CORAD 1 AND 3 Flashcards

1
Q

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS

A
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2
Q
  1. The study of punishment for crime or of criminal offenders. It includes the study of control and prevention of crime through punishment of criminal offenders.
A

B. Penology

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3
Q
  1. The following are justification of punishment,
    EXCEPT
    A. Retribution
    B. Happiness
    C. Deterrence
    D. Atonement
A

B. Happiness

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3
Q
  1. What statement BEST describes Punishment in
    general?
    A. It is the redress that the State takes
    against an Offending member.
    B. It is an infliction of pain to A member of the
    society
    C. It is a government remedy To correct a
    wrong.
    D. It is a human suffering Inflicted to an
    individual.
A

A. It is the redress that the State takes
against an Offending member.

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4
Q
  1. What is considered as the period of golden age of penology?
A

B. 1870 – 1880

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5
Q
  1. It is the period of recognizing human dignity. It is the movement of reformation, period of introduction of certain reforms in the correctional field by certain person, gradually changing the old positive philosophy of punishment to a more humane treatment of prisoners with innovational programs or development of correctional systems
A

a. Age of Reason

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6
Q
  1. The penalty imposed for offenders must be
    personal. This means that
A

A. The guilty one must be the one to be
punished, no proxy

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7
Q
  1. It is the infliction of physical pain as a form of
    punishment
A

B. Corporal Punishment

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8
Q
  1. Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of
    uttering insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of prisoners.
A

A. Social Degradation

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9
Q
  1. Which ancient form of punishment is also known as “fusillading”?
A

D. Firing squad

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10
Q
  1. The fort William mc Kinley in fort Bonifacio which was Converted on June 30, 1968 to a prison was intended To ______.
A

D. Incarcerate offenders who violated military
laws

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11
Q
  1. The most common problem of the National prison is
A

B. Excessive number of inmates

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12
Q
A
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13
Q
  1. What is the description of the united nation
    standard minimum rules for the treatment of
    prisoners about solitary confinement?
A

D. Confinement of prisoner for 22 hours or
more a day without human contact

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14
Q
  1. Select the courts and other entitles that may
    commit a person to jail.
    I. Supreme court
    II. Court of appeals
    III. Ombudsman
    IV. Sandiganbayan
    V. Congress
    A. I, II, IV, V
    B. II, III, IV, V
    C. I, II, IV, V
    D. I, III, IV, V
A

A. I, II, IV, V

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15
Q
  1. Kuko Martin was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at the Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics?
    a. He is an actor and photogenic
    b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
    c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
    d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
    reception procedure
A

d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
reception procedure

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16
Q
  1. The BJMP was created thru___ as one of the tri- bureau under DILG.
A

C. Sec 60, RA 6975

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17
Q
  1. Mark was arrested by the police for robbery. He was brought to the police station and an
    administrative record of the arrest was prepared. He was fingerprinted, photographed, interrogated and placed in a line-up for identification by witnesses.
    What process did he undergo?
A

b. Booking

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18
Q
  1. Roberto is a newly arrived inmate in the BJMP, he was placed in shakedown procedure. Who among the following shall be responsible in the custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior to his detention?
A

C. Property Custodian Officer

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19
Q
  1. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is what type of offense?
A

b. Less grave offense

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20
Q
  1. Which among the following is the chairman of prison classification and board of discipline in the BJMP?
    A. Superintendent
    B. Assistant Warden
    C. Deputy warden
    D. Both B&C
A

D. Both B&C

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21
Q
  1. Which disciplinary sanctions can be imposed on inmates?
    A. Payment of fees to the office of the warden
    B. Forfeiture of salaries and wages earned
    C. Cancellation of telephone calls
    D. Cancellation of some or all recreational
    privileges
A

D. Cancellation of some or all recreational
privileges

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22
Q
  1. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be
    between ___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been proven ineffective.
A

B. 1-7 Days

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23
Q
  1. Under the rules, bureau of corrections head
    counts of inmates are conducted how many times?
A

A. 4 times a day

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24
Q
  1. In case an inmate has given disciplinary action,
    the board of discipline is authorized to impose any of
    the following disciplinary measures, EXCEPT
    A. Additional penalty for service of sentence
    B. Caution or reprimand
    C. Cancellation of recreation, education,
    entertainment, and visiting privileges
    D. Deprivation of GCTA for a specific period
A

A. Additional penalty for service of sentence

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25
Q
A
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25
Q
  1. If Ryan is sentenced to serve a prison of not over three years, what type of prisoner is he?
A

A. Municipal prisoner

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26
Q
  1. Provincial jails are under the management,
    administration and control of their respective
    provincial governments wherein inmates who are serving sentences from _____ are confined in these jails.
A

D. 6 months and 1 day to 3 years

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27
Q
  1. Jay is an offender who is committed to the jail or prison in order to serve his sentence after final conviction of a competent court is known as
A

b. Sentenced prisoner

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following are classified as detention prisoner?
  2. Accused person who is confined in jail while
    undergoing criminal probe
  3. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
    convicted
  4. Accused person who is confined in jail while
    undergoing trial
  5. Accused person who is confined in jail while
    awaiting final judgment
    a. 2, 3 and 4
    b. 4, 1 and 2
    c. 1, 2 and 3
    d. 3, 4 and 1
A

d. 3, 4 and 1

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29
Q
  1. What is the main purpose of placing an inmate in the directorate for reception and diagnostic?
A

A. Evaluation and classification

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30
Q
  1. Under the BUCOR manual operation, how long should an inmate stay at the RDC and he should be due for transfer to designated camp?
A

B. 60 days

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31
Q
  1. A writ ordering the temporary confinement of a person in penal institution while undergoing trial.
A

b. Commitment order

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32
Q
  1. During the reception of an inmate with his
    documents before entering the jail or prison, the
    committing officer should check the body of the
    inmate for any birth marks or tattoos and other body marks. What category of search should be conducted by the officer?
A

b. Strip Search

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33
Q
  1. When actor Jhong Go was arrested and put in a correctional facility, what will be his inmate security classification?
A

B. High profile inmates

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34
Q
  1. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection.
A

C. Sodium Thiopental

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35
Q
  1. These are the factors considered in diversification,
    EXCEPT
    A. Age of offenders
    B. Sex of offenders
    C. Mother of offender
    D. Medical condition
A

C. Mother of offender

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36
Q
  1. Juan Sipag is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time. He is classified as ____ among the classification of inmates according to privileges.
A

C. 2nd class inmate

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36
Q
A
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37
Q
  1. To be a ______, one must be at least a 1st class inmate and has serve one year immediately preceding the completion of the period specified in the following qualification: has served imprisonment with good
    conduct for at least 7 years in the case of life
    imprisonment.
A

D. Colonist

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38
Q
  1. In the classification of prisoners of the bureau of corrections, what are the categories of a medium security?
    I. Those inmates whose maximum is less than 20
    years
    II. Those inmates who are 18 years old
    III. Inmates whose sentence are above 20 years
    IV. Those under disciplinary punishment or
    safekeeping
    A. I, III, IV
    B. II, IV
    C. I, II
    D. I, II, III
A

C. I, II

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39
Q
  1. Those inmates who have 2 or more records of escapes but they have served 8 years since they recommitted should be classified as
A

B. Medium security prisoners

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40
Q
  1. When the penalty is imprisonment, the sentence is carried out either in the municipal, provincial, or national penitentiary depending on
A

D. The length of the sentence meted out

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41
Q
  1. The superintendent of the prison may authorize an inmate to be taken out of prison in the following instances, EXCEPT
    A. Conjugal visit of the male inmate to the CIW
    B. To appear in court or other government agency as
    directed by competent authority
    C. For medical examination/ treatment or
    hospitalization in an outside clinic or hospital
    D. To view the remains of a deceased relative
    (furlough)
A

A. Conjugal visit of the male inmate to the CIW

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42
Q
  1. How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from going out?
A

C. 60 Days

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43
Q
  1. Who is the 4th in command in BUCOR?
    A. Deputy Director for Administration
    B. Deputy Director for Security and Operations
    C. Corrections Chief Superintendent
    D. None of the above
A

A. Deputy Director for Administration

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44
Q
  1. When a jail break, escape, or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately
A

A. Sound the alarm

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45
Q
  1. In case of mass jail break, all members of the
    custodial force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to
A

A. Plug off the escape routes

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46
Q
  1. Whenever a riot or escape alarm is sounded by siren, bell or gunfire, all prisoners shall be order to
A

B. Lie flat on the ground, face down and with
arms and legs spread out of the body

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47
Q
  1. It is an act of leaving from jail of an inmate
    through unofficial and illegal ways or without any legal order from the authorities.
A

B. Jail Escape

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48
Q
  1. Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and firearms?
A

D. Desk Officer / armorer

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49
Q
  1. Who composed of guards trained on proper
    handling and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in Command?
A

C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot

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50
Q
  1. How is an offender released from prison or jail?
  2. After service of sentence
  3. Issuance of order of the court
  4. Grant of parole
  5. Grant of pardon
  6. Grant of amnesty
  7. Any lawful order of competent authority
    a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
    b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
    c. 2,3,4,5, and 6
    d. All of those listed above
A

d. All of those listed above

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51
Q
  1. What is the minimum rank required to be
    appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A

C. Senior Superintendent

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52
Q
  1. Jack UL is a uniformed personnel of the BJMP
    with a rank of Jail Chief Inspector, who is the
    appointing officer of the aforementioned BJMP
    personnel?
A

D. Chief of BJMP

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53
Q
  1. Provincial jails were first established in 1910
    under American regime. At present, who supervises and controls the said jails?
A

B. Provincial government

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54
Q
A
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54
Q
  1. An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted of major offenses refers to
A

b. Prison

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55
Q
  1. The bureau of corrections shall maintain the
    custodial personnel-to-inmate ratio of 1:7 and the reformation personnel-to-inmate ratio of ______.
A

C. 1:24

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56
Q
  1. Work and livelihood personnel-to-inmate ratio?
A

A. 1:180

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57
Q
  1. During the eleventh and successive years of
    imprisonment, the good conduct of any offender or convicted prisoner qualified for credit for preventive imprisonment, shall entitle him for a deduction of ____days for each month of good behavior during detention
A

B. 30

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58
Q
  1. A deduction of ___ the period of his sentence
    shall be granted in case said prison stay in the place of his confinement notwithstanding the existence of a calamity or act enumerated in Article 158 of this Code.
A

B. two-fifth

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59
Q
  1. Who may grant good conduct time allowance
    (GCTA) to an inmate who displays good behavior and who has no record of breach of discipline or violation of prison rules?
A

C. Director of corrections

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60
Q
  1. In the case of BJMP, the grant of the time
    allowance shall be primarily vested with the
A

A. Director, BJMP

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61
Q
  1. Kai Sotto was convicted by final judgment to
    serve the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several inmates escaped. Jose returned the following day, how many years would be
    deducted from his sentence?
A

a. 4 years

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62
Q
  1. All except one may grant GCTA under RA 10592 to an inmate for good behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules and regulation.
A

C. President

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63
Q
  1. How many days will be deducted from an inmate for each month for his good behavior during his seventh year in prison or jail?
A

B. 25 days for each month of good behavior

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64
Q
  1. This refers to the act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another while under confinement:
A

A. Proselytizing

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65
Q
  1. Insan was sentenced to serve Prision Mayor.
    What is the duration of his penalty?
A

B. 6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years

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66
Q
  1. Tito failed to return within 48 hours after passing of calamity or disorder. Surrendered after 48 hours, shall also be charged with Art. 158 but must be given
A

D. Mitigating circumstance of voluntary
surrender

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67
Q
  1. This refers to any article, item, or thing prohibited by law that are unlawful in themselves.
A

b. Illegal Contraband

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68
Q
  1. An enemy combatant, high ranking official or a civilian in danger of capture or death, typically in possession of critical intelligence, data, or authority marked as an objective for a mission.
A

a. High Value Target

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69
Q
  1. This unit examines the completeness and
    authenticity of the requirements for commitment before it refers the inmate for physical examination by the health unit.
A

b. Records unit

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70
Q
  1. What is meant by “Hustling” inside the prison?
A

C. Selling of illegal commodities such as drugs,
alcohol and weapons

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71
Q
  1. Upon the start of the booking procedure, the
    inmate’s information shall be encoded to NIMS. NIMS stands for:
A

B. National Inmates Monitoring System

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72
Q
  1. The principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners that requires special treatment and custody is called:
A

C. Diversification

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73
Q
  1. Mark Villar committed a crime with a sentence of 20 years imprisonment. He is 18 years old. What is his security classification?
A

B. Medium

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74
Q
  1. What is the highest rank in BUCOR?
A

B. Undersecretary

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75
Q
  1. What is the highest position in BJMP?
A

D. Chief BJMP

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76
Q
  1. If a convict behaved well each month for the third to fifth year of imprisonment, how many days will be deducted from his prison term?
A

A. 828

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77
Q
  1. Appointing authority for Jail Senior
A

D. DILG Secretary

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78
Q
  1. A suffering inflicted to an individual for having been committed an offense.
A

a. Penalty

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79
Q
  1. Criminal liability is extinguished partially in the following except
    a. Conditional pardon
    b. Serving the sentence
    c. Commutation of the sentence
    d. For good conduct allowances which the culprit may earn while he is undergoing preventive imprisonment or serving his sentence
A

b. Serving the sentence

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80
Q
  1. The features of the prison system were
    confinement of the prisoners in these cells day and night.
A

a. Pennsylvania

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81
Q
  1. This prison system was considered more
    advantageous because it has been observed that prisoners finishes more articles when they work in groups than working alone in their individual cells.
A

a. Auburn System

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82
Q
  1. This Act shall be known as the “Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Management and Penology Professionalization Act of 2004.”
A

c. RA 9263

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83
Q
  1. A person who is accused before a court or
    competent authority and is temporarily confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial, or final judgment.
A

c. Detainee

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84
Q
  1. Which of the following is a place for the
    confinement of medium security prisoner?
A

a. Camp sampaguita

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85
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an authorized
    disciplinary actions/measures for detainees?
    a.Close confinement in a cell for a period not
    exceeding seven (7) days
    b.Reduction of visiting time
    c. Admonition or verbal reprimand
    d.Suspension of visiting privileges for a period
    not exceeding one (1) month
A

d.Suspension of visiting privileges for a period
not exceeding one (1) month

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86
Q
  1. The inmate shall not be allowed to stay more than how many hours in the place where the remains of the deceased relative lie in state?
A

b.3 hours

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87
Q
  1. The following are specific circumstances wherein prisoners or detainees may be moved or transferred EXCEPT.
    a.To appear, as witness before any court of justice or prosecutor’s office
    b.To appear as witness in any investigation or formal inquiry being conducted by a government agency
    c. To view the remains of a deceased relative
    d.To vote in national or local elections
A

d.To vote in national or local elections

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88
Q
  1. Is a search wherein the officer pats or squeezes the subject’s clothing to attempt to detect contraband.
A

a.Pat/Frisk Search

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89
Q
  1. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for medium security prison is.
A

b. Blue

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90
Q
  1. A temporary custody of a person for his own
    protection, safety or care, and that of the community from him.
A

d. Safekeeping

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91
Q
  1. Strip search should be conducted:
    a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses
    b. At the warden’s office
    c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel
    d. Private room where it will be out of the view
    of the others to avoid further embarrassment
A

d. Private room where it will be out of the view
of the others to avoid further embarrassment

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92
Q
  1. Body search of this type pats the subject’s body over the clothing in a more thorough manner where the genital, buttocks, and breasts are carefully searched for the presence of contraband.
A

d. Rub Search

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93
Q
  1. One of the important documents to be secured by the law enforcers before they remand the offender to the jail institution?
A

b. Commitment order

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94
Q
  1. Each jail is mandated to establish a Classification Board for Inmates. Who among the following serves as the Chairman of the Classification Board?
A

b. Deputy Warden

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95
Q
  1. In what instances the President of the Philippines can authorize release of an inmate?
    a. In parole and reprieve
    b. In cases of executive clemency
    c. In cases of acquittal or grant of bail
    d. Expiration of the sentence
A

b. In cases of executive clemency

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96
Q
  1. When does punishment have a deterrent effect?
    a. Punishment disgraces the offender before the
    public
    b. Punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
    c. Punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
    d. Punishment serves as an example to the
    public thus discouraging the commission of
    offense
A

d. Punishment serves as an example to the
public thus discouraging the commission of
offense

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97
Q
  1. Conjugal Visitation refers to the visit by the wife for a short period, usually
A

C. An hour, more or less

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98
Q
  1. Because he refused to follow the regulations placed on convicted prisoners, Mark, a new detainee, has been handed a “Certification” of preventive
    incarceration. The court found him guilty after ten years and sentenced him to 20 years in prison. How many more years does he have to spend after deducting his preventative imprisonment?
A

b. 12 years

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99
Q

NON INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS

A
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100
Q
  1. The concept of probation, from the Latin word
    “probatio” which means ___, has historical roots in he practice of judicial reprieve.
A

C. Testing period

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101
Q
  1. Probation started in ____ with the old practice of suspending judgement and releasing the offender on his own recognizing with the promise not to commit any more crime.
A

A. England

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101
Q
  1. Why was congressman Teodulo Natividad
    considered as the “father of probation in the
    Philippines”?
A

A. He initiated the drafting of a bill which
would establish a probation system

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102
Q
  1. In the Philippines, act number 4221 of the
    Philippine assembly established adult probation, but it was abolished in 1937 after two years of existence because it was declared unconstitutional in the case of
A

B. People vs Vera

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102
Q
  1. Why was Act 4221 declared unconstitutional?
    a. It violates the rights of probationers.
    b. It denies the equal protection of the laws and constitutes an unlawful delegation of legislative power.
    c. It provides danger for the society and its members by releasing the probationers earlier than what is provided for in the release document.
    d. None of the above
A

b. It denies the equal protection of the laws
and constitutes an unlawful delegation of
legislative power.

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103
Q
  1. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject to conditions imposed by the court?
A

b. Probation

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104
Q
  1. Which is not a mandate of the parole and
    probation administration under the probation law of 1976?
A

A. Provide an offender with individual
institutionalized program

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105
Q
  1. The application for probation shall be filed with the__which has jurisdiction over the case.
A

a. Trial Court

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106
Q
  1. From the date of conviction and sentence, when may an applicant for probation file the application for probation?
A

C. Within 15 days

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107
Q
  1. Which of the following situations can the offender apply for probation?
A

c. After conviction and sentence

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108
Q
  1. RTC Branch 69 received the post sentence
    investigation report, how long will the court should act in the petition for probation?
A

a. 15 days

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109
Q
  1. The order of the court granting or denying
    probation is appealable.
    a. True
    b. No
    c. Yes
    d. False
A

d. False

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110
Q
A
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111
Q
  1. Mark Villar was convicted of a crime and
    sentenced to an imprisonment term of 8 years, since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his case to a higher court. The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser penalty of six years. Can he apply now for probation?
    a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and
    1 day
    b. No, because he already appealed his case
    c. No, because he is disqualified
    d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non
    probationable and his 2nd sentence is a
    probationable offense.
A

d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non
probationable and his 2nd sentence is a
probationable offense.

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112
Q
  1. Juan Dela Cruz, after promulgation of his case by the RTC, was meted with a penalty of 5 years and 1 day to 6 years of imprisonment who, within 15 days from the date of promulgation, filed his appeal with the Court of Appeals for being not satisfied with the judgment of the lower court. Can he be granted
    probation once he applied?
    a. No, because the decision of the RTC is not final and executory.
    b. No, because he filed for an appeal.
    c. No, because he did not waive his right for an
    appeal.
    d. Yes, because he met the qualifications to apply for probation
A

b. No, because he filed for an appeal.

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113
Q
  1. Bote was found guilty of rape and applied for
    probation. Will you grant Probation as a Judge?
    A. Yes, as long as the penalty is 6 years and below.
    B. No, Because the Section 8, paragraph c
    stated that “Probation will depreciate the
    seriousness of the offense committed.”
    C. Yes, Because Bote has good faith to marry the
    rape victim.
    D. No, as provided by the Probation officer
A

B. No, Because the Section 8, paragraph c
stated that “Probation will depreciate the
seriousness of the offense committed.”

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114
Q
A
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114
Q
  1. When two or more accused are tried jointly and convicted and only one of them applied for probation. In case the latter’s application for probation is granted. Can the co-accused who has not applied also benefit from the granting of probation?
    a. Yes, as a general rule
    b. No, the granting of probation shall make the
    decision final to only those who applied
    c. It depends on the discretion of the Trial Court, as probation is only a privilege
    d. No, probation is only for the well privileged
A

b. No, the granting of probation shall make the
decision final to only those who applied

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115
Q
  1. The following are the functions of a Probation and Parole officer, except:
    a. Investigate court referrals for petitioners eligibility for probation
    b. Supervise probationers, parolees and pardonees
    c. Determine the grant or denial of probation
    d. Formulate plans and programs for the rehabilitation of the clientele
A

c. Determine the grant or denial of probation

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115
Q
  1. All of the following are the consequences of
    violating the conditions of probation, except:
    a. Revocation of the probation
    b. Modification of the conditions
    c. Suspension of probation
    d. None of these
A

c. Suspension of probation

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116
Q
  1. Pending submission of the Post-Sentence
    Investigation Report and the resolution of the petition
    for probation, the accused may be allowed .
    a. Temporary liberty under his/her bail
    b. Temporary suspension of his sentence
    c. Permanent liberty and be released from
    confinement
    d. Appeal his case to the next higher court
A

a. Temporary liberty under his/her bail

117
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is true about probation?
    a. Probation is a privilege, not a right
    b. Probation is a right, not a privilege
    c. Probation is granted by the Parole and Probation Officer
    d. Probationer refers to the person applying for
    probation
A

a. Probation is a privilege, not a right

118
Q
  1. The first probation law in the Philippines is.
A

a. Act no. 4221

119
Q
  1. It is a form authorizing the PPA and/or the
    Probation Office to secure any and all information on the petitioner, shall be duly executed and signed by him/her.
A

C. Waiver cum authorization

120
Q
  1. During the conduct of the PSI, _____ must be
    gathered from those persons who have direct
    personal knowledge of the petitioner, offended party family members, and/or their relatives.
A

d.Collateral information

121
Q
  1. The sentence of Mr. Right was promulgated by the RTC Naga in relation to a crime he committed. Should Mr. Right decide to apply for probation, how many days is given for him to file his petition?
A

a. 15 days

122
Q
  1. What is the attribute of post-sentence
    investigation on the part of the court in giving a
    decision whether to deny or grant probation?
A

A. Mandatory

123
Q
A
124
Q
  1. What kind of report is intended to assist the court in determining whether or not the ends of justice and the best interest of the public as well as the applicant will be served by the grant or denial of probation?
A

B. Post-sentence investigation

125
Q
A
125
Q
  1. Who shall assign the conduct of post-sentence investigation to an investigating probation officer?
A

A. The chief probation and parole officer

126
Q
  1. What will happen to the sentence of the offender who has been granted probation?
A

b. Sentence will be suspended

127
Q
  1. This pillar or component of our criminal justice system has been regarded as the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate recidivism and habitual offenders.
A

d. Correction

128
Q
  1. Under the law, the probation officer shall submit to the court the investigation report on a defendant not later than
A

D. 60 days from receipt of the order

129
Q
  1. It is an investigation from another city or
    provincial parole and probation office which requests for a complete post-sentence investigation report on the petition for probation.
A

a. Full blown courtesy investigation

130
Q
  1. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that
    I. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
    that can be provided effectively by his confinement to
    an institution
    II. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the
    offense committed
    III. There is undue risk that during the probation the
    offender will commit another crime
    IV. Probation will appreciate the seriousness of the
    offense committed
    A. II, III, IV
    B. II, IV
    C. I, III, ll, lV
    D. I, II, III
A

D. I, II, III

131
Q
  1. Miguelito is a teacher, who committed a crime
    and sentence to a prison of term 8 years and 1 day to
    12 years, is Miguelita qualified to apply probation?
    A. Yes, because Miguelita is female offender
    B. Yes, because her sentence is below 12 years
    C. No, because Miguelita is a teacher
    D. No, because his sentence is above 6 years
A

D. No, because his sentence is above 6 years

132
Q
  1. Raul, convicted of crime having penalty of arresto mayor, and he applies for probation and consequently granted by the court, how long would be the probation?
A

D. Not more than 2 years

133
Q
  1. A person under the supervision of probationer
    officer shall report for how many times per month?
A

A. Once

134
Q
  1. Once a serious violation of a probation condition has been established in the hearing, the trial court may
    A. Revoke the probation and shall order the probation officer on case to submit the probation administrative file to the court within 72 hours for safekeeping
    B. Order the conduct of full blown investigation to determine the surrounding circumstances of violation of probation and impose the necessary sanction to the probationer
    C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s
    probation or modification of the probation
    condition or revoke his probation whichever is
    proper and just under judicial discretion
    D. Place the probationer on a watch list in
    coordination with the probation officer to prevent him
    from leaving the country or evade his sentence.
A

C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s
probation or modification of the probation
condition or revoke his probation whichever is
proper and just under judicial discretion

135
Q
  1. What will happen if the probation is revoked by the Court?
    A. The probationer shall be ordered to serve the
    remaining sentence inside jail
    B. The judge will give his decision on the case filed against the probationer
    C. The court will advise the prosecutor to review the case for reference
    D. The probationer shall be ordered to serve
    the original sentence imposed
A

D. The probationer shall be ordered to serve
the original sentence imposed

136
Q
  1. What is the period of probation if the sentence is Prision Correccional?
A

b. Not to exceed 6 years

137
Q
  1. Which probationers may be recommended for the early termination of probation?
A

B. Those who are cooperative and participative
probationer in the programs

138
Q
  1. Marcus applied for probation after he was
    convicted by the court for physically abusing Joy, his girlfirend. While waiting for the court decision for his application, what situation can be applied to him?
    a. He can be ordered to return to Joy and settle their problem
    b. Remain inside the jail while no decision is
    promulgated for his application
    c. He can be allowed on temporary liberty
    d. He should start looking for another beautiful
    woman
A

c. He can be allowed on temporary liberty

139
Q
  1. How many Probationers can be supervised by the Volunteer Probation Assistant on maximum caseload under the Omnibus Rules on Probation Methods and Procedures of RA 10707?
A

C. 5 Maximum client

139
Q
  1. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has been given due course by the court but fails to report to the probation officer or cannot be
    located within a reasonable period of time.
A

A. Absconding Petitioner

140
Q
  1. Badong, a probationer, wanted to travel outside his area of territorial jurisdiction for a period 1-10 days. The authority to allow Badong to travel may come from?
A

B. The probation officer

141
Q
  1. Who has control of the probationer?
A

a. Court

142
Q
A
142
Q
  1. All of the following are legal disqualifications of a prisoner for parole EXCEPT.
    a.Offenses are punishable by death, reclusion
    perpetua or life imprisonment
    b.Convicted of treason, rebellion and sedition
    c.Convicted of an offense under RA 9165
    d. None of the above
A

c.Convicted of an offense under RA 9165

142
Q
  1. The advantages of a probation sentence over
    incarceration include allowing the offender to work in the community, earn money to support his or her family, and to
A

A. Decongest the growing population of
prisoners inside jails and prisons

143
Q
  1. One of the following is not an administrative
    function exercised by the executive branch of the government.
A

a. Probation

144
Q
  1. The supervision activity of the probation officer to a probationer granted with probation is basically considered as?
A

A. Judicial function

145
Q
A
145
Q
  1. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is called?
    of the lower court but modified the sentence into 6 years. He is not satisfied with the decision of COA, he then appealed his case to the Supreme Court, which affirmed the decision of the lower court but modified the sentence into 4 years. Can the defendant now apply for probation?
    a.No, appealing the case is deemed to be a waiver to apply for probation
    b.Yes, because the sentence is now less than 6 years he is now qualified to apply probation
    c. No, because he has already perfected an
    appeal
    d.Yes, because probation is a right for those
    sentenced with less than 6 years
A

c. No, because he has already perfected an
appeal

146
Q
  1. Assuming that the court will deny the application for Probation of a person, what is the proper course of action for him?
A

d. File a motion for reconsideration in the Trial
Court

147
Q
  1. The entire PSIR submitted to the Trial Court
    is____in nature.
A

C Recommendatory

148
Q
  1. Is a statutory privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his term of imprisonment.
A

d.Good Conduct Time Allowance

149
Q
  1. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s
    conviction is final and executory and has already
    served the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.
A

A. Parole

150
Q
  1. What are the eligibilities for review of a parole case?
    I. Inmate is serving an indeterminate sentence the
    maximum of which not exceeds 1 yr
    II. Inmate has served the minimum period of the
    indeterminate sentence
    III. Inmate conviction is final and executory
    IV. Inmate has no pending case
    A. I, III, IV
    B. II, III, lV
    C. II, IV, V
    D. I, II, III, IV
A

B. II, III, lV

151
Q
  1. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted.
    A. Who escaped from confinement or evaded
    sentence;
    Amici Review Center 12 | P a g e
    B. Those who have pending criminal case;
    C. Habitual delinquencies;
    D. Suffering from any mental disorder; and
    E. Conviction is on appeal
    A. a,b,c, and e
    B. a,b,c, and d
    C. b,c,d, and e
    D. a,b,c,d, and e
A

D. a,b,c,d, and e

152
Q
  1. Can an Alien or a Foreigner avail parole in the Philippines?
A

a.Yes

152
Q
  1. A prisoner shall released upon the grant of parole. What shall be the basis of the grant of parole?
A

C. Release document

153
Q
  1. Which should be done incase a parolee dies
    during supervision?
    A. The PPO shall transmit a certified true copy
    of the death certificate of parolee to the board
    recommending the closing of the case
    B. The PPO shall initiate the conduct of investigation
    as to the cause of death and transmits its findings to the trial court for reference
    C. The probation officer shall inform the prosecutor in order to conduct the investigation as to the cause of death of the parolee
    D. The probation officer shall immediately notify the family of the parolee and the barangay chairman for information and action
A

A. The PPO shall transmit a certified true copy
of the death certificate of parolee to the board
recommending the closing of the case

154
Q
  1. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has expired?
A

D. Certificate of final release and discharge

155
Q
  1. It is an investigation conducted by a parole officer made before the grant of Parole
A

c. Pre parole investigation

156
Q
  1. If based on the pre-parole investigation report
    conducted on the prisoner, there is clear and
    convincing experience that his release on parole will
    endanger his own life and those of his relatives or the
    life, safety and well-being of the victim, his relatives,
    his witnesses and the community, the release of the
    prisoner should be ____
A

B. Disapproved by the board

157
Q
  1. The board shall assess and determine whether the petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board.
A

B. Majority

158
Q
  1. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will
    issue a ____ or specifically known as discharge on
    parole.
A

A. Release Document

159
Q
  1. A Parolee or Pardonee, upon release from prison through Parole or Pardon shall immediately report to his/her Supervising Probation and Parole Officer
    immediately upon release there from within:
A

C. 45 days

160
Q
  1. It is a report made within 15 days from the date the parolee reported for supervision.
A

b. Arrival report

161
Q
  1. Parole is not claimed as a privilege but the Board
    of Parole grants it as a right to a qualified prisoner.
    This is statement is:
    A. Partially true
    B. True
    C. Partially false
    D. False
A

D. False

162
Q
  1. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
A

b. Board of Pardons and Parole

163
Q
A
163
Q
  1. Which agency exercises supervision over
    parolees?
A

b. Parole and Probation Administration

164
Q
  1. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to
    forward the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s minimum sentence.
A

C. 30 days

165
Q
  1. What documents are attached to the Release
    Document of the parolee?
  2. Prison record
  3. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
  4. Location of the Prison or Confinement
  5. Order of Court
    a. 4 and 1
    b. 1 and 2
    c. 3 and 4
    d. 2 and 3
A

b. 1 and 2

166
Q
  1. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions stated in the release document.
A

C. Infraction Report

167
Q
  1. Upon receipt of the Violation Report the BOARD may issue an ____ against the parolee.
A

D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)

168
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect?
    a. A progress report is submitted to the BPP when a
    parolee has committed another crime and case is not
    yet decided by the court.
    b. A infraction report is submitted to the BPP when
    parolee violates another condition, appearing in his
    release document.
    c. Infraction report is submitted to the BPP where
    parolee is subsequently convicted of another crime.
    d. Upon receipt of a summary report, the BPP
    may issue and order of arrest and
    recommitment.
A

d. Upon receipt of a summary report, the BPP
may issue and order of arrest and
recommitment.

169
Q
A
169
Q
  1. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer
    residence stated in the release document except if the petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.
A

A. Regional Director

170
Q
  1. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may
    authorize outside travel of a parolee his area of
    jurisdiction for a period of not more than ___.
A

A. 30 days

170
Q
  1. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if probationer commits any violation of the terms and conditions during probation period.
A

A. Violation Report

171
Q
  1. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved by the ____.
A

A. Regional Director

172
Q
  1. Pardon may be granted upon the
    recommendation of what government agency?
A

b. Board of Pardons and Parole

173
Q
  1. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed
    when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms
    and conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
  2. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
    submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
    and Parole
  3. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
    the arrest of the parolee
  4. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
    finds that the continuation of his parole is
    incompatible with public welfare
  5. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
    a. 2, 3 and 4
    b. 4, 1 and 2
    c. 1, 2 and 3
    d. 3, 4 and 1
A

c. 1, 2 and 3

174
Q
  1. Senior Agila committed a crime with a penalty of
    Prision Mayor, then applied for Parole the BPP
    granted it. Later Senior Agila did and then violate and
    not complied with the condition given by the
    Competent Authority. Senior Agila was sent back to
    the Bureau of Correction to serve the unexpired
    portion of the sentence. Can he avail again the
    privilege of Parole?
    A. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a
    recommitted parolee for the grant of a new

parole after the latter shall have served one-
fourth (1/4) of the unserved portion of his

maximum sentence.
B. No. Because it given only once
C. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a
recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole
after the latter shall have served one-half (1/2) of the
unserved portion of his maximum sentence.
D. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a
recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole
after the latter shall have served one-third (1/3) of
the unserved portion of his maximum sentence.

A

A. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a
recommitted parolee for the grant of a new

parole after the latter shall have served one-
fourth (1/4) of the unserved portion of his

maximum sentence.

175
Q

85.It is the authority of the President of the
Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.

A

c. Executive clemency

176
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to an amendment of reducing a sentence of a convict or decreasing the incarceration of the original sentence?
A

A. Commutation of sentence

177
Q
  1. Which qualifications are to be met by an inmate for conditional pardon?
    A. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the maximum of the
    original indeterminate and/or definite prison term
    B. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the definite or aggregate prison terms
    C. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the minimum of the
    original indeterminate and/or definite prison
    term
    D. Has serve at least 1/5 of the determinate or
    aggregate prison term
A

C. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the minimum of the
original indeterminate and/or definite prison
term

178
Q
  1. What portion of the sentence of a petitioner must have been served to be eligible for the grant of commutation of sentence in case of definite sentence?
A

C. At least one third of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence

179
Q
  1. The exemption of an individual, within certain limits or conditions from the punishment which the law inflicts from the offense he has committed resulting into partial extension of criminal liability,
    which of these represents the statement?
    A. Reprieve granted to suspend the death
    B. Parole granted to mr. joenehl
    C. Probation granted to mr. eugenio
    D. Conditional pardon granted to mr. jeric
A

D. Conditional pardon granted to mr. jeric

179
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the punishment with condition and partially exempted from criminal liability?
A

D. Conditional pardon

180
Q
  1. For amnesty to be granted there should be
    ______.
    A. Recommended from united nations
    B. Application
    C. Concurrence of congress
    D. Recommendation from commission on human
    rights
A

C. Concurrence of congress

181
Q
  1. Pardon is granted to individual offender while amnesty is granted to _____.
A

A. Classes of persons with the same political
belief

182
Q
  1. Under article VII, section 10 paragraph (B) of the
    Philippine constitution, pardoning power is vested
    with the ____.
A

B. Chief executive

183
Q
  1. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended bythe president thru the recommendation of the board of pardon and parole?
A

C. Pardon

184
Q
  1. In absolute pardon, there is total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition. Is also restores _____.
A

C. Civil and political rights

185
Q
  1. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the board should refer the petition to the probation and parole officer who should conduct and investigation within ____.
A

D. 30 days

186
Q
  1. In case of an alien, the petition for executive
    clemency should be referred to the
    A. Bureau of immigration
    B. Department of justice
    C. Department of foreign affairs
    D. All of the above
A

C. Department of foreign affairs

186
Q
  1. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be referred by the Board to the ____ for comment and recommendation if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security or public orders or laws of the nations.
    A. Secretary of National Defense
    B. Secretary of Department of Foreign Affairs
    C. Secretary of justice
    D. Secretary of COMELEC
A

A. Secretary of National Defense

187
Q
  1. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of
    sentence are not eligible for executive clemency for a
    period of ____ from the date of their last
    recommitment to prison or conviction for evasion of
    service of sentence.
A

C. 1 year

188
Q
  1. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single
    individual for an ordinary crime.
    a. General pardon
    b. Absolute pardon
    c. Conditional pardon
    d. Special pardon
A

d. Special pardon

189
Q

THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES

A
190
Q
  1. It is a characteristic of human rights that is not
    granted by any person or authority
A

b. Inherent

191
Q
  1. Without them, the life and dignity of man will be meaningless
A

a. Fundamental

192
Q
  1. It cannot be rightfully taken away from a free
    individual. Cannot be given away or be forfeited.
A

d. Inalienable

193
Q
  1. It cannot be lost even if man fails to use or assert them, even by a long passage of time
A

c. Imprescriptible

194
Q
  1. Not capable of being divided. Cannot be denied even when other rights have already been enjoyed
A

C. Indivisible

195
Q
  1. It applies irrespective of one’s origin, status, or
    condition or place where one lives. Rights can be
    enforced without national border.
A

A. Universal

196
Q
  1. The fulfillment or exercise of one cannot be had without the realization of the other.
A

B. Interdependent

197
Q
  1. The person’s “immediate family” shall include the following, except
    A. Fiancée
    B. Spouse
    C. Guardian or ward
    D. Cousin
A
198
Q
  1. Every prisoner who is not allowed to wear his/her own clothing shall be provided with an outfit of clothing not suitable for the climate and adequate to keep him or her in good health.
    a. True
    b. False
    c. Maybe
    d. No comment
A

b. False

199
Q
  1. Every prisoner who is not employed in outdoor work shall have ____ of suitable exercise in the open air daily if the weather permits.
A

c. at least one hour

200
Q
  1. The use of chains, irons or other instruments of restraint which are inherently degrading or painful shall not be prohibited.
    a Yes
    b False
    c No
    d True
A

b False

201
Q
  1. 90 days of good behavior is equal to how many
    minutes of telephone call?
    a. 5 minutes of telephone call
    b. 10 minutes of telephone call
    c. 15 minutes of telephone call
    d. 20 minutes of telephone call
A

a. 5 minutes of telephone call

202
Q
  1. Prisoners with mental disabilities shall be detained
    in prisons.
    A. Yes
    B. True
    C. No
    D. False
A

D. False

203
Q
  1. How much is the food allowance of prisoners per day?
    a 50 pesos
    b 69 pesos
    c 70 pesos
    d 60 pesos
A

c 70 pesos

204
Q
  1. Who may apply for compensation to the board of claims?
    a. any person who was unjustly accused, convicted and imprisoned but subsequently released by virtue of a judgment of acquittal
    b.any person who was unjustly detained and released without being charged
    c. victim of violent crime which includes rape in
    offences committed with malice which resulted in death or serious physical and/or psychological injuries
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

205
Q
  1. Malaki Fukiko was a victim of violent crime of
    rape, when should a claim be filed to the board of claims?
A

d. From the date she suffered damage
or injury

206
Q
  1. How much is given to the qualified applicant?
A

a. 1 thousand pesos per month

207
Q
  1. Erick was unjustly accused, convicted and
    imprisoned for 10 years but subsequently released by virtue of a judgment of acquittal, how much will be given to him by board of claims?
A

a. 10 thousand pesos

208
Q
  1. It is an environment that helps people get help while helping others. It is a treatment environment : the interactions of its members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the norms that require for each to play the dual role of client
    therapist.
A

a. Therapeutic Community (TC)

209
Q
  1. What is the program of activity directed to restore a PDL’s self respect and sense of responsibility to community, thereby making him/her a law-abiding citizen after serving his/her sentence.
A

a. Rehabilitation

210
Q

21.A means of amending or improving by changing an inmate’s behavior or removing his or her faults or abuse and removing or correcting an abuse of a wrong or error.

A

b. Reformation

211
Q
  1. It is the process where victims, offenders, and communities affected by a particular offense meet to find a way to restore or make amends for the harm resulting from an offense.
A

c. Restoration

212
Q
  1. It is a self-help movement for the treatment of substance abusers; primarily using behavioral
    modifications techniques. It is based on self-help
    principles.
A

d. The American Drug-free Hierarchical
Concept-based TC

213
Q
A
214
Q
  1. It developed as a professional group work method to treat people suffering from a range of psychiatric difficulties, primarily using social learning principles. It is a small face-to-face residential community using social analysis as its main tool.
A

a. The British Democratic Maxwell Jones-type
TC

215
Q
  1. The following are the core programs of the
    Bureau of Jail Management and Penology EXCEPT.
    A. Cultural and Sports
    B. Welfare and Development
    C. Provision of basic services
    D. Special Services
A

D. Special Services

216
Q
  1. All PDL under custody are provided with three (3) meals (breakfast, lunch and supper). Adequate supply of potable water is made available to them at all times.
A

A. Provision of Basic Needs

217
Q
  1. The ___ program presents income-generating
    activities to PDL during their confinement where they are able to earn for their personal upkeep and for financial support to their families.
A

C. Livelihood Program

218
Q
  1. A program that aims to promote camaraderie among PDL, encourage the development of self- confidence and sharing of cultural talents as form of positive entertainment
A

D. Cultural and Sports Program

219
Q
  1. The main objective of the Paralegal Program is to address the _____ in jail facilities.
A

C. Overcrowding

220
Q
  1. The objective of this program is to equip the PDL with technical/vocational skills which they can use in seeking employment or starting their own business after release from confinement.
A

B. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program

221
Q
  1. This program aims to provide opportunities for PDL to achieve mandatory education
A

A. Educational Program

222
Q
  1. PDL enrolled in the ALS earn their respective Time Allowance for Teaching, Studying and Mentoring (TASTM) pursuant to RA 10592 for how many days per month?
A

A. 15 days

223
Q
  1. PDL experience some sense of social normalcy through the communal celebrations of socio-cultural events like birthdays, Valentine’s Day, Mothers’ and Fathers’ Day, Christmas, Lent and Easter, Ramadan, local festivals and other similar activities.
A

D. Cultural and Sports Program

224
Q
  1. It is a treatment environment: the interactions of its members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the norms that require for each to play the dual role of
A

B. Client- Therapist

225
Q
  1. Therapeutic Community Modality as a model
    includes the following categories namely:
    I. Behavior management
    II. Intellectual/spiritual aspect
    III. Emotional and social aspects
    IV. Vocational/survival aspects
    A. I,
    B.I,II
    C.I,II,III
    D.I,II,III,IV
A

D.I,II,III,IV

226
Q
  1. The phases of treatment under TCMP should be in
    what order?
    I. Primary Treatment
    II. Aftercare
    III. Entry/Orientation Phase
    IV. Pre Re-entry
    V. Re-entry
    A.lll,lV,l,V,ll
    B.lll,V,lV,l,ll
    C. III,I,IV,V,II
    D.III,I, V,IV,II
A

C. III,I,IV,V,II

227
Q
  1. A phase wherein the resident is handled gently and is expected to commit mistakes in the process of learning the program.
A

A. Entry/ Orientation Phase

228
Q
  1. Once the PDL is committed to jail, he undergoes a series of examinations to determine his physical, social and psychological status. Upon his commitment, a resident is placed on orientation at the Reception and Diagnostic room/Orientation room.
    In here, he is acquainted with the TC program. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic Modality is being described?
A

a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase

229
Q
  1. In the ideal setting, a resident at this stage is now ready to be released back to society as he has demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic Modality is being describe?
A

d. Phase IV- Re-entry

230
Q
  1. Refers to a class of therapeutic techniques for altering behavioral by changing one or more aspects of an individual’s environment. It means any intervention or treatment that utilizes positive reinforcement and/or restrictions to help an individual receiving services to develop and/or strengthen recovery-oriented behaviors and to address and correct treatment targeted behaviors.
A

b. Behavior Management

231
Q
  1. These are employed to strengthen the learning process and the practice of more adaptive behaviors within the social learning environment.
A

a. Behavior shaping tools

232
Q
  1. Is an outright correction done by any member of the TC community to another member who has done a minor infraction but is not aware of it.
A

A. TALK TO

233
Q
  1. It is done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the third time or more or for first time grave offenses. The tone is more serious and can be loud,
    more harsh and exaggerated.
A

D.HAIRCUT

234
Q
  1. Containment actions that limit certain privileges to all or portions of the community for major breakdowns in house structure.
A

D. Bans

235
Q
  1. It is done when a resident is incorrigible and
    becomes a threat to community.
A

C. Expulsion

236
Q

46.Noel often neglected to organized his bed, so the staffs requested him to teach incoming resident on how to maintain their bed neat and orderly. What hierarchy of behavior shaping tools was violated in this behavior.

A

d. Learning experience / Bans

237
Q
  1. The principal guiding rule observed by all
    residents in a TC Community with heavier
    corresponding consequences.
A

d. Cardinal rules

238
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a part of the Phase I( Entry/Orientation) of the BJMP Therapeutic Modality?
A

a. Rebuilding Social and Family ties

239
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic community unwritten philosophy which is described by this adage “NO FREE LUNCH”
A

D. If we want something, work for it

240
Q
  1. Rendon an inmate is unable to sleep and eat
    while serving his sentence due to loneliness and
    despair should undergo:
A

D. counseling

241
Q
  1. A professional activity of helping individuals,
    groups or communities enhance or restore their
    capacity for psychological, emotional and social
    functioning and creating an environment favorable for the attainment of these goals.
A

a. counseling

242
Q
  1. Refers to the ability to perceive the client’s
    feelings and to demonstrate accurate perception of the client. It is putting oneself in the client’s shoes.
A

b. empathy

243
Q
  1. Also known as genuineness. It includes the act of being honest and authentic in dealing with the client. It is showing real concern rather than focusing on techniques during sessions.
A

c. Congruence

244
Q
  1. It means that anything discussed during
    counseling sessions is held absolutely private and not to be discussed anywhere.
A

d. Confidentiality

245
Q
  1. When to break Confidentiality?
    a. Children are being neglected or abused
    b. Appearance in Court as a witness or client express plan to commit suicide
    c. Client express plan to harm others
    d. all mentioned above
A

d. all mentioned above

246
Q
  1. Any action or activity that reflects or brings out the goodness in a man. It is the broad concept of a belief in something beyond the self.
A

a. Spirituality

247
Q
  1. This embodies all the challenges and aspirations of most residents who feel alienated and the desire to overcome the imposed limitations on their freedom and find their own place where they could feel safe and welcome.
A

b. Therapeutic Community Philosophy

248
Q
  1. It refers to a word or saying that will serve as a guide for the community to ponder upon in relation to their day to day interactions and behaviors. It is elaborated during the Morning Meeting by some members of the community to emphasize its relevance and how it can stimulate the residents’ thoughts and help them change their behavior into something positive.
A

a. Theme/concept of the day

249
Q
  1. A type of dormitory with inmate capacity of 69 inmates
A

C. Type C

250
Q
  1. Online or e-marketing of PDL livelihood products is being run by the _______.
A

A. Welfare and Development Office

251
Q
  1. “Whatever you do unto others will be done unto you” is an example of what TC unwritten
    Philosophies?
A

A. “What goes around comes around”

252
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic community philosophy which is described by this “ I am here because there is no refuge, finally from myself.”
A

a. Surrender

253
Q
  1. It refers to the belief in the client’s ability to make appropriate decisions and deal appropriately with his or her life situation when given a safe and supportive environment in which to do so.
A

b. Respect

254
Q
  1. A permanent group of peers and leaders that meet regularly while the residents are in treatment. It is a sort of “home” group who provides support for one another and to the new members of the community.
A

a. Static group

255
Q
  1. Serves as safety valve within the community
    which is usually highly pressured and structured. It is
    a forum for members of the community to verbally
    express pent-up or negative emotions within a
    structured and safe environment without resorting to
    violence or aggression and without fear of reprisals.
A

c. Encounter group

256
Q
  1. Are a group activity where participants are givenmthe opportunity to unload emotional baggage and thus experience freedom from internal psychological
    conflicts.
A

d. Secrets

257
Q
  1. A phase of encounter group which involves
    verbalization of concerns or honest disclosure of
    emotions that has been provoked during interpersonal
A

a. Confrontation

258
Q
  1. It is structured social event where all those
    involved in an encounter will have ample time to
    mend fences with those they have offended or hurt in
    the past. The purpose is to achieve closure, reaffirm
    relationships and maintain the unity of the community
    so that all those involved can move on and leave the
    past behind.
A

d. Socialization

259
Q
  1. What is the process that helps people identify stressors and helps them stay calm in anger management for them to handle tense situations in a constructive and positive way
A

d. Anger Management

260
Q
  1. It focuses on the “here and now” but allows a
    deeper exploration of issues that affects new
    behavior. Special subject’s may be the focus such as
    sexuality, trauma, etc.
A

A.Extended Group

260
Q
  1. It is used to help an individual establish a practice of moving his attention within, finding his place of relaxation and peace by contacting his inner wisdom.
A

a. Visualization meditation

261
Q
  1. These are the Separation of Categories under the UN Standard Treatment for PDL, except:
    A. Men and women should be separated
    B. Untried prisoners shall be kept separated from convicted prisoners
    C. Prisoners should be separated according the nature of their offense/crime
    D. Young prisoners should be kept separated from adults
    E. None of these
A

E. None of these

262
Q
  1. This are activities in TC that provide intellectual
    stimulation and seek personal involvement among the
    residents.
A

b. seminars

263
Q
  1. It is introduced to provide the residents the
    opportunity to learn how to reason ably and put
    together arguments in a logical manner.
A

c. debate

264
Q
  1. What refer to a form of seminar which enhances the residents’ ability to communicate, analyze ideas and develop insights about themselves with the use
    of identification with inanimate objects.
A

b. Grab Bag

265
Q
  1. In the BJMP, (TCMP) was introduced in what
    year?
A

B. 1998

266
Q
  1. These refer to a person who will provide to newly commit PDL with support and will walk him through the orientation phase
A

c. Big brother

267
Q
  1. To introduce and institutionalize TCMP as the
    ___program of the BJMP for inmate development
A

C. Backbone

268
Q
  1. An alternative to the traditional face-to-face
    visitation between PDL and respective families.
A

d. E-dalaw

269
Q
  1. What is the process through which remorseful offenders accept responsibility for their misconduct, particularly to their victims and to the community. It creates an obligation to make things right through proactive involvement of victims, ownership of the offender of the crime and the community in search for solution which promote repair, reconciliation and
    reassurance.
A

a. Restorative Justice

270
Q
  1. The TC Cardinal Rules are important in
    maintaining the integrity of the community and in fostering a safe environment.Which of the following is not among the Cardinal Rules.
A

a.No gambling

271
Q
  1. This is given by peers, elders and staff when they do not know who the transgressor is. It demands awareness and immediate behavior change from erring client.
A

d.Pull-ups

272
Q
  1. This TC Unwritten Philosophy means “a reward for working hard is well deserved. We get what we put into.”
A

a.Compensation is valid

273
Q
  1. The purpose of this is to start the day and
    motivate clients to begin the day in a positive way. This helps them cope with issues arising within the day.
A

c.Morning meeting

274
Q
  1. This is employed to facilitate a conscious learning process, enhance self-awareness by teaching instead of meting out routine punishment.
A

c.Learning experience

275
Q
  1. There are four major programs under the
    mandate of BJMP and they are the following, except?
    a. Provisions of Basic Needs
    b. Welfare and development program
    c. Decongestion program
    d. Good governance
A

a. Provisions of Basic Needs

276
Q
  1. In the hierarchy of Behavior Shaping Tools (BST), this is the most severe punishment imposed upon a client.
A

a. Banishment

277
Q
  1. Raul, a TC resident has internalized the TC values and concept and has given a lesser supervision as he has proven his ability to take on more responsibility. In what phase of the modality does he belong to?
A

C. Phase III

278
Q
  1. This is the means used for enforcing community sanctions.on behaviors that undermine the safety and integrity of the community.
A

c. Behavioral Shaping Tools

279
Q
  1. A BJMP TCMP Phase, wherein the resident is
    expected to have proven his ability to take on more responsibility hence needs lesser supervision.
A

C. Pre Entry Phase

280
Q
  1. A BJMP TCMP phase, wherein the resident is
    learning how to trust the environment by disclosing
    self to the community and develop insight in the
    process.
A

B. Primary Treatment

281
Q
  1. TCMP is under this BJMP Core Program –
A

c. Behavioral Management Program

282
Q
  1. A Behavioral Shaping Tool done as a result of
    lack, missed or lapses in awareness in a resident. It encourages honesty, demeanor awareness and owning up to one’s mistakes.
A

B. Pull Up

283
Q
  1. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the third time or more or for first time grave offenses.
A

D. Hair Cut

284
Q
  1. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the second time of same offense by a resident.
A

C. Dealt With

285
Q
  1. It identifies the duties & responsibilities each
    member is expected to carry out in order that the
    goals of the organization can be achieved.
A
286
Q
  1. It is also known as unconditional positive regard. It involves accepting and caring about the client as a person, regardless of any evaluation or prejudices on
    the client’s behavior or thoughts.
A

a. Warmth

287
Q
  1. The following are the Skills and Characteristics of
    Counselling, except:
    a. Congruence
    b. Respect
    c. Sympathy
    d. Warmth
A

c. Sympathy

288
Q
  1. The highest position attained by a resident in a TC Hierarchy, who works with the staff in running the house, implementing rules. With corresponding status, a resident has an authority over the other residents.
A

C. Coordinator

289
Q
  1. The lowest position in the TC hierarchy
A

A. General Worker