FORENSIC 4 TO 6 Flashcards
1
Q
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
A
2
Q
- Defined as a visible effect of bodily
movement which is an almost unconscious
expression of fixed muscular muscles.
A
b. handwriting
3
Q
- Mere blank forms of official documents, the spaces of which are not filled up, are considered as documents.
A
b. false
4
Q
- The requirements to become a questioned
document examiner are the following,
except:
a. a period of training
b. a period of experience
c. must be a police officer
d. all of the above
A
c. must be a police officer
5
Q
- The removal of writings, typewriting or printing, maybe chemical eradication and or by an abrasive erasure is called:
A
b. erasure
6
Q
- The addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of whole page to a
document.
A
a. insertion
7
Q
- The following are the general classifications of
Question Document, except:
a. documents with questioned signatures
b. questioned documents alleged to have been
containing fraudulent alterations
c. documents having been proven their origin
d. questioned documents on issues of their age or
date
A
c. documents having been proven their origin
8
Q
- What is used in the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to detect security features of qualified documents?
A
a. ultra violet light
9
Q
- The following are the methods of examining
indented writing. which is not included?
a. physical methods maybe used by passing a strong
beam of nearly parallel light almost horizontally over
the surface of the paper
b. fuming the document maybe of values in some cases
c. powders of various kinds maybe used without
changing the document
d. placing the paper over the fire of a candle to
detect writings using urine
A
d. placing the paper over the fire of a candle to
detect writings using urine
10
Q
- The following are the processes in caring,
handling and preservation of documents,
except:
a. take disputed papers to document examiner`s
laboratory at the first opportunity.
b. if storage is necessary, keep in dry place away from
excessive heat strong light.
c. maintain in consequential document, unfolded
and in transparent plastic envelope or evidence
preserver.
d. none of the above
A
d. none of the above
11
Q
- In caring and handling disputed documents and documentary evidence, it is advisable to be kept unfolded and in a separate, proper size envelope or folder.
A
a. true
12
Q
- It refers to the numeral found at the four corners of the front and back of the note.
A
a. value panel
13
Q
- Also called standards, are legally admissible
authentic samples of handwriting used for
comparison with questioned writing. they are used by the document examiner to enable her to form an opinion concerning the authenticity of handwriting in dispute.
A
c. exemplars
14
Q
- It is the deterioration in writing caused by excessive consumption of alcohol.
A
a. intoxicated writing
15
Q
- In taking request handwriting standards in all types of questioned-document problems, permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document. This statement is:
A
b. false
16
Q
- This is known as the distance between the letters.
A
d. letter space
17
Q
- A character printing above or below its proper
position has the quality of :
A
b. vertical malalignment
18
Q
- The German word that means “complete” or
“whole”. it needs nothing added or taken away to make
it “look right”.
A
c. gestalt
19
Q
- It is the movement of the baseline, it may slant- up, down or straight across the page.
A
a. line direction
20
Q
- Authenticity of private documents is no longer necessary to be proven when:
A
b. the document is more than 30 years old
21
Q
- It is an important element in handwriting which embraces all the factors which are related to the motion of the writing instrument skill, speed freedom,
A
c. movement
22
Q
- It is the place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds it.
A
d. pen hold
23
Q
- Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by
shaky or wavering stroke which is perfectly
apparent even without magnification?
A
c. tremor
24
Q
- This is also known as writer’s proficiency or the degree, ability to write with proficiency.
A
b. skill
25
24. This is the result of the pen touching down on the paper and moving across the page, until it is raised from the paper.
d. writing impulse
26
25. Circumstances under which the writing was
prepared and the factors in influencing the writer’s ability to write at the time of execution. it includes the writer’s position (sitting, standing, abed, etc.), the paper support and backing, and the writing instrument.
a. writing condition
27
26. The thumb, the first and second and slightly the third fingers are in actual motion. This is the technique most usually employed by children
d. finger movement
28
27. This is a signature for the mail carrier,
delivery boy or the autograph collector.
c. careless scribble
29
28. One in which the facts appearing therein
are not true, and are contested either in
whole or in part with respect to its
authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be a
deed, contract, will, election ballots,
marriage contract, checks, visas, application
form, certificates, etc.
d. questioned document
30
29. A will entirely written in the handwriting
of the testator.
b. holographic will
31
30. Those standards which are obtained
from files of document executed in the
persons day to day business, official, social
or personal activities.
a. procured
b. requested
c. collected
d. a and c
d. a and c
32
31. Any writing executed normally without
any attempt to control or alter its identifying
habits and its usual quality of execution.
c. natural handwriting
33
32. A curve formed inside the top curve of loop, as in
small letters “h”, ‘m”, “n”, “p”.
b. arch
34
33. This is concerned with the examination of
forged, altered or suspected papers to see if they
are genuine or if they have been changed.
d. QDE
35
34. Maybe actually on a ruled paper, it might be
imaginary alignment of writing. Is the ruled or
imaginary line upon which the writing rest.
b. baseline
36
35. The term applied to the irregular thickening of ink
which is found when writing slows down or stop while
the pen take a stock of the position.
a. hesitation
37
36. It is a minute curve or an ankle which often occurs at the end of the terminal strokes. It is also sometimes occur at the beginning of an initial stroke. The terminal
curves of the letters “a”, “d”, “n”, “m’, “p”, “u”
d. hook
38
37. The extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the paper. (usually applicable to fountain pen)
a. knob
39
38. This is the analysis of handwriting by comparisons and measurement.
d. graphometry
40
39. In legal language, the Document Examiner’s
conclusion is called:
c. opinion
41
40. Whether the movement has been rapid or slow and whether the space has been steady or variable is a part of:
c. speed
42
41. Characterized by a succession of awkward,
independent, poorly directed and disconnected
motions.
a. lack of rhythm
43
42. Any fraudulent signature which was executed by actually following the outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument.
a. traced forgery
44
43. A name or a mark that a person puts at the end of a document to attest that he is its author or that he ratifies its contents.
d. signature
45
44. An alignment defect in which the character prints to the right or left of its proper position.
a. horizontal malalignment
46
45. A technique of forging a signature in which forger work first with special pencil and afterwards covers
the pencil strokes with ink.
b. indirect technique
47
46. A kind of erasure by using ink eradicator or blending agent.
a. chemical erasure
48
47. Questioned documents are also called known
handwriting samples.
b. false
49
48. The forger does not try to copy a model but writes with something resembling we ordinarily call a signature. For this he uses a false name and makes a rapid stroke, disturbing his usual writing by adopting a camouflage called disguise.
d. simple forgery
50
49. A sheet of interlaced fibers usually cellulose fibers from plants, but sometimes from cloth rags or other fibrous materials. That is formed by pulping the fibers and causing to felt, or mat, to form a solid surface.
c. paper
51
50. In connection with typewriting identification, it includes letters, symbols, numerals, or point of
punctuation.
c. character
52
51. It is a hollow, horny part of large feather usually from goose and was used for writing on parchment.
d. quill pens
53
52. A machine that can reproduce printed character son papers or that can produce printed letters and figures on paper.
c. typewriter
54
53. The illumination of this is so controlled that it gazes or strikes the surface of the document from one side at a very low angle. This is used for decipherment of faded handwriting, determination of outline in traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.
b. oblique light examination
55
54. It is a minute curve on an ankle which often
occurs at the end of the terminal strokes.
b. hook
56
55. In relation to criminal jurisprudence under the best evidence rule: any physical embodiment of information of ideas; e.g. a letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of
account, a blue print, or an x- ray plate.
c. document
57
56. Each letter and character is designed to print a certain fixed angle to the baseline. However, due to wear and damage to the type bars and the type block, some lean to the right or left of their correct slant.
c. twisted letters
58
57. In a requested standard, dictate the material to be written at a speed which will produce the subject’s natural handwriting.
a. True
59
58. The following are indications of common disguises,
except:
a. abnormally large
b. abnormally small writing
c. alteration of slant
d. rhythm
d. rhythm
60
59. It involves the writing of a name as a signature by someone other than the person himself, without his permission, often with some degree of imitation.
c. fraudulent signature
61
60. The exposure of a document to
____________is useful when it consists of several
pages and substitution is being suspected. The
color and intensity of fluorescence reaction is very apparent in case of substituted page. Mechanical and chemical erasures will certainly change the reflectivity and fluorescence of the area affected.
a. ultra violet light
62
61. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as:
a. holographic document
63
62. In writing, it functions as an extension of the hand.
c. pen
64
63. Any typewriting which is placed on the paper
by action of the typefaces striking through carbon paper is classed as:
b. carbon impression
65
64. A term described as: the typefaces become filled with lint, dirt, and ink particularly in enclosed letters such as the o, e, p, g, and others.
a. clogged typeface
66
65. This term describes any abnormality or
maladjustment in a typewriter which is reflected in its work and which leads to its individualization or identification.
d. defects
67
66. What was done when one retouches or goes
back over a defective portion of a writing stroke?
b. patching
68
67. The condition of a typeface printing heavier on one side or corner than over the remainder of its outline.
a. off-its feet
69
68. What type of forgery is made when the writer exerts no effort to effect resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
a. simple
70
69. It is any written statement by which a right is
established or an obligation extinguished; it is a deed, instrument or other duly authorized paper by which something is proved or set forth?
a. document
71
70. It refers to the silhouette of the portrait appearing on the face of the note.
a. watermark
72
71. This refers to the slope of the handwriting in
relation to the base line.
b. slant
73
72. A writing material made from skin of animals
primarily of sheep, calves or goats – was probably developed in the Middle East.
a. parchment
73
73. The imitation of a genuine or legal coin is called:
c. counterfeiting
74
74. Any major long downward stroke of a letter that is the long downward stroke of the letter “b”, “g”.
a. staff
75
75. Any identifying characteristics of a typewriter
which cannot be corrected by simply cleaning the typeface or replacing the ribbon.
d. permanent defects
76
76. The cylinder which serves as the backing of the paper and which absorbs the blow from the typeface
is known as:
d. platen
77
77. Kind of writing characterized by disconnected style.
c. script
78
78. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused
by sudden removal of the writing instrument from the paper surface?
c. pen lifting
79
79. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by which some disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth.
a. private document
80
80. The path which is traced by the pen on the paper.
c. strokes
81
81. Which of the following is the advantage of collected standards?
b. attempt to disguise is excluded
82
82. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters?
b. beard
83
83. A kind of document which is executed by person in authority by private parties but not notarized by notaries public or by competent officials.
b. official document
84
84. This is a stroke that is on another stroke.
b. covering stroke
85
85. A defect in which a character prints a double
impression with the lighter one slightly offset to the right or left.
a. rebound
86
86. It refers to the prefix letter and numbers in a paper money.
b. serial number
87
87. A writer may deliberately try to alter his
usual writing habits in hope of hiding his
identity, writing skill is poorer, change in
slant, size, altered or capital letters.
d. disguised handwriting
87
88. Philippine paper bills are printed in what process?
a. intaglio process
88
89. It is an instrument that can be legally used
in comparisons with a questioned document; its
origin is known and can be proven.
b. standard document
89
90. Those are symbols added to complete certain letters such as “i” and “t”.
c. diacritical marks
90
91. Handwriting samples of the same writer may vary somewhat according to the conditions under which the wring was done. Which of the following classes of writers are such variations in genuine writing likely
to occur?
c. practiced writer
91
92. This group of document includes those papers which the entire writing is in question as spurious, forged or counterfeit in its entirely fall into.
b. questioned documents
92
93. A loop made as a flourished which is added to the letters, as in small letter “k’ and “a” or in capital letters “A”, “K”, “P”. The horizontal end loop stroke that are often used to complete a letter.
a. buckle knot
93
94. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back or chamber is
described as:
b. fountain pen
94
95. It is the failure to complete the junction between two letters without lifting the pen.
b. hiatus
95
96. It is the act of diminishing by ingenious means the metal in the coin; to take advantage if the metal abstracted; he appropriates a part of the metal of the coin, hence the coin diminishes in intrinsic value.
a. mutilation of coins
96
97. This something wrong in time and in place. This means that the forger has trouble matching the paper ink, or writing materials to the exact date it was supposed to have been written.
c. anachronism
97
98. The following are the scientific methods in QDE, except:
a. analysis
b. comparison
c. evaluation
d. conclusion
d. conclusion
98
99. Refers to properties or marks, elements or
qualities which serve to distinguish known as the
basis of identification.
b. individual characteristics
99
100. This is the opposite of ascender, the lower portion of a letter.
c. descender
100
LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES
101
1. Are short vertical lines placed normally about one- eight of an inch below a descending stroke of the cardio tracing at exactly the beginning and the end of a stimulus (asking a question) insertion.
d. stimulus mark
102
2. This is a question deals with the matter under
investigation. It is designed to generate reactions
from deceptive subject.
d. relevant question
103
3. It is a water-based ink intended for polygraph
instruments.
b. capillary ink
104
4. In polygraph examination, the examiner must
wait for before asking the first question in order to
record the normal pattern of the subject.
d. 15 to 20 seconds
105
5. What shall be done every after the taking of each
chart? The examiner shows the recorded result to the
subject with a brief explanation as to the significance
of the recorded reactions.
d. chart probing
106
6. Generally used at the beginning of polygraph
technique to establish a ‘norm’ for examinee, or
throughout the examination as needed to reestablish norm pattern.
b. irrelevant question
107
7. To the polygraph examiner, ___________generally means the type of cardio, pneumo and galvo tracings produced by the subject’s body on a moving chart prior to the insertions of relevant question or
stimulus.
b. norm
108
8. The following are the cardiograph tracings Which may be considered indicative of deception, except:
a. increase or decrease in blood pressure
b. double saddle response
c. increase or decrease in pulse rate
d. increase or decrease in amplitude
b. double saddle response
109
9. An unusually fast heart rate, accompanied by a large amplitude which uniformly rises and falls, normally is in conjunction with a labored respiratory tracing, known as:
a. vagus roll
109
10. Post-test interview involves taking of the subject’s consent to undergo polygraph examination.
d. false
110
11. The following are the effects of Stimulant Drugs on
the Cardiograph Tracings:
a. increase in blood pressure
b. increase in pulse rate
c. increase in heartbeat rate
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
111
12. This is the pneumatic connection for upper
(thoracic) pneumograph.
a. pneumo 1
112
13. It is the popular but misleading name of the
polygraph.
c. lie detector
113
14. Under the general rules in formulating test
questions in polygraph examination, the questions formed must be simple and direct. They must involve legal terminologies.
d. false
114
15. This is the hormonal stimulator of the
sympathetic nervous system. It acts to constrict
peripheral blood flow, raise blood pressure, increase cardiac activity, promote metabolic activity through the release of glucose, and inhibit digestive processes. It is called Adrenaline in British.
c. Homeostasis
115
16. It is an emotional response to scientific danger that appears to beyond a person defensive power.
c. fear
116
17. A ____________indicating that the subject
answers the stimulus with “no”.
d. negative sign
117
18. It is an act of discovery existence, pressure or fact of something hidden or obscure/unknown.
a. detection
118
19. This is a process that encompasses all activities that take place between a polygraph examiner and an examinee during a specific series of interactions.
a. polygraph examination
119
20. No polygraph test can be effectively employed on a unwilling subject. The charts derived there from would be indicative more of bodily movements, silence and anger rather than an objective basis for an opinion of lying; hence, voluntary consent is essential.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
a. true
120
21. It consists of finger electrode plate with retainer bonds and connecting flog.
b. galvanograph
121
22. Reactive methods used to detect those efforts an examinee has engaged in while trying to defeat the PDD examination.
c. counter-counter measures
122
23. A test question in which the examinee is asked about a particular piece of physical evidence that would incriminate the guilty person. It could be items left at the crime scene by the perpetrator or stolen
property.
b. evidence-connecting question
123
24. This is a lie made by persons who cannot
distinguish right from wrong. It must be said those persons are mentally sick, or of low mental caliber.
c. pathological lie
124
25. The drug used as truth serum in lie detection is:
c. hyoscine hydrobromide
125
26. A deviation in polygraph tracing attributable to a physiological phenomenon occurring as a
compensatory action after a response or an artifact.
a. recovery
126
27. A test of personality and mental function in which the subject is required to respond to each of a series of words with the first word that comes to mind or with a word of a specified class of words
b. word association test
127
28. The pre-test interview involves informing the
subject of his Constitutional Rights ONLY IF the
examiner is a law enforcement officer.
c. true
128
29. These are markings which are placed only if the examinee does something which will cause the physiological tracings to distort. These markings are usually placed below the affected tracing.
c. secondary markings
129
30. It is the incorrect decision by the polygraph
examiner that deception was practiced by the
examinee.
d. false positive
130
31. What is a test that measures electrical activity in the brain using small, metal discs attached to the scalp and is being proposed to be used for lie detection?
a. electroencephalogram
131
32. A polygraph instrument that directly records the responses of the subject on a piece of chart.
c. analog polygraph
132
33. This is designed to absorb the response generated by the introduction of relevant question in the series.
c. sacrifice relevant question
133
34. This phase is the actual conduct of the test
administered by a polygraph examiner.
b. in-test
134
35. As a whole, this refers to all questions that appear on the polygram between test commencement and test termination.
b. question string
135
36. It refers to the response given by the subject
which considered a deviation from the normal
tracing or norms of the subject.
b. specific response
136
37. The polygraph examination room should at least be _________soundproof.
d. 90%
137
38. Which of the following is used to indicate the
amount of air pressure inflated to the system.
Usually about 60 mm of mercury for male subject?
b. sphygmamonometer
138
39. The test used by the insurance company for them to know if there’s fraud or manipulation.
d. claim verification test
139
40. A lie that is told when it is clear to those concerned that it is untruthful.
c. bold-face lie
140
41. A test where the subject is instructed not to give any verbal answer, the subject will only answer in his mind.
c. silent answer test
141
42. A ___________which indicates that the subject
answers the question with “yes”.
c. positive sign
142
43. A phase in the polygraph exam which determines the subject’s physical, mental and psychological suitability to undergo the test.
a. pre-test interview
143
44. Lies aimed at amusing the listener and any intent to deceive is transient or teasing.
d. humorous lie
144
45. These are markings which indicate the beginning and end of examination as well as the questions and answers of the subject. These are usually placed at the bottom or top of the polygraph chart.
b. primary markings
145
46. An effort to mask emotional response by adapting a "poker face”. Psychoanalysts and other professionals may display relatively little response in their efforts to appear nonjudgmental of the patient's or client's
statements.
c. neutralization
146
47. It is a question that has no connection with the matter under investigation and deals with known facts that the subject cannot be denied.
b. irrelevant question
147
48. During the pre-test interview, the following are true, except:
a. the subject, if female, may be pregnant and
may undergo the test
b. the subject should not be physically or emotionally abused
c. the subject should not be suffering high blood or hypertension
d. none of the above
a. the subject, if female, may be pregnant and
may undergo the test
148
49. They are those who continually lies as their habit. They feel discomfort of being truthful because lying makes them feel right.
c. compulsive liars
149
50. This symbol indicates the start of the test. The examiner informs the subject that the test is about to begin.
a. X
150
51. Those who love to lie and are excited by the
challenge of not being detected. For them an interview is a contest that they want to win; they realize that they will probably be convicted but will not give anyone the satisfaction of hearing them confess.
d. tournament liars
151
52. A type of Peak of Tension Test which is used to determine details of a crime that are not known to officials, such as the location of an unrecovered body, but would be known to a participant in the crime.
a. searching peak of question test
152
53. These are expressions made by the body to try to hide the truth. This is a non-verbal clue of
deception.
b. emblems
153
54. This is a freewheeling string of stainless beads with a hook which fastens the pneumographic tube unto subject’s chest or stomach.
c. beaded chain
154
55. This refers to any person who undergoes polygraph examination.
a. subject
155
56. It is a comparison question in which the examinee is instructed by the examiner to answer the questions untruthfully.
c. directed lie comparison question
156
57. Finger electrodes are the special types of sensitive metal plate to be attached to the subject’s end joints of________________ for the recording of the electrical charges (ohms) from the brain through the skin.
a. little fingers of both hands
b. index fingers of both hands
c. ring finger of left hand
d. both index and ring fingers
d. both index and ring fingers
157
58. A type of reliability in polygraph examination which denotes agreement among different examiners.
d. interrater reliability
158
59. Change in the polygraph tracings caused by artifact stimulus.
c. distortion
159
60. Interrogation is conducted when the reactions show sign of deception and being uncooperative to open an information.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
c. true
160
61. For a valid polygraph examination to exist,
respiration, EDA, and Cardiovascular activity must be
monitored and recorded.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
c. true
161
62. He is someone who has successfully completed formal education and training in conducting polygraph examination and is certified by his agency to conduct such examination.
c. polygraph examiner
162
63. It is the act of deceiving or misleading usually
accompanied by lying.
a. deception
163
64. It refers to the downward blood pressure
representing the low pressure to the closing of the valves and heart relaxed.
d. diastolic blood pressure
164
65. It refers to human body phenomenon in which the skin changes resistance electrically upon the application of certain external stimuli. Also referred to a Psycho galvanic skin reflex or galvanic skin response.
c. electrodermal response
165
66. This is the act of uttering or conveying
falsehood or creating a false or misleading
impression with the intention of affecting
wrongfully.
b. lying
166
67. Pre-test Interview usually last for about:
a. 20 – 30 minutes
167
68. This refers to any activity or inhibition of
a previous activity of an organism or part of
the organism resulting from stimulation.
c. normal response
168
69. It refers to any force or motion coming from
the environment and which reach an organism
has the tendency to arouse.
c. stimulus
168
70. This is the upward blood pressure as the apex of the curve caused by the contraction of the heart, valves are open and blood is rushing into the arteries.
a. systolic blood pressure
169
71. This is a judicial practiced by which the guilt or innocence of the accused is determined by subjectingthem to an unpleasant, usually dangerous experience
or in the present term would mean an employment
of “ 3
rd degree”.
c. trial by ordeal
170
72. In 1892, an instrument to be used for medical examinations with the capability to simultaneously record undulated line tracings of the vascular pulses (radial, venous and arterial), by way of a stylus onto a revolving drum of smoked paper.
a. clinical polygraph
171
73. A lie which accompanies pretensions
and hypocrisies, intriguing to cause
dishonor or discredit one’s good image.
b. black lie
171
74. One of the tripod foundations which states that polygraph is capable of making graphic record containing reliable information regarding
physiological responses of the subject.
c. mechanical leg premise
172
75. Under the psychophysiology of lying, this body system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord.
d. central nervous system
173
76. It is the complex interactive regulatory system by which the body strives to maintain a state of internal equilibrium.
c. Homeostasis
174
77. The following are the three stereotypic behavioral
responses to threat, sometimes simply called F3,
except:
a. Fight
b. flight
c. freeze
d. freight
d. freight
175
78. This is designed to detect and record changes in respiration of the subject.
b. pneumograph
176
79. The polygraph chart is approximately___________ rolled graph paper with approximately 1⁄4 inch horizontal division and 1⁄2 inch vertical division equivalent to 5 seconds run.
a. 100 ft.
177
80. Statement 1: The questions in polygraph
examination must refer to one offense only.
Statement 2: They must contain inference to one’s religion, race or belief.
a. Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
b. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
c. both statements are true
b. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
178
81. The subject must refrain from the use of alcohol, sedatives, prohibited drugs and other cold syrups or capsules for at least _________prior to the test.
d. 12 hours
179
82. The following are the purposes of irrelevant
question, except:
a. establish the professional authority in the room that means, the examiner asks questions and the suspect answers.
b. it allows the examiner to assess the subject’s normal behavior for this heightened emotional situation.
c. allows the examiner to identify something he has in common with the subject, to establish rapport.
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
180
83. “Do you believe me when I promised not to ask a question in this test I have not gone over word for word?” is what type of question?
a. symptomatic question
181
84. This question is designed to probe whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity of the offender or the facts of the case under question.
a. guilty knowledge question
182
85. This test consists of only one relevant and a series of irrelevant questions.
a. peak of question test
183
86. It is the scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of a polygraph instrument.
b. polygraphy
184
87. This is used primarily for overly responsive subjects. Consists of a totally fictitious incident but a similar nature to the matter being investigated and make him
believe it is real.
b. guilt complex test
185
88. These are unconscious expressions that surface as the limbic part of our brain sort, gather and assess information.
88. These are unconscious expressions that surface as
the limbic part of our brain sort, gather and assess
information.
186
89. What is the primary objective of the post test
interview?
b. to obtain confession
187
90. A type of polygraph test which involves specific case investigation.
d. diagnostic exam
188
91. This is an interview conducted by the polygraph examiner designed to prepare or condition the subject for the actual test.
a. pre-test interview
189
92. The following are true about the required
conditions of the polygraph examination room, except:
a. well lighted
b. well ventilated
c. sound Proof
d. well decorated
d. well decorated
190
93. In the polygraph examination post-test phase, what is conducted when the reactions indicate an innocent response and cooperative to the examiner?
b. interview
191
94. They are those who lie in order to avoid the
consequences of confession. They are afraid of
embarrassment and they believe that confession will just make the matter worse.
b. panic liars
192
95. These are annotations of the physiologic tracings to denote stimulus (question) onset and offset, examinee’s answer, question number, question label, artifacts, and other details important to the interpretation of the physiological data.
a. chart markings
192
96. A test which consists primarily of series of
irrelevant questions and relevant question pertainingto the crime under investigation. This was developed by Keeler.
a. relevant/irrelevant test
193
97. The __________________is asserted to be a
voice-mediated lie detector.
c. psychological stress evaluator
194
98. This is a stimulus mark. The first vertical line
marks when the examiner starts asking question. Second vertical line marks when the examiner finishes asking question.
b. I
195
99. Positive or negative signs are still placed when the subject fails to answer or when “Silent Answer Test” (SAT) is conducted.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
a. true
196
100. Class of countermeasures in which the examinee
attempts to affect the polygraph recordings through
self-manipulation of attention, memory and emotion
like hypnosis and thought control.
d. cognitive countermeasures
197
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
198
1. This treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving
the muzzle of the gun barrel.
d. exterior ballistics
199
2. This is a device for storing cartridges in a
repeating firearm for loading into the chamber.
b. magazine
200
3. What is propelled from the barrel and out of the gun by powder gasses?
b. projectiles
201
4. Instances when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used, except:
a. contact fire
b. acute angular approach of the bullet
c. deformity of the bullet
d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the
subject
d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the
subject
202
5. It is the science of mechanics that deals with
the flight, behavior and effects of projectiles
especially bullet, gravity bombs, rockets or the
like.
b. ballistics
203
6. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of entry in gunshot wound produce:
a. tattooing
b. stippling
c. peppering
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
204
7. Which of the following is the characteristic of a
gunshot wound of exit?
a. contusion collar
b. tattooing or smudging
c. wound larger than the bullet
d. edges of the wound are inverted
c. wound larger than the bullet
205
8. A dead person was found with a contact gunshot wound in the right temple and the fatal gun tightly gripped by the right hand. Such condition is called:
c. cadaveric spasm
206
9. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together with graphite
which came out from the muzzle. It is responsible for the tattooing around the gunshot wound of entrance.
b. powder grains
207
10. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
c. slug
208
11. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
a. true
b. false
c. partially true
d. partially false
a. true
209
12. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore
of a fired firearm are always_________.
b. the same
210
13. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
b. trigger
211
14. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the automatic withdrawal of the case after each firing.
b. extractor groove
212
16. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
b. pistol
212
15. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
d. Sulphur
213
17. The term cartridge is derived from the word
“charta”, the Latin word for ____.
d. paper
214
18. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer “flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. flash hole
b. vent
c. cannelures
d. a or b
d. a or b
215
19. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. depth of grooves
215
20. The gun powder is otherwise known
as_____________.
a. powder charge
b. propellant
c. pulbura
d. a & b
d. a & b
215
21. It is the result of the critical study of the specimens submitted,
conducted by the Firearm Examiner, usually with the use of Bullet
Comparison Microscope.
a. ballistics report
216
22. These are used in cases such in sending
signals and enabling to see enemies in the dark.
d. flare guns
217
25. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from the firing pin.
b. anvil
217
23. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist
_________.
c. to the right & left
217
24. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the bullet, gunpowder and primer.
a. bullet
b. cartridge case
c. shell
d. b or c
d. b or c
218
26. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are
of_______.
a. bottleneck type
219
27. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
b. base
219
29. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of
projectile by means of the expansive force of gases
coming from the burning gunpowder.
b. firearm
219
28. This (also called as propellant or power charge) is the mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile by means of its expensive force of gas when burned.
b. gunpowder
220
31. This is the part of cartridge which when ignited is converted to high pressure and propels the bullet or shot through the barrel and on the target.
b. gunpowder
220
30. The firearm leaves its “fingerprints” or “thumb mark” on every cartridge case which it fires.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
c. true
221
32. This is the study of the projectiles behavior when it leaves the barrel and the pressure behind the projectile is equalized.
d . transition/intermediate ballistic
222
33. This refers to the diameter of the barrel on a
shotgun in terms of the number of lead balls the
size of the bore it would take to weigh one pound
c. gauge
222
34. What is meant by the Greek word ballo or ballien?
c. to throw
223
35. It is the method of viewing fired bullet and shell in the bullet comparison microscope where the specimens are compared side by side.
a. Juxtaposition
223
36. What is the factor that affects the bullet drops to the ground?
c. gravity
224
37. It refers to the helical lines cut in the interior bore
of the gun barrel.
c. rifling
225
38. What is the portion of the gun that holds the
cartridge ready for firing?
d. chamber
226
39. The following are the basis for conclusive positive
identification of firearm evidences, EXCEPT:
a. consistent
b. significant
c. parallel
d. prominent
c. parallel
226
40. This is due to the passage of bullet at the spiral
landings and grooving of the barrel.
b. spinning movement
227
41. Most firearms have some type of designed
to minimize the potential for accidental discharge.
c. safety
227
42. At the crime scene, is it proper to note down
where the empty shells, bullets and/ or firearms
were found and make a diagram to illustrate the
same to show their relative distances from the
body of the victim?
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
a. yes
228
43. It the primary fracture resembles the spokes of a
wheel radiating outward from the point of impact.
228
45. In a given cartridge, where to find the name of manufacturer?
b. head stamp
229
44. It is the chemical wear and tear of the inside of the gun barrel due to rust formation or chemical reaction by the products of combustion after firing.
B. corrosion
230
46. The firearm examiner's job usually involves the inspection of submitted firearms functionality to determine if __________is possible.
d. accidental discharge
230
47. Under RA 10591, there class of firearm refer to self-loading pistols, rifles and carbines, submachine guns, assault rifles and light machine guns not exceeding caliber 7.62MM which have fully automatic mode.
a. class a light weapon
231
48. It is a branch of ballistics which study shotgun ammunition including its characteristics spread and trailing.
a. shot ballistics
232
51. This procedure is to obtain standard bullet and shell that will compare to the evidence.
a. test firing
232
49. It is an energy generated at the muzzle point,
whenever the cartridge explodes from a firearm.
c. muzzle blast
233
50. The diameter of the rim is equal with the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
b. rimless type
234
52. Conclusions reached in a bullet comparison will NOT include the following.
a. inconclusive identification
b. positive identification
c. personal identification
d. negative identification
c. personal identification
234
53. If class characteristics between an ammunition component and a firearm are in agreement the next step in the examination process would be to look for:
b. individual characteristics
234
54. By holding the nose of the bullet pointing far from your eyes, the direction of rifling impressions run______ from you determines the direction of twist.
d. away
235
55. In a given bullet, what are the details to be
determined by firearm examiner?
a. caliber
236
56. This is defined as the science of motion of
projectiles.
b. ballistics
236
58. What is the reason why the markings cannot be placed on the base of a cartridge case?
c. to preserve the firing pin marks
236
59. What is the importance of trajectory in investigation
of a shooting incidence?
b. to identify the position of firer and victim
236
57. What is meant by MAC rule?
a. mutilate-alter-contaminate
237
60. Interior ballistics involves the following reactions, EXCEPT:
a. pressure developed
b. recoil of the gun
c. ignition of the priming mixture
d. muzzle blast
d. muzzle blast
237
62. The movement or action of projectiles launched from firearms is called:
d. motions
237
61. The metallic or non-metallic objects propelled from
a firearm.
b. projectiles
238
63. From the release of the firing pin to the moment the sound of the shot can be heard as it leaves the muzzle occupies only about 0.01 seconds, in a modern rifle, is the sequence in:
c. interior ballistics
239
64. Things involved in interior ballistics, except:
a. Ignition of primer
b. Flames is produced
c. Combustion of the gunpowder
d. Effect of bullet on the target
d. Effect of bullet on the target
239
65. This is the greater distance a projectile can travel when fired at the optimum angle of elevation of the barrel.
d. maximum range
239
66. As applied to ballistics, or to any other subject,
suggest a relationship to Courts of Justice and legal
proceedings.
c. forensic
240
67. In Section 877 Revised Administrative Code and Section 290 of National Internal Revenue Code, the barrel of any firearm shall be considered a complete firearm.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
c. true
241
71. A type of cartridge in which the primer cup forced into the middle portion of the head of the cartridge case.
d. center- fire cartridge
241
68. What do you call the firearms that have no rifling (lands and grooves) inside their gun barrel?
a. smooth bore firearms
241
69. It refers to those types of firearms that propels projectile with more than one-inch diameter.
c. artillery
242
70. The diameter of the rim is greater than the
diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
a. rimmed type
243
72. This bullet contains a mixture such as phosphorous or other materials, that can be set on fire by impact. They are used against target that will burn readily such as aircraft.
b. incendiary bullets
243
73. It is the metallic or non- metallic tabular container usually made of brass (70% copper and 30% zinc); it is designed to unite the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into one unit.
a. cartridge case
b. shell
c. casing
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
243
74. Functions of the cartridge case, except;
a. It holds the bullet, gunpowder and primer assembled into one unit
b. It serves as a waterproof container for the gun
powder
c. It prevents the escape of the gases to the rear as the sidewalls of the cartridge case are forced against the walls of the chamber by the pressure.
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
244
75. This is a type of cartridge commonly found
ammunitions for rifle.
a. tapered type
b. bottle- neck type
c. straight case
d. NOTA
b. bottle- neck type
245
77. This contains a small amount of explosive mixture which is sufficiently sensitive to result chemical reaction being set up by the caused by a sudden blow.
a. priming mixture
245
78. It is the science of analyzing firearms usage
in crimes. It involves analysis of bullets and
bullets impact to determine information of use to a court or other part of legal system.
a. forensic ballistics
245
76. It is the assembly which ignite the propellant. It consists of a brass or guiding-metal cup that contains a primer composition pellet of sensitive explosive, a paper disk (foil), and a brass anvil.
a. primer
246
79. It is the process by which an object moves
through an atmosphere by generating
aerodynamic lift and propulsive thrust using
buoyancy or by ballistic movement without any
direct solid mechanical support from the ground.
a. flight
247
80. This is the path that a moving object follows
through space as a function of time.
b. trajectory
247
82. The deposits of unburned powder residue in
the bore of a gun is called:
a. fouling
247
83. What is the metal tube through which the
bullet is fired?
a. barrel
248
81. This involves analyzing firearm, ammunition
and tool mark evidence in order to establish
whether a certain firearm or tool was used in the
commission of a crime.
c. ballistic fingerprinting
249
84. A type of bullet in which the front is flattened.
d. wad-cutter
250
85. It is the portion of the gun which is held or
shouldered.
d. butt
250
87. This is a synonym for a handgun that does not
have a revolving cylinder.
d. pistol
250
86. This is the diameter of the bore measured
from land to land, usually expressed in hundredths
of an inch (.22 cal) or in millimeters (9mm).
a. caliber
251
88. What is the escaping of gases past a fired
bullet while the bullet is still in the barrel?
d. blowby
252
92. This are the collection and cataloging of test-
fired bullets and cartridge cases from known
firearms. Also known as Fired standards.
c. known standards
252
91. It is a discipline of forensic science which has
as its primary concern to determine if a bullet,
cartridge case, or other ammunition component
was fired by a particular firearm.
b. firearms identification
252
90. This is a plastic, paper or fiber disk used to
keep ammunition components in place or
separated.
b. wads
253
89. The air that is compressed and moves out
spherically from a firearm’s muzzle after firing a
projectile.
d. muzzle wave
254
93. This is a portion of a firearm's mechanism
which pulls the cartridge case from the chamber.
a. extractor
254
94. This is essentially two microscopes
connected to an optical bridge which allows the
viewer to observe two objects simultaneously
with the same degree of magnification.
c. comparison microscope
255
95. These may be in any form, since the name has been applied to all homemade guns. A great many of this class will be found to be exceedingly clever mechanisms and most effective weapon.
a. zip guns
256
96. Shall mean loaded shell rifle, muskets,
carbine, shotguns, revolver and pistol from which a bullet, ball, shot, shell or other missiles may be fore by means of a gun powder or other
explosives.
a. ammunition
257
97. This is a bullet made from paraffin and other
wax preparation usually used for short range
indoor target shooting.
c. wax bullet
258
98. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural tendency is to go straight toward before encountering the regular rifling twist. This is called:
b. skid marks
259
99. This deals with the destructive actions and effects that occur at the end of the projectiles flight as an integral and un-deformed body and may end in one of these: the projectile may strike a solid obstruction, or Its metal case may be broken by the explosion of a bursting charge.
c. terminal ballistics
260
100. Every bullet leaves its thumb marks on every barrel which is fired through it, just as every breech face leaves its thumb marks on the base of every fired cartridge case.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
d. false
