ground emesis
225
what is the act of performing a skill mentally before performing it physically
metal practice
226
does elevation assist or hinder healing with ABI of 0.68
hinder, it will decrease the arterial flow and make the arterial insufficency worse
227
Does compression help or hurt with arterial insufficiency
it will compromise perfusion more
228
what is the first response in patients who have vascular disease and are at high risk for developing a pressure injury
offloading
229
what is the result of reducing or suspending insulin
it will address the decreased Blood glucose level
230
what is an abnormal blood glucose level
less than 100
231
maxillary hypoplasia, elongated mid face, and short up-turned nose are characteristics of
a child with fetal alcohol syndrome
232
what are common "problems" for children with fetal alcohol syndrome
fine motor dysfunction, visuomotor deficits, weak grasp
233
what N innervates the superior oblique
trochlear N
234
motor function of trigeminal N
open and close mouth
235
what N are most active during the filling phase of micturition
sympathetic N from pelvic plexus
236
what N fire in order to contract the bladder and begin emptying
parasympathetic N from the pelvic plexus
237
what is micturition
urinating
238
what is a normal pulse amplitude classification
2+
239
what does 4+ pulse finding indicate on pulse amplitude classification
markedly increased pulse
240
what is the first ting to do if a p/t with LBP c/o difficult initiating urine stream and increased frequency of urination. The Pt. is monitored biannually for this condition by MD
ask if the symptoms have changed since the Pt.'s last visit to the physician
241
A PT notes area of reddened skin with out open lesions on the sacrum in a nonambulatory Pt. what of the following instruction to Pt. is MOST appropriate:
call MD
or
avoid laying in supine position
avoid laying in supine position
242
what carpal bone is most likely to be fx during a FOOSH
scaphoid
243
What is the highest level of functional activity that a 15 mo child with L1 myelomeningocele expected to achieve independently w/in 6 mo
sitting
244
what is a bluish discoloration of nail bed and toes called
cyanosis
245
what is associated wtih edema and localized tenderness
DVT
246
what is associated with a palpable pulsing mass
Aneurysm
247
Steps to take when Pt has a laceration on hand that is bleeding
1. don gloves
2. cover wound with sterile towel
3. raise wound above level of heart to decrease blood flow to the area
4. apply pressure to the wound
248
if Pt. supine wiht knees off the edge of the table, PT flexes R hip passivly and L knee extends what is tight
L rectus femoris
249
who is it approopriate to teach glossopharyngeal breathing to
high SCI Pt.
250
what does the DGI assess
ability ot modify fait in response to task demands
251
visual analog scale is used to
estimate perception of pain
252
what two muscles make an appropriate force couple for upward rotation
upper trap and serratus anterior
UT: pulls up
SA: pull outward in horizontal direction
253
act of muscles or what is it called when muscle groups moving together, in a synergistic manner, to produce movement around a joint
force couple
254
A 74 year old contractor has a prominent forward lean
when he is in stance on the right lower extremity. From
this observation, PT would hypothesize that the MOST
LIKELY cause is:
A. Weak hip extensors on the left
B. Weak hip flexors on the left
C. Weak knee extensors on the right
D. Weak knee flexors on the right
c
255
tenderness with palpation of subacromial area, painful arc with PROM, protective muscle spasms, end feel empty and painful
acute bursitis
256
what end feel would fibrosis or adhesive capsulitis display
capsular
257
what is volkmann ischemic contracture
nerve injury 2/2 compression of fluid, producing a deformed limb
258
Thrombophlebitis of saphenous vein would present:
generalized leg pain, swelling, andincreased tep, and bluish discoloration
259
blunt trauma, presents with sensory deficits: numbness and tingling and coolness of extremity
anterior compartment syndrome
260
what is the best way to prevent hypertrophic scar formation after split thickness skin grafts
pressure garments
261
what cause clasp-knife phenomenon
injury to descending motor pathways from cortex or brainstem
262
if the basal ganglia is injured on the R which side of the body will show impairments
L
263
what is seen with injury to basal ganglia
cogwheel resistance, tremor, rigidity
264
after partial RC tear or impingement what ROM should the individual work in in the early stages
pain-free ROM
265
what are adventitius breath sounds
abnormal sounds such as crackles, wheezes or stridor
266
appropriate intervention for atelectasis
inscentive spirometry
267
what involves the blockage that stops or slows conduction across that point in the nerve
neurapraxia
268
is recovery possible with neurapraxia
yes
269
what condition is the neural tube intact but axonal damage has occoured with wallerian degeneration
axonotmesis
270
what condition involves the total loss of axon function with disruption of neural tube
neurotmesis
271
what occurs when using intermittent pneumatic compression during inflation (compression phase)
increase in interstitial tissue pressure and venous blood flow
272
tightness of the infraspinatus will limit
internal rotation (ability to touch scapula)
273
R shoulder pian from r trap to thorax between scapulae; recent tendency to bruise easily, dark colored urine, clay colored stools... what is the organ referal
liver
274
where can renal pain be referred to
shoulder same side
275
where is pancreatic pain refered
L shoulder
276
how often should resistance training be performed
~3x a week
277
what of the following phases of running is MOST likely to aggravate HS injury
- IC
- Midswing
- foot flat
- deceleration (terminal swing)
deceleration
278
does pec major attach to the scapula
NOOOOO
279
what muscle if tight will cause ant scapular tilting?
- ant delt
- pec major
- pec minor
- rhomboids
pec minor
280
breif duration nystagmus is consistant with
canalithiasis
281
nystagmus that persists as long as the Pt. is inthe position
cupulothiasis
282
exertional compartmetn syndrome presentation
exertional leg pain, decreased sensation after exertion, paresthesias
283
stress fracture presentation
insidious onset pain correlates with cange in equipemtn or training, exacerbatied by offending activity, localized boney tenderness
284
how to test for stress fx
percussion or vibration (tuning fork)
285
best position to sleep for GI reflux
L sidelying with pillows to maintain position
286
test position ofr iliopsoas
supine with hips and knees flexed to 90
287
best way to produce rapid lasting changes in tissue length
creep phenomenon; via dynamic splint
288
brain stem infarct rsluting in lateral medullary syndrome is most likely to demo what symptoms
loss of pain and tempature sensation on R side of body
289
what fiber damage in the brain step would cause hemiparesis
corticospinal fibers
290
what part of the brain stem supply descriminative touch and proprioceptive info
medial lemniscus
291
what track carries sensory info regarding pain and temperature
spinothalamic tract
292
damage to what crainial N would cause ipsilateral blindness
CN II (optic)
293
what cranial N injury would cause deficits in eye movement up, down, and in... as well as pupillary reflex
oculomotor III
294
what crainial N resluts in deficits looking inferomedially
trochlear N IV
295
deficits with eye movemetn in wards, becuase the N turnes the eye outwards
abducent N
296
Adenocarcinoma and basal cell carcinoma are malignant tumors of what
skin
297
Fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma are malignant tumors of what
connective tissue
298
what is the age range for the bayley
birth to 42 mo (3.5 years)
299
what is an evaluation too for children with CP
GMFM
300
what is teh age range and demographic for the gross motor function scale
CP kiddos, age 5 mo- 16 years
301
what is the age randge for the peabody
birth to 72 mo (6 years)
302
what is the bruininks Oseretsky Test age range
4-21 years of age
303
during which months of pregnancy is manual lymphatic drainage contraindicated
first months
304
what does the forward bend test evaluate in scoliosis
vertebral rotation
305
what is actinomycosis
are infectious bacterial disease; presents with chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue, and fever
306
what is osteomalacia
painful muscles weakness, bone pain, and tenderness
307
what is alkaline phosphatase
enzyme produced by bone cells. an increased level would increase bone formaion 2/2 active osteoclasts
308
what is septic arthritis
rapid onset, iver hours or day, with a joint that is swollen, red, tended, and war, with limited ROM 2/2 pain
309
what is thrombophlebitis
inflammatory process that causes a blood clot to form and block one or more veins, usually in your legs
310
what is granulomatous infection
Structure formed during inflammation that is found in many diseases. It is a collection of immune cells known as macrophages. Granulomas form when the immune system attempts to wall off substances it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate.
311
head lag from birth to what age is normal when pulled from supine to sit
3 mo
312
what are rapid deep preaths called
hyperventilation
313
what is inward abdominal or chest wall movement with inspiration and outward with expiration called
paradoxical breathing
314
what is rapid shallow breathing called
tachypnea
315
what is breathing that waxes and wanes cyclically called
cheyne stokes
316
is teres major and internal or external rotator
internal
317
what do supraspinatus, teres minor, and infraspinatus do
external rotator
318
a lesion is present proximal to the DRG, with a sensory nerve conduction velocity test the conduction time will be
normal
319
what is reiter syndrome
reactive arthritis, is the classic triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis occurring after an infection, particularly those in the urogenital or gastrointestinal tract
320
does ankylosing spondylotis have an increase or decrease in TLC, VC, and inspiroatory muscle function
decrease
321
anterior glide of the talus is useful in increasing....
PF
322
what mobilization would promote subtalar eversion
medial glide of calcaneus
323
as resistance decrease on a theraband the antagonist
shortens
324
As resistance decrease on theraband the agonist
elongates
325
as resistance increase the agonist
shortens
326
best location to test strength and sensation of L3 nerve root
knee extension and sensation over the medial aspect of the thigh
327
Best location to test the S1 nerve root strength and dermatomal pattern
HS strength, and sensation over posterior thigh
328
Testing of the lateral aspect of the knee evaluates what dermatome
L4/5
329
C5/6 nerve root come from what part of the bracchial plexus
upper trunk of the brachial pelxus
330
when taking anticoagulatns the Pt should be most concerned about what during exercise? ecchymosis or hypotension
ecchymosis, hypotension is not usually a SA of anticoagulants
bleeding and brusing highest concern
331
lateral epicondylitis what is most likely to be the offending muscle? ECRB or supinator
ECRB
332
normal Ejection fraction
55-75%
333
what should be the first emphasis for wound treatment: depth, diameter, exudate, necrotic tissue
necrotic tissue
334
after prostectomy what will most likely contribute to urinary incontinence: ureter, ductus deferens, levator ani, urethra
urethra, BECAUSE the prostate provides mechanical support to the urethra between the baldder neck and penis
335
burn that is red or erythematous. slight edema may be present, but no blisters
superficial burn
336
a burn that is characterised by a hard, parchment like eschar covering the area. The color can be white, charred, tan, mahogany, black, or red
full thickness burn
337
intact blisters, bright pink, red, mottled red
superficial partial-thickness burn INTACT BLISTERS
338
mix of red or waxy white color, surface is wed from broken blisters and marked edema
deep partial thickness burn
339
what is desiccation
the removal of moisture from something
340
is distal musculature spared with steriod induced myopathy
yes, until late stage
341
With steroid induced myopathy do we see proximal or distal muscle weakness first
proximal, typically first report is difficulty climbing stairs
342
is trunk musculature weakness an early finding or late finding with steroid induced myopathy
late
343
If Pt. reports strong tingling sensatino but no contraction is elicicted do we increase amplitude or pulse duratino
pulse duration because the amplitude is already high if they have tingling, the longer the pulse the more likely the nerve will depolarize
344
when a person leans forward on elbows in the chair what is the belifit
the diaphragm is raised upwards allowing the strength of the contraction to increase
345
A Pt. post RLE amputation 2/2 vascular insufficiency. Which would most effect the LTG achievement of functional ambulation
1. ROM of R hip
2. condition of LLE
2. condition of LLE
| If the LLE is in rough shape you are not going to be walking anyway no matter what the RLE looks like
346
does shingles present as a rash or scales
rash
347
pain and paresthisa first or rash for shingles
pain and paresthesia
