Formatives** Flashcards

1
Q

what proportion of couples suffer from infertility

A

1/6 so approx 15%

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2
Q

what bony landmark is closely associated to the pudendal nerve and artery

A

spinous process of the sacrum

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3
Q

boundaries of the pelvic inlet

A

anterior - symphysis pubis
laterally by the iliopentineal lines
posteriorly by the sacral promitory

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4
Q

what are the boundaries of the pelvic outlet

A

anterior - pubic arch
laterally ischial tuberosities
posteriorly by the coccyx

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5
Q

female
multiple small painful ulcers
flu like illness
unable to urinate due to discomfort

A

herpes simplex

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6
Q

non sexually active woman
frothy brownish vaginal discharge
offensive smell

A

BV

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7
Q

what stage is embryo transfer most successful at

A

blastocysts

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8
Q

when does LH surge occur before ovulation

A

24-36 hours

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9
Q

changes in the endometrium in the luteal phase are a direct effect of what hormone

A

progesterone

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10
Q

couple with a 5 yr history of infertility treatment

A

IVF

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11
Q

couple with 2 year history of anovolutary infertility due to PCOS rx

A

clomifine citrate

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12
Q

indirect dx of a viable intrauterine preg not obv on scan HCG

A

doubles by 50% in 2-3 days

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13
Q

oligoasthenospermia

A

low count and low motility

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14
Q

teratoasthenospermia

A

low morality and abnormal forms

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15
Q

where does spermatogenesis occur in a testicle

A

seminiferous tubules

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16
Q

where is testerone secreted from in males

A

leydig cells

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17
Q

Rectouterine pouch of douglas can be drained via a needle passed through what

A

posterior fornix of the vagina

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18
Q

most lymph >75% from the breast initially drains to the

A

axially LNs

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19
Q

what can contribute to the development of HIV antiretroviral treatment

A

poor adherence to meds

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20
Q

which is the most effective method of EC

A

copper coil

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21
Q

how long is LNG licensed to be used after unprotected sex

A

72 hours

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22
Q

the coc increases the risk of which cancers

and protects against which cancers

A

breast, cervical

ovarian and endometrial

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23
Q

chlamydia treatment

A

azithromycin

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24
Q

when should COC be started

A

within 5 days after a period

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25
Q

retinits caused by CMV in advanced immunosuppression is a result of what

A

reactivated infection

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26
Q

most important risk factor for GBV

A

female sex

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27
Q

stage 4 of the figo staging system for cervical cancer

A

carcinoma involves pelvic side

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28
Q

what info isn’t required when submitting an endometrial biopsy for examination

A

number of pregnancies

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29
Q

age range for cervical cancer screening

A

25-64

30
Q

one of the main arteries that supplies the anterior abdominal wall

A

inferior epigastric

31
Q

what does a suprapubic incision cut through

A

anterior rectus sheath

32
Q

what effect does pregnancy have on the functional residual capacity

A

decreases it

33
Q

what effect does pregnancy have on the contractility of the heart

A

increases it

34
Q

does placenta praaevia lead to large for dates

A

no

35
Q

what is the symphyseal - fundal height measured in

A

cm

36
Q

what structure forms the vas deferans

A

mesonephric duct

37
Q

when is the nuchal thickness measured in an US

A

11-14 weeks

11-13 (+6)

38
Q

when is a pregnant uterus palpable in a singleton pregnancy

A

12 weeks

39
Q

what is normal risk of someone having cystic fibrosis in a european descendent

A

1/25

40
Q

what percentage of LGBT people say that they feel safe and supported by medical staff within the NHS in terms of their sexual orientation (same for trans)

A

57%

trans - 48%

41
Q

what percentage of lesbian gay and bi people and trans people suffer from mental health issues

A

40% and 67% for trans

42
Q

what is the dose of LNG that is given

A

one dose 1.5mg

43
Q

what is COCP contraindicated in

A

women over 40 and with high BMI

44
Q

what types of contraception are ruled out if a woman has fibroids

A

mirena and hysterescopic sterilisation

45
Q

yellowish/green frothy with itching and soreness

A

trichomonas

46
Q

warts genital

A

HPV

47
Q

sore ulcerated lesions

A

genital herpes

48
Q

creamy white discharge with redness

A

candidiasis

49
Q

what can cause regret with sterilisation process

A

performed at the time of abortion or childbirth
<30
few or no children
not in a mutually faithful relationship or single
coercion by partner or medical personnel

50
Q

failure rate of male sterilisation

A

1:2000

51
Q

what fetal anomalies are associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

A

dysplastic kidneys
ventricular septal defect
micrognathia and smooth philtrum
microcephaly

52
Q

pain from the uterus comes from which nerve fibres

A

visceral afferent fibres T11-L2

53
Q

what can be used as a landmark to administer pudendal nerve block

A

anterior superior iliac spine

54
Q

what is the ischia anal fosse filled with

A

fat

55
Q

what does mirabegron not affect

A

the voiding phase

56
Q

when are topical oestrogen’s used

A

atrophy of vaginal mucosa

57
Q

uterus contracts hardens and rises and gush of blood

A

placental seperation

58
Q

beginning and end of the second stage of labour

A

full dilatation of the cervix

ends with complete delivery of the baby

59
Q

how long does it take for tissues to return to normal state after birth

A

6 weeks

60
Q

painless recurrent bleeds in third trimester

A

placental previa

61
Q

what should be taken if the mum is on anti epileptic medication

A

5mg folic acid taken from before and up to 3 months conception which reduces the risk of spina bifida

62
Q

volume of drug distribution is what during pregnancy

A

increased by changes in plasma volume and fat stored

63
Q

sudden need to urinate and difficulty deferring and potentially associated incontinance

A

OAB

64
Q

risk factors for pelvic girdle pain

A

increased BMI before preg
history of lower back and pelvic pain or pelvic trauma
hard physical job
PGP in previous pregnancy

65
Q

why is ductus arteriosis necessary in a fetus

A

to oxygenate the fetal venous return during the right ventricle

66
Q

what is the fluid in the fetal lung before birth made

A

made by fetal lung

67
Q

how long should gestational correction continue for babies born before 32 weeks

A

until 12 months

68
Q

what is screened for in a newborn baby

A

hypothyroidism
congenital dislocation of the hip
hearing loss
phenylketouria

69
Q

how is coverage calculated

A

screwed population/eligble population X 100

70
Q

newborn baby breathing quickly and feeding poorly

A

group B strep infection