CORAD 1 AND 3 Flashcards by COLLADO KIM JAYCER A.

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS

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The study of punishment for crime or of criminal offenders. It includes the study of control and prevention of crime through punishment of criminal offenders.

B. Penology

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The following are justification of punishment,
EXCEPT
A. Retribution
B. Happiness
C. Deterrence
D. Atonement

B. Happiness

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What statement BEST describes Punishment in
general?
A. It is the redress that the State takes
against an Offending member.
B. It is an infliction of pain to A member of the
society
C. It is a government remedy To correct a
wrong.
D. It is a human suffering Inflicted to an
individual.

A. It is the redress that the State takes
against an Offending member.

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What is considered as the period of golden age of penology?

B. 1870 – 1880

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It is the period of recognizing human dignity. It is the movement of reformation, period of introduction of certain reforms in the correctional field by certain person, gradually changing the old positive philosophy of punishment to a more humane treatment of prisoners with innovational programs or development of correctional systems

a. Age of Reason

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The penalty imposed for offenders must be
personal. This means that

A. The guilty one must be the one to be
punished, no proxy

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It is the infliction of physical pain as a form of
punishment

B. Corporal Punishment

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Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of
uttering insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of prisoners.

A. Social Degradation

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Which ancient form of punishment is also known as “fusillading”?

D. Firing squad

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The fort William mc Kinley in fort Bonifacio which was Converted on June 30, 1968 to a prison was intended To ______.

D. Incarcerate offenders who violated military
laws

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The most common problem of the National prison is

B. Excessive number of inmates

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What is the description of the united nation
standard minimum rules for the treatment of
prisoners about solitary confinement?

D. Confinement of prisoner for 22 hours or
more a day without human contact

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Select the courts and other entitles that may
commit a person to jail.
I. Supreme court
II. Court of appeals
III. Ombudsman
IV. Sandiganbayan
V. Congress
A. I, II, IV, V
B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, IV, V
D. I, III, IV, V

A. I, II, IV, V

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Kuko Martin was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at the Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics?
a. He is an actor and photogenic
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
reception procedure

d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
reception procedure

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The BJMP was created thru___ as one of the tri- bureau under DILG.

C. Sec 60, RA 6975

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Mark was arrested by the police for robbery. He was brought to the police station and an
administrative record of the arrest was prepared. He was fingerprinted, photographed, interrogated and placed in a line-up for identification by witnesses.
What process did he undergo?

b. Booking

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Roberto is a newly arrived inmate in the BJMP, he was placed in shakedown procedure. Who among the following shall be responsible in the custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior to his detention?

C. Property Custodian Officer

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Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is what type of offense?

b. Less grave offense

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Which among the following is the chairman of prison classification and board of discipline in the BJMP?
A. Superintendent
B. Assistant Warden
C. Deputy warden
D. Both B&C

D. Both B&C

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Which disciplinary sanctions can be imposed on inmates?
A. Payment of fees to the office of the warden
B. Forfeiture of salaries and wages earned
C. Cancellation of telephone calls
D. Cancellation of some or all recreational
privileges

D. Cancellation of some or all recreational
privileges

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Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be
between ___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been proven ineffective.

B. 1-7 Days

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Under the rules, bureau of corrections head
counts of inmates are conducted how many times?

A. 4 times a day

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26. In case an inmate has given disciplinary action, the board of discipline is authorized to impose any of the following disciplinary measures, EXCEPT A. Additional penalty for service of sentence B. Caution or reprimand C. Cancellation of recreation, education, entertainment, and visiting privileges D. Deprivation of GCTA for a specific period

A. Additional penalty for service of sentence

27. If Ryan is sentenced to serve a prison of not over three years, what type of prisoner is he?

A. Municipal prisoner

28. Provincial jails are under the management, administration and control of their respective provincial governments wherein inmates who are serving sentences from _____ are confined in these jails.

D. 6 months and 1 day to 3 years

29. Jay is an offender who is committed to the jail or prison in order to serve his sentence after final conviction of a competent court is known as

b. Sentenced prisoner

30. Which of the following are classified as detention prisoner? 1. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing criminal probe 2. Accused person who is confined in jail and already convicted 3. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing trial 4. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting final judgment a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 4, 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 3, 4 and 1

d. 3, 4 and 1

31. What is the main purpose of placing an inmate in the directorate for reception and diagnostic?

A. Evaluation and classification

32. Under the BUCOR manual operation, how long should an inmate stay at the RDC and he should be due for transfer to designated camp?

B. 60 days

33. A writ ordering the temporary confinement of a person in penal institution while undergoing trial.

b. Commitment order

34. During the reception of an inmate with his documents before entering the jail or prison, the committing officer should check the body of the inmate for any birth marks or tattoos and other body marks. What category of search should be conducted by the officer?

b. Strip Search

35. When actor Jhong Go was arrested and put in a correctional facility, what will be his inmate security classification?

B. High profile inmates

36. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection.

C. Sodium Thiopental

37. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT A. Age of offenders B. Sex of offenders C. Mother of offender D. Medical condition

C. Mother of offender

38. Juan Sipag is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time. He is classified as ____ among the classification of inmates according to privileges.

C. 2nd class inmate

39. To be a ______, one must be at least a 1st class inmate and has serve one year immediately preceding the completion of the period specified in the following qualification: has served imprisonment with good conduct for at least 7 years in the case of life imprisonment.

D. Colonist

40. In the classification of prisoners of the bureau of corrections, what are the categories of a medium security? I. Those inmates whose maximum is less than 20 years II. Those inmates who are 18 years old III. Inmates whose sentence are above 20 years IV. Those under disciplinary punishment or safekeeping A. I, III, IV B. II, IV C. I, II D. I, II, III

C. I, II

41. Those inmates who have 2 or more records of escapes but they have served 8 years since they recommitted should be classified as

B. Medium security prisoners

42. When the penalty is imprisonment, the sentence is carried out either in the municipal, provincial, or national penitentiary depending on

D. The length of the sentence meted out

43. The superintendent of the prison may authorize an inmate to be taken out of prison in the following instances, EXCEPT A. Conjugal visit of the male inmate to the CIW B. To appear in court or other government agency as directed by competent authority C. For medical examination/ treatment or hospitalization in an outside clinic or hospital D. To view the remains of a deceased relative (furlough)

A. Conjugal visit of the male inmate to the CIW

44. How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from going out?

C. 60 Days

45. Who is the 4th in command in BUCOR? A. Deputy Director for Administration B. Deputy Director for Security and Operations C. Corrections Chief Superintendent D. None of the above

A. Deputy Director for Administration

46. When a jail break, escape, or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately

A. Sound the alarm

47. In case of mass jail break, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to

A. Plug off the escape routes

48. Whenever a riot or escape alarm is sounded by siren, bell or gunfire, all prisoners shall be order to

B. Lie flat on the ground, face down and with arms and legs spread out of the body

49. It is an act of leaving from jail of an inmate through unofficial and illegal ways or without any legal order from the authorities.

B. Jail Escape

50. Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and firearms?

D. Desk Officer / armorer

51. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in Command?

C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot

52. How is an offender released from prison or jail? 1. After service of sentence 2. Issuance of order of the court 3. Grant of parole 4. Grant of pardon 5. Grant of amnesty 6. Any lawful order of competent authority a. 1,3,4,5 and 6 b. 1,2,3,4 and 5 c. 2,3,4,5, and 6 d. All of those listed above

d. All of those listed above

53. What is the minimum rank required to be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?

C. Senior Superintendent

54. Jack UL is a uniformed personnel of the BJMP with a rank of Jail Chief Inspector, who is the appointing officer of the aforementioned BJMP personnel?

D. Chief of BJMP

55. Provincial jails were first established in 1910 under American regime. At present, who supervises and controls the said jails?

B. Provincial government

56. An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted of major offenses refers to

b. Prison

57. The bureau of corrections shall maintain the custodial personnel-to-inmate ratio of 1:7 and the reformation personnel-to-inmate ratio of ______.

C. 1:24

58. Work and livelihood personnel-to-inmate ratio?

A. 1:180

59. During the eleventh and successive years of imprisonment, the good conduct of any offender or convicted prisoner qualified for credit for preventive imprisonment, shall entitle him for a deduction of ____days for each month of good behavior during detention

B. 30

60. A deduction of ___ the period of his sentence shall be granted in case said prison stay in the place of his confinement notwithstanding the existence of a calamity or act enumerated in Article 158 of this Code.

B. two-fifth

61. Who may grant good conduct time allowance (GCTA) to an inmate who displays good behavior and who has no record of breach of discipline or violation of prison rules?

C. Director of corrections

62. In the case of BJMP, the grant of the time allowance shall be primarily vested with the

A. Director, BJMP

63. Kai Sotto was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several inmates escaped. Jose returned the following day, how many years would be deducted from his sentence?

a. 4 years

64. All except one may grant GCTA under RA 10592 to an inmate for good behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules and regulation.

C. President

65. How many days will be deducted from an inmate for each month for his good behavior during his seventh year in prison or jail?

B. 25 days for each month of good behavior

66. This refers to the act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another while under confinement:

A. Proselytizing

67. Insan was sentenced to serve Prision Mayor. What is the duration of his penalty?

B. 6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years

68. Tito failed to return within 48 hours after passing of calamity or disorder. Surrendered after 48 hours, shall also be charged with Art. 158 but must be given

D. Mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender

69. This refers to any article, item, or thing prohibited by law that are unlawful in themselves.

b. Illegal Contraband

70. An enemy combatant, high ranking official or a civilian in danger of capture or death, typically in possession of critical intelligence, data, or authority marked as an objective for a mission.

a. High Value Target

71. This unit examines the completeness and authenticity of the requirements for commitment before it refers the inmate for physical examination by the health unit.

b. Records unit

72. What is meant by “Hustling” inside the prison?

C. Selling of illegal commodities such as drugs, alcohol and weapons

73. Upon the start of the booking procedure, the inmate’s information shall be encoded to NIMS. NIMS stands for:

B. National Inmates Monitoring System

74. The principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners that requires special treatment and custody is called:

C. Diversification

75. Mark Villar committed a crime with a sentence of 20 years imprisonment. He is 18 years old. What is his security classification?

B. Medium

76. What is the highest rank in BUCOR?

B. Undersecretary

77. What is the highest position in BJMP?

D. Chief BJMP

78. If a convict behaved well each month for the third to fifth year of imprisonment, how many days will be deducted from his prison term?

A. 828

79. Appointing authority for Jail Senior

D. DILG Secretary

80. A suffering inflicted to an individual for having been committed an offense.

a. Penalty

81. Criminal liability is extinguished partially in the following except a. Conditional pardon b. Serving the sentence c. Commutation of the sentence d. For good conduct allowances which the culprit may earn while he is undergoing preventive imprisonment or serving his sentence

b. Serving the sentence

82. The features of the prison system were confinement of the prisoners in these cells day and night.

a. Pennsylvania

83. This prison system was considered more advantageous because it has been observed that prisoners finishes more articles when they work in groups than working alone in their individual cells.

a. Auburn System

84. This Act shall be known as the “Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Management and Penology Professionalization Act of 2004.”

c. RA 9263

85. A person who is accused before a court or competent authority and is temporarily confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial, or final judgment.

c. Detainee

86. Which of the following is a place for the confinement of medium security prisoner?

a. Camp sampaguita

87. Which of the following is not an authorized disciplinary actions/measures for detainees? a.Close confinement in a cell for a period not exceeding seven (7) days b.Reduction of visiting time c. Admonition or verbal reprimand d.Suspension of visiting privileges for a period not exceeding one (1) month

d.Suspension of visiting privileges for a period not exceeding one (1) month

88. The inmate shall not be allowed to stay more than how many hours in the place where the remains of the deceased relative lie in state?

b.3 hours

89. The following are specific circumstances wherein prisoners or detainees may be moved or transferred EXCEPT. a.To appear, as witness before any court of justice or prosecutor’s office b.To appear as witness in any investigation or formal inquiry being conducted by a government agency c. To view the remains of a deceased relative d.To vote in national or local elections

d.To vote in national or local elections

90. Is a search wherein the officer pats or squeezes the subject’s clothing to attempt to detect contraband.

a.Pat/Frisk Search

91. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for medium security prison is.

b. Blue

92. A temporary custody of a person for his own protection, safety or care, and that of the community from him.

d. Safekeeping

93. Strip search should be conducted: a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses b. At the warden’s office c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others to avoid further embarrassment

d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others to avoid further embarrassment

94. Body search of this type pats the subject’s body over the clothing in a more thorough manner where the genital, buttocks, and breasts are carefully searched for the presence of contraband.

d. Rub Search

95. One of the important documents to be secured by the law enforcers before they remand the offender to the jail institution?

b. Commitment order

96. Each jail is mandated to establish a Classification Board for Inmates. Who among the following serves as the Chairman of the Classification Board?

b. Deputy Warden

97. In what instances the President of the Philippines can authorize release of an inmate? a. In parole and reprieve b. In cases of executive clemency c. In cases of acquittal or grant of bail d. Expiration of the sentence

b. In cases of executive clemency

98. When does punishment have a deterrent effect? a. Punishment disgraces the offender before the public b. Punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense c. Punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime d. Punishment serves as an example to the public thus discouraging the commission of offense

d. Punishment serves as an example to the public thus discouraging the commission of offense

99. Conjugal Visitation refers to the visit by the wife for a short period, usually

C. An hour, more or less

100. Because he refused to follow the regulations placed on convicted prisoners, Mark, a new detainee, has been handed a "Certification" of preventive incarceration. The court found him guilty after ten years and sentenced him to 20 years in prison. How many more years does he have to spend after deducting his preventative imprisonment?

b. 12 years

NON INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS

1. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which means ___, has historical roots in he practice of judicial reprieve.

C. Testing period

2. Probation started in ____ with the old practice of suspending judgement and releasing the offender on his own recognizing with the promise not to commit any more crime.

A. England

3. Why was congressman Teodulo Natividad considered as the “father of probation in the Philippines”?

A. He initiated the drafting of a bill which would establish a probation system

4. In the Philippines, act number 4221 of the Philippine assembly established adult probation, but it was abolished in 1937 after two years of existence because it was declared unconstitutional in the case of

B. People vs Vera

5. Why was Act 4221 declared unconstitutional? a. It violates the rights of probationers. b. It denies the equal protection of the laws and constitutes an unlawful delegation of legislative power. c. It provides danger for the society and its members by releasing the probationers earlier than what is provided for in the release document. d. None of the above

b. It denies the equal protection of the laws and constitutes an unlawful delegation of legislative power.

6. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject to conditions imposed by the court?

b. Probation

7. Which is not a mandate of the parole and probation administration under the probation law of 1976?

A. Provide an offender with individual institutionalized program

8. The application for probation shall be filed with the__which has jurisdiction over the case.

a. Trial Court

9. From the date of conviction and sentence, when may an applicant for probation file the application for probation?

C. Within 15 days

10. Which of the following situations can the offender apply for probation?

c. After conviction and sentence

11. RTC Branch 69 received the post sentence investigation report, how long will the court should act in the petition for probation?

a. 15 days

12. The order of the court granting or denying probation is appealable. a. True b. No c. Yes d. False

d. False

14. Mark Villar was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an imprisonment term of 8 years, since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his case to a higher court. The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser penalty of six years. Can he apply now for probation? a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day b. No, because he already appealed his case c. No, because he is disqualified d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable and his 2nd sentence is a probationable offense.

d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable and his 2nd sentence is a probationable offense.

15. Juan Dela Cruz, after promulgation of his case by the RTC, was meted with a penalty of 5 years and 1 day to 6 years of imprisonment who, within 15 days from the date of promulgation, filed his appeal with the Court of Appeals for being not satisfied with the judgment of the lower court. Can he be granted probation once he applied? a. No, because the decision of the RTC is not final and executory. b. No, because he filed for an appeal. c. No, because he did not waive his right for an appeal. d. Yes, because he met the qualifications to apply for probation

b. No, because he filed for an appeal.

16. Bote was found guilty of rape and applied for probation. Will you grant Probation as a Judge? A. Yes, as long as the penalty is 6 years and below. B. No, Because the Section 8, paragraph c stated that “Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.” C. Yes, Because Bote has good faith to marry the rape victim. D. No, as provided by the Probation officer

B. No, Because the Section 8, paragraph c stated that “Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.”

17. When two or more accused are tried jointly and convicted and only one of them applied for probation. In case the latter’s application for probation is granted. Can the co-accused who has not applied also benefit from the granting of probation? a. Yes, as a general rule b. No, the granting of probation shall make the decision final to only those who applied c. It depends on the discretion of the Trial Court, as probation is only a privilege d. No, probation is only for the well privileged

b. No, the granting of probation shall make the decision final to only those who applied

18. The following are the functions of a Probation and Parole officer, except: a. Investigate court referrals for petitioners eligibility for probation b. Supervise probationers, parolees and pardonees c. Determine the grant or denial of probation d. Formulate plans and programs for the rehabilitation of the clientele

c. Determine the grant or denial of probation

19. All of the following are the consequences of violating the conditions of probation, except: a. Revocation of the probation b. Modification of the conditions c. Suspension of probation d. None of these

c. Suspension of probation

20. Pending submission of the Post-Sentence Investigation Report and the resolution of the petition for probation, the accused may be allowed . a. Temporary liberty under his/her bail b. Temporary suspension of his sentence c. Permanent liberty and be released from confinement d. Appeal his case to the next higher court

a. Temporary liberty under his/her bail

21. Which of the following statement is true about probation? a. Probation is a privilege, not a right b. Probation is a right, not a privilege c. Probation is granted by the Parole and Probation Officer d. Probationer refers to the person applying for probation

a. Probation is a privilege, not a right

22. The first probation law in the Philippines is.

a. Act no. 4221

23. It is a form authorizing the PPA and/or the Probation Office to secure any and all information on the petitioner, shall be duly executed and signed by him/her.

C. Waiver cum authorization

24. During the conduct of the PSI, _____ must be gathered from those persons who have direct personal knowledge of the petitioner, offended party family members, and/or their relatives.

d.Collateral information

25. The sentence of Mr. Right was promulgated by the RTC Naga in relation to a crime he committed. Should Mr. Right decide to apply for probation, how many days is given for him to file his petition?

a. 15 days

26. What is the attribute of post-sentence investigation on the part of the court in giving a decision whether to deny or grant probation?

A. Mandatory

27. What kind of report is intended to assist the court in determining whether or not the ends of justice and the best interest of the public as well as the applicant will be served by the grant or denial of probation?

B. Post-sentence investigation

28. Who shall assign the conduct of post-sentence investigation to an investigating probation officer?

A. The chief probation and parole officer

29. What will happen to the sentence of the offender who has been granted probation?

b. Sentence will be suspended

30. This pillar or component of our criminal justice system has been regarded as the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate recidivism and habitual offenders.

d. Correction

31. Under the law, the probation officer shall submit to the court the investigation report on a defendant not later than

D. 60 days from receipt of the order

32. It is an investigation from another city or provincial parole and probation office which requests for a complete post-sentence investigation report on the petition for probation.

a. Full blown courtesy investigation

33. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that I. The offender is in need of correctional treatment that can be provided effectively by his confinement to an institution II. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed III. There is undue risk that during the probation the offender will commit another crime IV. Probation will appreciate the seriousness of the offense committed A. II, III, IV B. II, IV C. I, III, ll, lV D. I, II, III

D. I, II, III

34. Miguelito is a teacher, who committed a crime and sentence to a prison of term 8 years and 1 day to 12 years, is Miguelita qualified to apply probation? A. Yes, because Miguelita is female offender B. Yes, because her sentence is below 12 years C. No, because Miguelita is a teacher D. No, because his sentence is above 6 years

D. No, because his sentence is above 6 years

35. Raul, convicted of crime having penalty of arresto mayor, and he applies for probation and consequently granted by the court, how long would be the probation?

D. Not more than 2 years

36. A person under the supervision of probationer officer shall report for how many times per month?

A. Once

37. Once a serious violation of a probation condition has been established in the hearing, the trial court may A. Revoke the probation and shall order the probation officer on case to submit the probation administrative file to the court within 72 hours for safekeeping B. Order the conduct of full blown investigation to determine the surrounding circumstances of violation of probation and impose the necessary sanction to the probationer C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s probation or modification of the probation condition or revoke his probation whichever is proper and just under judicial discretion D. Place the probationer on a watch list in coordination with the probation officer to prevent him from leaving the country or evade his sentence.

C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s probation or modification of the probation condition or revoke his probation whichever is proper and just under judicial discretion

38. What will happen if the probation is revoked by the Court? A. The probationer shall be ordered to serve the remaining sentence inside jail B. The judge will give his decision on the case filed against the probationer C. The court will advise the prosecutor to review the case for reference D. The probationer shall be ordered to serve the original sentence imposed

D. The probationer shall be ordered to serve the original sentence imposed

39. What is the period of probation if the sentence is Prision Correccional?

b. Not to exceed 6 years

40. Which probationers may be recommended for the early termination of probation?

B. Those who are cooperative and participative probationer in the programs

41. Marcus applied for probation after he was convicted by the court for physically abusing Joy, his girlfirend. While waiting for the court decision for his application, what situation can be applied to him? a. He can be ordered to return to Joy and settle their problem b. Remain inside the jail while no decision is promulgated for his application c. He can be allowed on temporary liberty d. He should start looking for another beautiful woman

c. He can be allowed on temporary liberty

42. How many Probationers can be supervised by the Volunteer Probation Assistant on maximum caseload under the Omnibus Rules on Probation Methods and Procedures of RA 10707?

C. 5 Maximum client

43. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has been given due course by the court but fails to report to the probation officer or cannot be located within a reasonable period of time.

A. Absconding Petitioner

44. Badong, a probationer, wanted to travel outside his area of territorial jurisdiction for a period 1-10 days. The authority to allow Badong to travel may come from?

B. The probation officer

45. Who has control of the probationer?

a. Court

47. All of the following are legal disqualifications of a prisoner for parole EXCEPT. a.Offenses are punishable by death, reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment b.Convicted of treason, rebellion and sedition c.Convicted of an offense under RA 9165 d. None of the above

c.Convicted of an offense under RA 9165

48. The advantages of a probation sentence over incarceration include allowing the offender to work in the community, earn money to support his or her family, and to

A. Decongest the growing population of prisoners inside jails and prisons

49. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised by the executive branch of the government.

a. Probation

50. The supervision activity of the probation officer to a probationer granted with probation is basically considered as?

A. Judicial function

51. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is called? of the lower court but modified the sentence into 6 years. He is not satisfied with the decision of COA, he then appealed his case to the Supreme Court, which affirmed the decision of the lower court but modified the sentence into 4 years. Can the defendant now apply for probation? a.No, appealing the case is deemed to be a waiver to apply for probation b.Yes, because the sentence is now less than 6 years he is now qualified to apply probation c. No, because he has already perfected an appeal d.Yes, because probation is a right for those sentenced with less than 6 years

c. No, because he has already perfected an appeal

53. Assuming that the court will deny the application for Probation of a person, what is the proper course of action for him?

d. File a motion for reconsideration in the Trial Court

54. The entire PSIR submitted to the Trial Court is____in nature.

C Recommendatory

55. Is a statutory privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his term of imprisonment.

d.Good Conduct Time Allowance

56. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction is final and executory and has already served the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.

A. Parole

57. What are the eligibilities for review of a parole case? I. Inmate is serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum of which not exceeds 1 yr II. Inmate has served the minimum period of the indeterminate sentence III. Inmate conviction is final and executory IV. Inmate has no pending case A. I, III, IV B. II, III, lV C. II, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV

B. II, III, lV

58. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted. A. Who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; Amici Review Center 12 | P a g e B. Those who have pending criminal case; C. Habitual delinquencies; D. Suffering from any mental disorder; and E. Conviction is on appeal A. a,b,c, and e B. a,b,c, and d C. b,c,d, and e D. a,b,c,d, and e

D. a,b,c,d, and e

59. Can an Alien or a Foreigner avail parole in the Philippines?

a.Yes

60. A prisoner shall released upon the grant of parole. What shall be the basis of the grant of parole?

C. Release document

61. Which should be done incase a parolee dies during supervision? A. The PPO shall transmit a certified true copy of the death certificate of parolee to the board recommending the closing of the case B. The PPO shall initiate the conduct of investigation as to the cause of death and transmits its findings to the trial court for reference C. The probation officer shall inform the prosecutor in order to conduct the investigation as to the cause of death of the parolee D. The probation officer shall immediately notify the family of the parolee and the barangay chairman for information and action

A. The PPO shall transmit a certified true copy of the death certificate of parolee to the board recommending the closing of the case

62. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has expired?

D. Certificate of final release and discharge

63. It is an investigation conducted by a parole officer made before the grant of Parole

c. Pre parole investigation

64. If based on the pre-parole investigation report conducted on the prisoner, there is clear and convincing experience that his release on parole will endanger his own life and those of his relatives or the life, safety and well-being of the victim, his relatives, his witnesses and the community, the release of the prisoner should be ____

B. Disapproved by the board

65. The board shall assess and determine whether the petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board.

B. Majority

66. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known as discharge on parole.

A. Release Document

67. A Parolee or Pardonee, upon release from prison through Parole or Pardon shall immediately report to his/her Supervising Probation and Parole Officer immediately upon release there from within:

C. 45 days

68. It is a report made within 15 days from the date the parolee reported for supervision.

b. Arrival report

69. Parole is not claimed as a privilege but the Board of Parole grants it as a right to a qualified prisoner. This is statement is: A. Partially true B. True C. Partially false D. False

D. False

70. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?

b. Board of Pardons and Parole

71. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?

b. Parole and Probation Administration

72. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s minimum sentence.

C. 30 days

73. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the parolee? 1. Prison record 2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer 3. Location of the Prison or Confinement 4. Order of Court a. 4 and 1 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

74. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions stated in the release document.

C. Infraction Report

75. Upon receipt of the Violation Report the BOARD may issue an ____ against the parolee.

D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)

76. Which of the following is incorrect? a. A progress report is submitted to the BPP when a parolee has committed another crime and case is not yet decided by the court. b. A infraction report is submitted to the BPP when parolee violates another condition, appearing in his release document. c. Infraction report is submitted to the BPP where parolee is subsequently convicted of another crime. d. Upon receipt of a summary report, the BPP may issue and order of arrest and recommitment.

d. Upon receipt of a summary report, the BPP may issue and order of arrest and recommitment.

77. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence stated in the release document except if the petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.

A. Regional Director

78. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize outside travel of a parolee his area of jurisdiction for a period of not more than ___.

A. 30 days

79. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if probationer commits any violation of the terms and conditions during probation period.

A. Violation Report

80. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved by the ____.

A. Regional Director

81. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what government agency?

b. Board of Pardons and Parole

82. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and conditions appearing in his Release Documents? 1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon and Parole 2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the arrest of the parolee 3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that the continuation of his parole is incompatible with public welfare 4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 4, 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 3, 4 and 1

c. 1, 2 and 3

83. Senior Agila committed a crime with a penalty of Prision Mayor, then applied for Parole the BPP granted it. Later Senior Agila did and then violate and not complied with the condition given by the Competent Authority. Senior Agila was sent back to the Bureau of Correction to serve the unexpired portion of the sentence. Can he avail again the privilege of Parole? A. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the latter shall have served one- fourth (1/4) of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence. B. No. Because it given only once C. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the latter shall have served one-half (1/2) of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence. D. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the latter shall have served one-third (1/3) of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence.

A. Yes. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the latter shall have served one- fourth (1/4) of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence.

85.It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.

c. Executive clemency

86. Which of the following refers to an amendment of reducing a sentence of a convict or decreasing the incarceration of the original sentence?

A. Commutation of sentence

87. Which qualifications are to be met by an inmate for conditional pardon? A. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the maximum of the original indeterminate and/or definite prison term B. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the definite or aggregate prison terms C. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the minimum of the original indeterminate and/or definite prison term D. Has serve at least 1/5 of the determinate or aggregate prison term

C. Has serve at least 1⁄2 of the minimum of the original indeterminate and/or definite prison term

88. What portion of the sentence of a petitioner must have been served to be eligible for the grant of commutation of sentence in case of definite sentence?

C. At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence

91. The exemption of an individual, within certain limits or conditions from the punishment which the law inflicts from the offense he has committed resulting into partial extension of criminal liability, which of these represents the statement? A. Reprieve granted to suspend the death B. Parole granted to mr. joenehl C. Probation granted to mr. eugenio D. Conditional pardon granted to mr. jeric

D. Conditional pardon granted to mr. jeric

89. Which of the following refers to the punishment with condition and partially exempted from criminal liability?

D. Conditional pardon

92. For amnesty to be granted there should be ______. A. Recommended from united nations B. Application C. Concurrence of congress D. Recommendation from commission on human rights

C. Concurrence of congress

90. Pardon is granted to individual offender while amnesty is granted to _____.

A. Classes of persons with the same political belief

93. Under article VII, section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippine constitution, pardoning power is vested with the ____.

B. Chief executive

94. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended bythe president thru the recommendation of the board of pardon and parole?

C. Pardon

95. In absolute pardon, there is total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition. Is also restores _____.

C. Civil and political rights

96. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the board should refer the petition to the probation and parole officer who should conduct and investigation within ____.

D. 30 days

97. In case of an alien, the petition for executive clemency should be referred to the A. Bureau of immigration B. Department of justice C. Department of foreign affairs D. All of the above

C. Department of foreign affairs

98. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be referred by the Board to the ____ for comment and recommendation if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security or public orders or laws of the nations. A. Secretary of National Defense B. Secretary of Department of Foreign Affairs C. Secretary of justice D. Secretary of COMELEC

A. Secretary of National Defense

99. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of sentence are not eligible for executive clemency for a period of ____ from the date of their last recommitment to prison or conviction for evasion of service of sentence.

C. 1 year

100. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an ordinary crime. a. General pardon b. Absolute pardon c. Conditional pardon d. Special pardon

d. Special pardon

THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES

1. It is a characteristic of human rights that is not granted by any person or authority

b. Inherent

2. Without them, the life and dignity of man will be meaningless

a. Fundamental

3. It cannot be rightfully taken away from a free individual. Cannot be given away or be forfeited.

d. Inalienable

4. It cannot be lost even if man fails to use or assert them, even by a long passage of time

c. Imprescriptible

5. Not capable of being divided. Cannot be denied even when other rights have already been enjoyed

C. Indivisible

6. It applies irrespective of one's origin, status, or condition or place where one lives. Rights can be enforced without national border.

A. Universal

7. The fulfillment or exercise of one cannot be had without the realization of the other.

B. Interdependent

8. The person’s “immediate family” shall include the following, except A. Fiancée B. Spouse C. Guardian or ward D. Cousin

9. Every prisoner who is not allowed to wear his/her own clothing shall be provided with an outfit of clothing not suitable for the climate and adequate to keep him or her in good health. a. True b. False c. Maybe d. No comment

b. False

10. Every prisoner who is not employed in outdoor work shall have ____ of suitable exercise in the open air daily if the weather permits.

c. at least one hour

11. The use of chains, irons or other instruments of restraint which are inherently degrading or painful shall not be prohibited. a Yes b False c No d True

b False

12. 90 days of good behavior is equal to how many minutes of telephone call? a. 5 minutes of telephone call b. 10 minutes of telephone call c. 15 minutes of telephone call d. 20 minutes of telephone call

a. 5 minutes of telephone call

13. Prisoners with mental disabilities shall be detained in prisons. A. Yes B. True C. No D. False

D. False

14. How much is the food allowance of prisoners per day? a 50 pesos b 69 pesos c 70 pesos d 60 pesos

c 70 pesos

15. Who may apply for compensation to the board of claims? a. any person who was unjustly accused, convicted and imprisoned but subsequently released by virtue of a judgment of acquittal b.any person who was unjustly detained and released without being charged c. victim of violent crime which includes rape in offences committed with malice which resulted in death or serious physical and/or psychological injuries d. All of the above

d. All of the above

16. Malaki Fukiko was a victim of violent crime of rape, when should a claim be filed to the board of claims?

d. From the date she suffered damage or injury

17. How much is given to the qualified applicant?

a. 1 thousand pesos per month

18. Erick was unjustly accused, convicted and imprisoned for 10 years but subsequently released by virtue of a judgment of acquittal, how much will be given to him by board of claims?

a. 10 thousand pesos

19. It is an environment that helps people get help while helping others. It is a treatment environment : the interactions of its members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the norms that require for each to play the dual role of client therapist.

a. Therapeutic Community (TC)

20. What is the program of activity directed to restore a PDL’s self respect and sense of responsibility to community, thereby making him/her a law-abiding citizen after serving his/her sentence.

a. Rehabilitation

21.A means of amending or improving by changing an inmate’s behavior or removing his or her faults or abuse and removing or correcting an abuse of a wrong or error.

b. Reformation

22. It is the process where victims, offenders, and communities affected by a particular offense meet to find a way to restore or make amends for the harm resulting from an offense.

c. Restoration

23. It is a self-help movement for the treatment of substance abusers; primarily using behavioral modifications techniques. It is based on self-help principles.

d. The American Drug-free Hierarchical Concept-based TC

24. It developed as a professional group work method to treat people suffering from a range of psychiatric difficulties, primarily using social learning principles. It is a small face-to-face residential community using social analysis as its main tool.

a. The British Democratic Maxwell Jones-type TC

25. The following are the core programs of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology EXCEPT. A. Cultural and Sports B. Welfare and Development C. Provision of basic services D. Special Services

D. Special Services

26. All PDL under custody are provided with three (3) meals (breakfast, lunch and supper). Adequate supply of potable water is made available to them at all times.

A. Provision of Basic Needs

27. The ___ program presents income-generating activities to PDL during their confinement where they are able to earn for their personal upkeep and for financial support to their families.

C. Livelihood Program

28. A program that aims to promote camaraderie among PDL, encourage the development of self- confidence and sharing of cultural talents as form of positive entertainment

D. Cultural and Sports Program

29. The main objective of the Paralegal Program is to address the _____ in jail facilities.

C. Overcrowding

30. The objective of this program is to equip the PDL with technical/vocational skills which they can use in seeking employment or starting their own business after release from confinement.

B. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program

31. This program aims to provide opportunities for PDL to achieve mandatory education

A. Educational Program

32. PDL enrolled in the ALS earn their respective Time Allowance for Teaching, Studying and Mentoring (TASTM) pursuant to RA 10592 for how many days per month?

A. 15 days

33. PDL experience some sense of social normalcy through the communal celebrations of socio-cultural events like birthdays, Valentine’s Day, Mothers’ and Fathers’ Day, Christmas, Lent and Easter, Ramadan, local festivals and other similar activities.

D. Cultural and Sports Program

34. It is a treatment environment: the interactions of its members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the norms that require for each to play the dual role of

B. Client- Therapist

35. Therapeutic Community Modality as a model includes the following categories namely: I. Behavior management II. Intellectual/spiritual aspect III. Emotional and social aspects IV. Vocational/survival aspects A. I, B.I,II C.I,II,III D.I,II,III,IV

D.I,II,III,IV

36. The phases of treatment under TCMP should be in what order? I. Primary Treatment II. Aftercare III. Entry/Orientation Phase IV. Pre Re-entry V. Re-entry A.lll,lV,l,V,ll B.lll,V,lV,l,ll C. III,I,IV,V,II D.III,I, V,IV,II

C. III,I,IV,V,II

37. A phase wherein the resident is handled gently and is expected to commit mistakes in the process of learning the program.

A. Entry/ Orientation Phase

38. Once the PDL is committed to jail, he undergoes a series of examinations to determine his physical, social and psychological status. Upon his commitment, a resident is placed on orientation at the Reception and Diagnostic room/Orientation room. In here, he is acquainted with the TC program. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic Modality is being described?

a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase

39. In the ideal setting, a resident at this stage is now ready to be released back to society as he has demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic Modality is being describe?

d. Phase IV- Re-entry

40. Refers to a class of therapeutic techniques for altering behavioral by changing one or more aspects of an individual’s environment. It means any intervention or treatment that utilizes positive reinforcement and/or restrictions to help an individual receiving services to develop and/or strengthen recovery-oriented behaviors and to address and correct treatment targeted behaviors.

b. Behavior Management

41. These are employed to strengthen the learning process and the practice of more adaptive behaviors within the social learning environment.

a. Behavior shaping tools

42. Is an outright correction done by any member of the TC community to another member who has done a minor infraction but is not aware of it.

A. TALK TO

43. It is done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the third time or more or for first time grave offenses. The tone is more serious and can be loud, more harsh and exaggerated.

D.HAIRCUT

44. Containment actions that limit certain privileges to all or portions of the community for major breakdowns in house structure.

D. Bans

45. It is done when a resident is incorrigible and becomes a threat to community.

C. Expulsion

46.Noel often neglected to organized his bed, so the staffs requested him to teach incoming resident on how to maintain their bed neat and orderly. What hierarchy of behavior shaping tools was violated in this behavior.

d. Learning experience / Bans

47. The principal guiding rule observed by all residents in a TC Community with heavier corresponding consequences.

d. Cardinal rules

48. Which of the following is not a part of the Phase I( Entry/Orientation) of the BJMP Therapeutic Modality?

a. Rebuilding Social and Family ties

49. What is the therapeutic community unwritten philosophy which is described by this adage “NO FREE LUNCH”

D. If we want something, work for it

50. Rendon an inmate is unable to sleep and eat while serving his sentence due to loneliness and despair should undergo:

D. counseling

51. A professional activity of helping individuals, groups or communities enhance or restore their capacity for psychological, emotional and social functioning and creating an environment favorable for the attainment of these goals.

a. counseling

52. Refers to the ability to perceive the client’s feelings and to demonstrate accurate perception of the client. It is putting oneself in the client’s shoes.

b. empathy

53. Also known as genuineness. It includes the act of being honest and authentic in dealing with the client. It is showing real concern rather than focusing on techniques during sessions.

c. Congruence

54. It means that anything discussed during counseling sessions is held absolutely private and not to be discussed anywhere.

d. Confidentiality

55. When to break Confidentiality? a. Children are being neglected or abused b. Appearance in Court as a witness or client express plan to commit suicide c. Client express plan to harm others d. all mentioned above

d. all mentioned above

56. Any action or activity that reflects or brings out the goodness in a man. It is the broad concept of a belief in something beyond the self.

a. Spirituality

57. This embodies all the challenges and aspirations of most residents who feel alienated and the desire to overcome the imposed limitations on their freedom and find their own place where they could feel safe and welcome.

b. Therapeutic Community Philosophy

58. It refers to a word or saying that will serve as a guide for the community to ponder upon in relation to their day to day interactions and behaviors. It is elaborated during the Morning Meeting by some members of the community to emphasize its relevance and how it can stimulate the residents’ thoughts and help them change their behavior into something positive.

a. Theme/concept of the day

59. A type of dormitory with inmate capacity of 69 inmates

C. Type C

60. Online or e-marketing of PDL livelihood products is being run by the _______.

A. Welfare and Development Office

61. “Whatever you do unto others will be done unto you” is an example of what TC unwritten Philosophies?

A. “What goes around comes around”

62. What is the therapeutic community philosophy which is described by this “ I am here because there is no refuge, finally from myself.”

a. Surrender

63. It refers to the belief in the client’s ability to make appropriate decisions and deal appropriately with his or her life situation when given a safe and supportive environment in which to do so.

b. Respect

64. A permanent group of peers and leaders that meet regularly while the residents are in treatment. It is a sort of “home” group who provides support for one another and to the new members of the community.

a. Static group

65. Serves as safety valve within the community which is usually highly pressured and structured. It is a forum for members of the community to verbally express pent-up or negative emotions within a structured and safe environment without resorting to violence or aggression and without fear of reprisals.

c. Encounter group

66. Are a group activity where participants are givenmthe opportunity to unload emotional baggage and thus experience freedom from internal psychological conflicts.

d. Secrets

67. A phase of encounter group which involves verbalization of concerns or honest disclosure of emotions that has been provoked during interpersonal

a. Confrontation

68. It is structured social event where all those involved in an encounter will have ample time to mend fences with those they have offended or hurt in the past. The purpose is to achieve closure, reaffirm relationships and maintain the unity of the community so that all those involved can move on and leave the past behind.

d. Socialization

69. What is the process that helps people identify stressors and helps them stay calm in anger management for them to handle tense situations in a constructive and positive way

d. Anger Management

70. It focuses on the "here and now" but allows a deeper exploration of issues that affects new behavior. Special subject's may be the focus such as sexuality, trauma, etc.

A.Extended Group

71. It is used to help an individual establish a practice of moving his attention within, finding his place of relaxation and peace by contacting his inner wisdom.

a. Visualization meditation

72. These are the Separation of Categories under the UN Standard Treatment for PDL, except: A. Men and women should be separated B. Untried prisoners shall be kept separated from convicted prisoners C. Prisoners should be separated according the nature of their offense/crime D. Young prisoners should be kept separated from adults E. None of these

E. None of these

73. This are activities in TC that provide intellectual stimulation and seek personal involvement among the residents.

b. seminars

74. It is introduced to provide the residents the opportunity to learn how to reason ably and put together arguments in a logical manner.

c. debate

75. What refer to a form of seminar which enhances the residents’ ability to communicate, analyze ideas and develop insights about themselves with the use of identification with inanimate objects.

b. Grab Bag

76. In the BJMP, (TCMP) was introduced in what year?

B. 1998

77. These refer to a person who will provide to newly commit PDL with support and will walk him through the orientation phase

c. Big brother

78. To introduce and institutionalize TCMP as the ___program of the BJMP for inmate development

C. Backbone

79. An alternative to the traditional face-to-face visitation between PDL and respective families.

d. E-dalaw

80. What is the process through which remorseful offenders accept responsibility for their misconduct, particularly to their victims and to the community. It creates an obligation to make things right through proactive involvement of victims, ownership of the offender of the crime and the community in search for solution which promote repair, reconciliation and reassurance.

a. Restorative Justice

81. The TC Cardinal Rules are important in maintaining the integrity of the community and in fostering a safe environment.Which of the following is not among the Cardinal Rules.

a.No gambling

82. This is given by peers, elders and staff when they do not know who the transgressor is. It demands awareness and immediate behavior change from erring client.

d.Pull-ups

83. This TC Unwritten Philosophy means “a reward for working hard is well deserved. We get what we put into.”

a.Compensation is valid

84. The purpose of this is to start the day and motivate clients to begin the day in a positive way. This helps them cope with issues arising within the day.

c.Morning meeting

85. This is employed to facilitate a conscious learning process, enhance self-awareness by teaching instead of meting out routine punishment.

c.Learning experience

86. There are four major programs under the mandate of BJMP and they are the following, except? a. Provisions of Basic Needs b. Welfare and development program c. Decongestion program d. Good governance

a. Provisions of Basic Needs

88. In the hierarchy of Behavior Shaping Tools (BST), this is the most severe punishment imposed upon a client.

a. Banishment

87. Raul, a TC resident has internalized the TC values and concept and has given a lesser supervision as he has proven his ability to take on more responsibility. In what phase of the modality does he belong to?

C. Phase III

89. This is the means used for enforcing community sanctions.on behaviors that undermine the safety and integrity of the community.

c. Behavioral Shaping Tools

90. A BJMP TCMP Phase, wherein the resident is expected to have proven his ability to take on more responsibility hence needs lesser supervision.

C. Pre Entry Phase

91. A BJMP TCMP phase, wherein the resident is learning how to trust the environment by disclosing self to the community and develop insight in the process.

B. Primary Treatment

92. TCMP is under this BJMP Core Program –

c. Behavioral Management Program

93. A Behavioral Shaping Tool done as a result of lack, missed or lapses in awareness in a resident. It encourages honesty, demeanor awareness and owning up to one’s mistakes.

B. Pull Up

94. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the third time or more or for first time grave offenses.

D. Hair Cut

95. Done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for the second time of same offense by a resident.

C. Dealt With

96. It identifies the duties & responsibilities each member is expected to carry out in order that the goals of the organization can be achieved.

97. It is also known as unconditional positive regard. It involves accepting and caring about the client as a person, regardless of any evaluation or prejudices on the client’s behavior or thoughts.

a. Warmth

98. The following are the Skills and Characteristics of Counselling, except: a. Congruence b. Respect c. Sympathy d. Warmth

c. Sympathy

99. The highest position attained by a resident in a TC Hierarchy, who works with the staff in running the house, implementing rules. With corresponding status, a resident has an authority over the other residents.

C. Coordinator

100. The lowest position in the TC hierarchy

A. General Worker