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Development Flashcards

1
Q

Average HC at birth

A

35cm

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2
Q

Typical growth of HC

A

2cm/mo 0-3mo
1cm/mo 3-6mo
0.5cm/mo 6-12mo
>80% of adult size by 2 yr

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3
Q

Weight at birth

A

3-3.5kg

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4
Q

Regain of weight by when?

A

2 weeks

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5
Q

Weight doubles when

A

by 4-6mo

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6
Q

Weight triples when

A

by 1yr

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7
Q

Average length at birth

A

51cm

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8
Q

Length 1/2 of adult ht by when

A

2yr

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9
Q

LIfts head 45 degrees when prone, arms extended

A

2mo

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10
Q

Follows objest past midline

A

2mo

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11
Q

Rolls prone to supine

A

4mo

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12
Q

Chest up, supported on arms when prone

A

4mo

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13
Q

No head lag when pulled to sit

A

4mo

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14
Q

Lifts head to 90deg when rpone

A

4mo

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15
Q

Sits with support

A

6mo

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16
Q

Chest up, supported on hands

A

6mo

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17
Q

Starts to crawl

A

9m

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18
Q

Pulls to stand

A

9mo

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19
Q

May cruise

A

9-11mo

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20
Q

Takes a few steps with hand held

A

12mo

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21
Q

Stand without help or walk independently

A

12mo

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22
Q

Swipes at objects, hands open

A

3mo

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23
Q

Hands in midline

A

4mo

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24
Q

Grasps objects and brings to mouth

A

4mo

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25
Q

Transfers objects hand-hand

A

6mo

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26
Q

Reaches unilaterally, raking grasp

A

6mo

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27
Q

Early pincer grasph

A

9mo

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28
Q

Eats with fingers

A

9mo

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29
Q

Mature pincer grasp

A

12mo

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30
Q

Releases object voluntarily

A

12mo

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31
Q

orients to voice

A

4mo

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32
Q

laughs

A

4mo

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33
Q

babbles

A

6mo

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34
Q

mama, dada

A

9mo

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35
Q

responds to name

A

9mo

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36
Q

mama, dada specifically

A

12mo

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37
Q

immature jargon

A

12mo

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38
Q

one or more words with meaning

A

12mo

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39
Q

understands commands with gestures

A

12mo

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40
Q

social smile, regards face

A

2m

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41
Q

laughs

A

4mo

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42
Q

start of object permanence

A

6mo

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43
Q

prefers mother, stranger anxiety

A

6mo

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44
Q

looks over edge, object permanence

A

9mo

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45
Q

plays beek-a-boo, pat-a-cake

A

9mo

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46
Q

wave bye bye

A

9months

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47
Q

uncovers hidden object

A

9mo

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48
Q

plays simple games

A

12mo

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49
Q

takes pride in accomplisments

A

12mo

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50
Q

walks well, walks backwards

A

15mo

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51
Q

runs well, wide-based gait

A

24mo

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52
Q

runs clumsily, falls often, walks pushing or pulling toys

A

18mo

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53
Q

walks on tiptoes

A

3years

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54
Q

tandem walks

A

4years

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55
Q

alternating feet

A

5 years

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56
Q

skips

A

5years

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57
Q

crawls up stairs

A

15mo

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58
Q

walks up stairs with hand held; two feet per step

A

18mo

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59
Q

Climbs up and down stairs alone 2 feet per step

A

24mo

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60
Q

climbs up stairs alternating feet

A

3yrs

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61
Q

climbs down stairs alternating feet

A

4yrs

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62
Q

sits self in chair

A

18mo

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63
Q

throws ball overhead

A

18mo

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64
Q

kicks ball forward

A

2yrs

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65
Q

jumps in place, jumps off step

A

2yrs

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66
Q

stands on one foot momentarily

A

2yrs

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67
Q

kicks ball forward

A

2yrs

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68
Q

stands on 1 foot 1-2 sec

A

3yrs

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69
Q

hops 2-3 times

A

3yrs

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70
Q

broad jump

A

3yrs

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71
Q

stands on 1 foot 3-5 seconds

A

4yrs

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72
Q

hops 5 times

A

4yrs

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73
Q

2 cube tower

A

15mo

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74
Q

3-4 cube tower

A

18mo

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75
Q

6-7 cube towers

A

24mo (2+4=6 cubes)

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76
Q

8 cubes

A

30mo

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77
Q

9-10 cubes

A

3yrs

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78
Q

Imitates bridge with tube

A

36months

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79
Q

Gate cubes

A

48mo

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80
Q

steps of cubes

A

72mo

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81
Q

scribbles spontaneously

A

18mo

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82
Q

imitates a stroke

A

18mo

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83
Q

imitates vertical and circular stokes

A

24mo

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84
Q

imitates horizontal strokes

A

30mo

85
Q

copies circle

A

3yrs

86
Q

copies cross

A

4yrs

87
Q

copies square

A

4.5yrs

88
Q

copies triangle; prints a few letters

A

5yrs

89
Q

copies diamond

A

6yrs

90
Q

takes off gloves, socks, shoe

A

18mo

91
Q

can put on some clostes

A

24mo

92
Q

dresses with supervision

A

3yr

93
Q

unbutton

A

3yr

94
Q

dresses without supervision

A

4yr

95
Q

buttons

A

4yr

96
Q

can tie shoelaces

A

5yr

97
Q

uses covered cups with little spilling

A

15mo

98
Q

handles spoon well for solids

A

18mo

99
Q

uses spoon well for semi-solids

A

24mo

100
Q

eats neatly with spoon and fork

A

3yrs

101
Q

spreads with a knife

A

5-6yrs

102
Q

starting to cut food with the knife

A

7yr

103
Q

2-3 words, immature jargoning

A

12-13mo (1+2=3)

104
Q

4-6 words

A

15mo (1+5=6)

105
Q

7-20 words

A

16-17mo (1+7=8)

106
Q

Mature jargoning

A

16-17mo

107
Q

50+ words

A

21-24mo

108
Q

2 word sentences

A

21-24mo

109
Q

pronouns, telegraphic speech

A

30mo

110
Q

3-4 sentences

A

3yr

111
Q

250+ words

A

3yr

112
Q

4-6 word sentences

A

4yr

113
Q

uses past tense

A

4yr

114
Q

follows 1 step command with gestures

A

12mo

115
Q

follows 1 step command without gestures

A

15mo

116
Q

knows 5+ body parts

A

18mo

117
Q

names pictures of common objects

A

18mo

118
Q

follows 2 step command

A

24mo

119
Q

knows sex, first and last name

A

30-36mo

120
Q

understands 2 prepositions

A

30-36mo

121
Q

names 3-4 colors

A

4yr

122
Q

counts 5-10

A

4yr

123
Q

understands 4 prepositions

A

4yr

124
Q

understands opposites

A

4yr

125
Q

intelligibility to strangers 50%

A

2yr 2/4

126
Q

intelligibility to strangers 75%

A

3yr 3/4

127
Q

intelligibility to strangers 100%

A

4yr 4/4

128
Q

parental concerns about development identify about what percentage of kids?

A

80%

129
Q

months of child when AALP recommends developmental screening

A

9mo, 18mo, and 30mo (24mo)

130
Q

T/F : language milestones more predictive of developmental problems than gross motor milestones

A

True

131
Q

T/F: Current developmental level is more accurate than recall of milestones

A

True

132
Q

T/F: screening test can predict future potential

A

False

133
Q

T/F: Multiple assessments are betther than a single assessment in time

A

True

134
Q

T/F: developmental screens can identify specific developmental disorders

A

False

135
Q

T/F: a simple checklist can be used for developmental screening

A

False - use validated instruments

136
Q

Test name? Parental report of concerns in various domains, 2-5min to complete, parents must have 5th grade reading level, well-validated and available in multiple languages

A

Parents’ Evaluation of Developmental STatus

137
Q

What test? Parental reports of acquired skills in various domains, 10-15, well-validated

A

ASQ

138
Q

What test? Autism-specific, 16-30 months

A

M-CHAT

139
Q

What should you do M-CAT

A

18 and 24 months

140
Q

What test? 2wk-6r, 15-30 min, assess 4 domains of development, not as sensitive to mild delays and language difficulties

A

Denver developmental screeing test

141
Q

What test? 1-42mo, 1hr, can get developmental quotient = developmental age/chronological age); does not correlate highly with IQ

A

Bayley scales of infant development - II

142
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 9mo

A

no response to name

143
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 10-12mo

A

not babbling

144
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 15mo

A

Does not respond to “no” or “bye bye”

145
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 18mo

A

No words other than mama, dada, does not point to wants

146
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 24mo

A

no 2 word phrases or 2 syllable words. Does not understand simple commands

147
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 3yo

A

speech not fully intelligible to family, not using pronouns and verbs, no simple sentences, echolalia still present

148
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 4yr

A

speech not fully intelligible to strangers

149
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 5yr

A

persistent stuttering, frequent letter substitution

150
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 6yrs

A

speech errors other than s, ch, sh, z, j, v, th, zh

151
Q

Warning signs of language delay at 8 years

A

any speech errors

152
Q

Name some neonatal risk factors for hearing loss and language delay

A

NICU admission >48hrs
Craniofacial abnormalities or syndromes
FH of childhood deafness
In utero infections (CMV, HSV, rubella, syphilis, toxoplasmosis)

153
Q

Risk factors for delayed-onset hearing loss

A 
neonatal risk factors
Postnatal infection (meningitis)
Recurrent or persistent OM
Head trauma with temporal bone fracture
Neurodegenerative disorders -Hunter's, Friedrich's ataxia, Charcot-Marie-Tooth
154
Q

What neurodegenerative disorders are typically associated with hearing loss?

A

Hunter’s, Friedrich’s ataxia, Charcot-Marie-Tooth

155
Q

What percentage of sensorineural hearing loss is genetic?

A

50%

156
Q

What is the most common mutation associated with sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Connexin 26 gene on chromosome 13

157
Q

What inheritance pattern is mutation in connexin 26 generally?

A

Autosomal recessive

158
Q

If congenital CMV infection is symptomatic, what percentage is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

60%

159
Q

If CMV infection is asymptomatic, what percentage is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

5%

160
Q

In pt with connexin 26 gene, at what age can they present SNHL?

A

at age age

161
Q

Most common cause of conductive hearing loss

A

otitis media with effusion

162
Q

Does early insertion of tympanostomy tubes affect sppech long-term

A

no

163
Q

Besides otitis media, what are other causes of conductive hearing loss

A

craniofacial anomalies (external canal atresia/stenosis, foreign bodies, perofration, tympanosclerosis, ossicular disruptions

164
Q

What is normal hearing

A
165
Q

dB for mild hearing loss

A

26-40

166
Q

dB for moderate hearing loss

A

41-55

167
Q

dB for mod-severe hearing loss

A

56-70

168
Q

dB for severe hearing loss

A

71-90

169
Q

dB for profound hearing loss

A

> 90

170
Q

Pattern: difficulty with whispers, misses up to 50% speech

A

mild HL

171
Q

Pattern: misses 5-100% of speech, often poor voice and speech quality, hearing device required

A

moderate HL

172
Q

When is hearing device typically required

A

w/ moderate hearing loss 41-55dB

173
Q

Pattern: loud shout heard as whisper, needs hearing aids, educational interventions

A

mod-severe HL

174
Q

Pattern: may have difficulty with hearing aids

A

severe HL

175
Q

Pattern: feels vibrations only, does not hear, relies on vision for communication

A

profound HL

176
Q

profoundly deaf children can vocalize normally up to what months

A

6-8 months

177
Q

Define components of expressive language delay

A

limited vocabulary, poor word recall, poor intelligibility, delayed syntax (normal sentence structure)

178
Q

Define components of receptive language delay

A

auditory processing problems, verbal comprehension, short-term auditory memory

179
Q

Dysfluency is normal during what age group

A

2.5 to 5 years

180
Q

Indication for further evaluation of stuttering

A
  1. Onset >5yr or persists for >6months
  2. Child distressed when speaks
  3. Frequent long pauses, blockaged
  4. Parents concerned
  5. Positive family history
181
Q

Rx for stuttering

A

speech therapy, selective use of DA agonists (risperidone), SSRIs

182
Q

Pattern: sudden deterioration in language (receptive, then expresive) aat 3-7 years old, EEG abnormalities (temporal lobe spikes, sharp waves), 80% with clinical seizures

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

183
Q

What four genetic syndromes can be associated with language delay

A

Down, Williams, Fragile X, Klinefelter’s

184
Q

Define clinical and EEG of stage II

A

sleep spindles, K complexes, slowed HR, RR, eye movements slowed, easily awakened

185
Q

Define stage III sleep on EEG

A

20-50% delta waves (high voltage, slow waves)

186
Q

Define EEG of stage IV sleep

A

> 50% delta waves, difficult to awaken

187
Q

When does parasomnias occur?

A

During Non-REM sleep

188
Q

NREM occurs when

A

During first 1/3 of night

189
Q

REM occurs when

A

During last 1/2 of night

190
Q

When do newborns develop day/night differentiation

A

Not until 2 months

191
Q

REM occurs when in infants

A

Onset of sleep

192
Q

When is nap discontinued

A

3-4yr

193
Q

When do parasomnias occur?

A

within 1-2 hours after sleep onset

194
Q

Parasomnias occur during what age?

A

4-12 yr

195
Q

What can parasomnias be precipitated by?

A

stress, illness, sleep deprivation

196
Q

Rx for parasomnias

A

Not much, scheduled light arousal before event

197
Q

Most common age with sleep walking

A

4-8 years, resolves in adolescence

198
Q

Rx for sleep walking

A

short nap in afternoon may be helpful to decrease deep sleep at night

199
Q

Pattern: stage IV sleep, first 1/3 of night, 4-12y, confused, agitate, not consolable, no recall

A

night terrors

200
Q

Pattern: REM sleep, second 1/2 of night, peak 3-6y, upset but awake, consolable, may recall

A

nighmares

201
Q

Rx for delayed sleep phase

A

phase advancement or phase delay, oral melatonin, bright light exposure

202
Q

What is restless legs syndrome exacerbated by?

A

caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, iron deficiency, pregnancy

203
Q

What is periodic limb movement disorder

A

repetitive extension of toe, flexion of ankle, knee

204
Q

Rx for RLS

A

DA agonist, clonazepam, opiates, carbamazepine, gabapenin

205
Q

What can OSAS be associated with

A

FTT, enuresis, daytime sleepiness

206
Q

Pattern: Intrusion of REM into your awake state, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, development in adolescent years

A

narcolepsy

207
Q

What percentage of children have developmental disability?

A

15%

208
Q

Joint attention

A

9mo

209
Q

IQ in ID

A

<70

Own peds boards (26 decks)

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