Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Own peds boards > From questions > Flashcards

From questions Flashcards

1
Q

Improvement or no improvement in hypoxemia test in cyanotic heart disease

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Improvement or no improvement in hypoxemia test in meconium aspiration syndrome

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Improvement or no improvement in hypoxemia test in persistent pulmonary hypertension

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Improvement or no improvement in hypoxemia test in pneumonia

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Improvement or no improvement in hypoxemia test in retained fetal lung liquid

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Causes of superior vena cava syndrome

A

1) Extrinsic compression - mediastinal mass or tumor
2) Intrinsic compression - surgical anastomotic sites, baffle stenosis, thrombosis, cardiac tumors
3) Increased right atrial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pattern: infant 4 weeks of age, fatigues with feeding and now takes twice as long to complete his feeding as he did 1 week ago. Also breathes fast during his feedings and stops frequently to “catch his breath”

A

congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Regurgitation of mitral valve produces what murmur

A

holosystolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Regurgitation of aortic valve produces what murmur

A

diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common two organisms for infective endocarditis

A

Viridans streptococci

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If patient with suspected infectious endocarditis is looks acutely ill how do you manage?

A

Get blood culture than treat with abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If patient with suspected infection endocarditis has chronic symptoms how you manage?

A

Get ECHO to confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Infective endocarditis can cause hematuria how?

A

Through deposition of immune complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cases when microalbuminuria are useful.

A

Diabetes and HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Casesw when 24-hour urine testing for proteinuria helpful?

A

risk factors for nephrolithiasis/urolithiasis or to screen for catecholamine metabolites in children suspected of neural crest tumors (neuroblastoma or pheochromocytom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pattern: AR disorder, chornic tubulointerstitial disease (azotemia, ESRD), polyuria, polydipsia, tubular wasting leading to hyponatremia and salt cravings, acidosis, anemia, azotemia, associated with Senior-Loken syndrome with tapetoretinal degeneration, retinitis pigmentosa

A

Juvenile nephroopththisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are all the eye findings in Senior-Loken?

A

1) tapetoretinal degneration, retinitis pigmentosa, blindness, nystagmus, coloboma, cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pattern: aplasia of cerebellar vermis causing ataxia and retinal coloboma/retinitis pigmentosa

A

Joubert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gene: nephronophthisis

A

NPHP1 gene, chromosome 2q12.3 (nephrocystin 1) NPHP2 and NPHP3 encode for proteins for infantile and adolescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Eye finding in Alport

A

Anterior lenticonus and catarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pattern: X-linked FAnconi (glycosuria, met acid, aminoaciduria, hypophosphatemia) MR, and congenital cataracts

A

Lowe syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pattern: AR, Fanconi, FTT, cystine crystal deposition within the cornea, severe photophobia

A

Nephropathic cystinosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Any treatment from narrowed urethra in child with h/o of UTI

A

no, normal variant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some extrarenal structural causes for hematuri?

A

ruptured cyst of cystic kidney (polycystic kidney), renal mass (Wilms tumor), renal stone, renal vein thrombosis, papillary necrosis or hypercalciuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder clculi, hemangioma, rhabdomyosarcoma of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition o hematuria

A

> 5 RBC/HPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DDx of red urine

A

hematuria, hemoglobiunuria, myoglobinuria, porphyrinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dipstick is sensitive to what?

A

free hemoglobin, myoglobin, intact red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definition of persistent microscopic hematuria

A

blood on UA detected on repeat samples over a 1-month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pattern: Fever in setting of UTI in infant and neonates

A

pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neonates and infants, UTI no fever

A

Lower tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

90% of UTIs are caused y what?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is best initial treatment of cystitis?

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If recurrent UTI, history of resistance or allergy to TMP-SMX, what second line abx?

A

cephalexin, defixime, or ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

First-linefor steroid-resistant nephrotic?

A

cyclosporine and then tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the chance of relapse in minimal change?

A

50-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are labs associated with hemolysis?

A

elevated lactate dehydrogenase and low haptoglobin values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is reticulocytosis sometimes not elevated in HUS?

A

impaired Epo production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are two endocrine problems associated with chronic kidney disease?

A

Increased IGF1 and PTH as compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common types of renal stones?

A

calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, mixd, struvite, cystine, and uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Promoters of kidney stone formation

A

calcium, oxalate, uric acid, cystine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Inhibitors of stone formation

A

magnesium and citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What first test to do for evaluation of kidney stones

A

urinary calcium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What organism is associated with struvite stone

A

proteus, produces urease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pattern: hypercalciuria and renal stones

A

RTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pattern: midface hypoplasia, ocular hypertelorism, nail hypoplasia, cleft lip +/- cleft palate, and heart defects, developmental delay, pre and postnatal growth failure

A

Phenobarbital toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pattern: newborn with cyanosis, hypotonia, abnormalities of cardiac rhythm, goiter, hypothyroidism, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, mom has bipolar

A

Lithium toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pattern: newborn with tremulousness, increased irritability and abnormal visual response to light stimulus, what did the mother smoke/ingest prenatally

A

marijuana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

LSD and birth defects Y/N?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is there an increase in congenital anomalies wtih metamphetamine?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe general picture of polycythemia and hyperviscosity.

A

Lots of organs can be affected. some signs, hypotonia, sleepiness, irritability, hypoglycemia, jaundice, hypocal, plethora, cardiomegaly, increased pulmonary resistance, decreased cardiac output, Nec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pattern: in newborn, IUGR, jaundice, heptaospelnomegaly, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia with petechiae and purpura, microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Estimated MAP for new borns

A

should not be less than gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pattern: meat impaction, dysphagia

A

EE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pattern: heartburn, dysphagia, odynophagia, hoarseness, chronic cough, exacerbation of asthma, apnea and aspiration pneumonia

A

GER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Difference b/w findings from GER versus EE

A

GER- ulceration and injury limited to the distal 5cm of esophagus; EE characterized by inflammation of the proximal, middle and distal esophagus with large number of eosinophils seen on biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

GI symptoms associated with Down syndrome

A

Hirschsprung, duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Most commonly injured intra-abdominal organs

A

liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are complications of long-term H pylori infection?

A

Gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastric lymphoma, and atrophic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is gold standard test for H pylori?

A

upper GI endoscopy with biopsy of gastric antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are non invasive tests for H pylori?

A

IgG serology, fecal sample for H pylori antigen, C13 urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Rx for H pylori

A

2 antibiotics and PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is follow-up after H pylori treatment?

A

documentation of eradication, negative fecal antigen studies or endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the ratio of L:S typically achieved by 35 weeks’ gestation

A

2

64
Q

Is PG or PI used as indicator of pulmonary surfactant maturity?

A

PG

65
Q

What should be used as test for fetal lung maturity in setting of maternal diabetes?

A

surfactant

66
Q

Pattern: bilateral microtia, depressed nasal bridge, ocular hypertelorism, cleft palate, macrocephaly, truncus arteriosus, dilated ventricles with hydrocephalus

A

isotretinon

67
Q

Pattern: neonate with IUGR, ocular hypertelorism, midface hypoplasia, celft lip+/- cleft palate and heart defects

A

phenobarbital and phenytoin

68
Q

Shortened AP dimension. Which suture close early?

A

Coronal

69
Q

Pattern: coronal suture synostosis, large thumbs or great toes

A

FGFR dominant mutation

70
Q

Trigonocephaly “keel-shaped” skull. Which suture close early?

A

metopic

71
Q

Scaphocephalic (long in AP dimension and narrow in biparietal dimension) Which suture close early?

A

sagittal

72
Q

Posterior plagiocephaly (flattening of one or both sides of the occiput) Which suture close early?

A

lambdoid suture

73
Q

When should you start helmet for positional plagiocephaly?

A

9 months

74
Q

When infant sees a mirror, smiles and vocalizes

A

4 mo

75
Q

When infant sees a mirror, reaches for it and pats the image

A

6 mo

76
Q

When infant sees a mirror, offers it a toy

A

12mo

77
Q

Letter reversal is normal up to what age?

A

7yrs

78
Q

Why is MCT used in children with distal ileal resection for nec?

A

It can be absorbed directly across the tnerocyte and does not require intraluminal digestion by bile acids.
LCFA require bile acids for digestion and might cause diarrhea in a child with cholestasis and ileal resection

79
Q

Pattern: cardiac disease (PS), vertebral anomalies, ocular anomalies (posterior embryotoxon), facial dysmorphism (triangular facies, macrocephaly, large ears) and paucity of the intrahepatic bile ducts

A

Alagille syndrome

80
Q

Vitamin deficiency: hypotonia and apnea

A

Magnesium

81
Q

Vitamin deficiency: hypotonia and seizures

A

Vitamin B6

82
Q

Vitamin deficiency: hypotonia, DD, seizures, steely hair

A

Cooper

83
Q

Vitamin deficiency: pallor, poor feeding, hypochromic anemia, neutropenia, and skeletal changes Metaphyseal fraying and osteoporosis

A

Cooper

84
Q

Vitamin deficiency: hemolysis and peripheral neuropathy, hyporeflexia, tremors

A

Vit E

85
Q

Differential for children with small hands and feet, hypogonadism, learning disabilities, MR

A

Prader-Willi and Bardet-Biedl syndromes

86
Q

What infections is absolute contraindication for breast feeding?

A

HIV, untreated TB, active herpes lesion

87
Q

What maternal medications preclude breastfeeding?

A

Chemo, immunosuppressants, lithium and readiopharmaceutical

88
Q

Is candida contraI for breastfeeding?

A

No, but mother and baby should be treated

89
Q

Difference between foodborne and infant botulism

A

Foodborne ingestion of food that is contaminated with spores - honey
Infant results from ingestion of C bot spores that germinat and produce the toxin

90
Q

Pattern: nausea, dry mouth and diarrhea –> cranial nerve dysfunction, most commonly diplopia, blurry vision, descending to include dysphagia, upper extremity weakness, respiratory dysfunction, and lower extremity weakness

A

Foodborne botulism - hours incubation time

91
Q

Pattern: Injury 4 to 14 days prior to symptoms of cranial nerve dysfunction, diplopia, blurry vision, descending to include dysphagia, upper extremity weakness, respiratory dysfunction and lower extremity

A

Wound botulism

92
Q

Pattern: 3 to 30 days from ingestion of spores, constipation, feeding difficulties, hypotonia, incrased drooling, weak cry, diminished gag reflex, truncal weakness, cranial nerve palsies, and generalized weakness

A

Infant botulism

93
Q

Toxin type for infant and wound botulism

A

A and B

94
Q

Rx for wound and foodborne

A

Equine trivalent antitoxin

95
Q

Rx for infant botulism

A

BIGIV

96
Q

Pattern: paralysis ascending beginning in the lower extremities and ascending symmetrically to involve trunk, upper extremities and head within a few hours

A

tick paralysis

97
Q

Three infections that cause oculoglandular disease

A

Bartonella, tularemia, H influ

98
Q

Pattern: fever, diarrhea, blood mucous, neutrophils in stool, seizures

A

Shigella

99
Q

Pattern: tenosynovitis, dermatitis, polyarthralgias

A

Dissemniated gonococcal infection

100
Q

What can cause disseminated syndrome, neonatal conjunctivitis, urethritis, salpingitis, PID

A

N. gonorrhoeae

101
Q

Complications associated with varicella

A

superinfection of skin lesions, pneumonia, cerebellar ataxia, encephalitis, thrombocytopenia, glomerulonephritis, arthritis, and hepatitis

102
Q

Rx for immunocompetent hosts at increased risk for moderate to severe varicella

A

oral acyclovir

103
Q

Persons at increased risk for moderate to severe varicella

A

?12yo, chornic cutaneous or pulm disorders, persons receiving long-term salicylate therapy, people receiving short, intermittent or aerosolized courses of croticosteroids and secondary household cases

104
Q

Rx for immunocompromised patients who have varicellas and who have been treated with chronic corticosteroids

A

IV antiviral

105
Q

Rx for varicella in HIV with normal CD4, leukemic patient in whom careful follow-up is guaranteed

A

High dose oral

106
Q

Which antibiotics should you not take with dairy products?

A

tetracycline, doxycycline, ciprofloxacin

107
Q

Which antibiotics should you not take with food?

A

ampicillin - acid ability

108
Q

Which antibiotics should you take with food to reduce stomach upset?

A

erythromycin and metronidazole

109
Q

Liquid restrictions pre-sedation

A

Milk or food 6 hours
Human milk 4 hours
Clear juices 2 hours

110
Q

Treatment for HSV

A

400mg acyclovir 3x/day for 7 to 10 days

111
Q

After antihistamine, what is next therapy for allergic rhinitis

A

intranasal corticosteroid

112
Q

What % of COHgb concentration is indicative of exposure

A

> 3 to 5% sometimes 100%

113
Q

Rx for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% nonrebreather decreases half life from 300 minutes to 90 minutes and should be continued until COHgb concentration is less than 5%

114
Q

When should you suspect bacterial cause of rhinitis?

A

URI persisting longer than 7 to 10 days

115
Q

Most common cause?

A

H influ

116
Q

Rx for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

high dose amoxicillin, augmentin, cefdinir, defpodoxime proxetil, cefuroxime axetil

117
Q

List complications of chronic renal failure

A
  1. poor appetites
  2. impaired growth –> FTT, short stature
  3. Increased IGF-BP so bioavailability of IGF is lower
  4. Decreased urine output with impaired excretion of sodium and water
  5. Hypertension
  6. P, K, Mg accumulate
  7. 25-hydroxyVitD3 exiting liver cannot be activated to 1,25-dihydroxyD3 because of low 1-alpha hydroxylase activity
  8. Low bioactive forms of VitD3 acompanied by phosphorus retention and secondary hyperPTH lead to renal astodystrophy (renal rickets)
  9. Anemia
118
Q

Pattern: dry mucous membrane, can be aroused, dry mucous membranes, and pupillary constriction

A

clonidine overdose

119
Q

In 1/3 to 1/2 of males with Hemophilia A, no family history, what percentage of those mothers could be carriers

A

80%, she could have denovo or germline mosaicism

120
Q

Exercise limitations for mild aortic stenosis and moderate

A

Mild- no restrictions

Moderate - self-limited aerobic activities and avoid isometric activities

121
Q

Drugs that cause hemolysis with G6PD

A

Sulfonamides, antimalarials, aspirin, vit K analogs

122
Q

Rx for corneal abrasion

A

oral pain killers

123
Q

When to refer to ophthalmology after corneal abrasion

A

if complete healing isn’t seen in 2 to 3 days

124
Q

Rx for sulfonylurea overdoses

A

octreotide

125
Q

Pattern: salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, and gastic emesis

A

cholinergic poisoning via inhibition of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

126
Q

Pattern: failure to gain weight, jaundice, and hepatomegaly and elevated urine reducing substances

A

galactosemia

127
Q

Adult complications of galactosemia

A

learning disabilities, verbal dyspraxia, neurologic disorders and ovarian failure

128
Q

Name pro-epileptic drugs

A

isoniazid, theophylline, cocaine, burproprion, insulin, cyclosporine

129
Q

HOCM genetics

A

AD

130
Q

Pattern: 16yo boy with family with HCM. Treatment/consult

A

Cardiology should follow

131
Q

How long does oral iron have to be taken for in anemic patient?

A

2 months to replenish iron stores

132
Q

Pattern: bump on neck located laterally along the anterior border of SCM, nonmobile

A

Branchial cleft cysts

133
Q

Pattern: soft midline neck mass that moves vertically when the child swallows or protrudes the tongue, drainage onto the skin

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

134
Q

What is a cystic hygroma

A

lymphangioma, a soft mass of dilated lymph vessels

135
Q

Pattern: on xray, patchy area of diffuse atelectasis, focal areas of air-trapping, and increased lung volume

A

Meconium stained amniotic fluid

136
Q

Pattern: on xray, air bronchograms, diffusely hazy lung fields, and low lung volume

A

surfactant deficiency-related respiratory distress syndrome

137
Q

Pattern: Diaphoresis, tachycardia, tremulousness, pallor irritability, somnolence, and coma

A

hypoglycemia

138
Q

What are some poisons that cause hypoglycemia

A

oral hypoglycemic agents, insulin, beta-blockers, saicylates, and ethanol

139
Q

What is the RAST method

A

radioallergosorbent test to measure IgE

140
Q

What needs to be discontinued before skin testing

A

Anti-histamine 1 week prior to skin testing

141
Q

Can you anaphylax during skin testing?

A

Yes

142
Q

First-line medication for steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

A

cyclosporine

143
Q

Age when most kids are toilet trained

A

98% by 3 years

144
Q

Pleural liquic concentration of protein and LDH for transudate and exudate

A

Transudate protein <3g/dL

LDH <200 IU/L

145
Q

Which metabolic problem can lead to E. coli sepsis

A

galactosemia

146
Q

Iron deficiency can lead to what?

A

impaired cognitive abilities

147
Q

Name the types of fractures that are concerning for NAT

A

metaphyseal chip fractures, metaphyseal bucket handle fractures, fracture of posterior ribs, scapula, spinous process, sternum, multiple fractures, fractures of different ages, femor fractures younger than 1 year of age, complex skull fractures

148
Q

When would you need to use antivenom in spider bite?

A

Indicated only when autonomic symptoms or pain cannot be managed with usual measures

149
Q

Pattern: severe muscular cramping, tremors and autonomic symptoms such as drooling and sweating

A

similar to cholinergic crisis, but can be black widow spider bites

150
Q

Congenital scoliosis is associated with abnormalities in what other organs?

A

Heart, kidneys and spinal cord

151
Q

Management for child with congenital scoliosis

A

serial PA and lateral spine radiographs at birth; after 1 year, spine xray should be taken with child standing and the pelvis maintained in a level position, CT with thin slices and 3D reconstruction may be helpful,especially if malformations are multiple or complex; MRI with cratilate is recommended to determine growth potential

152
Q

Which salter should you reduce and which to cast to immobilize?

A

Reduce Salter III and IV; cast and immobilize V

153
Q

Which Salter sets you up for significant risk for deformity

A

Salter IV and V

154
Q

Endocrine causes of myositis

A

hypo/hyperTH, hypercortisolism, hypo/hyperPTH, hypoca/hypoK

155
Q

Drugs that cause myositis

A

colchicine, lipid-lowering, cyclosporine

156
Q

Metabolic conditions that cause myositis

A

myhosphorylase deficiency, acid maltase deficiency, lipid storage disease

Own peds boards (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions