CDI 1 TO 6

Question 1

3. Which of the following is not one of the forms ofinformation the investigator obtained from regular, cultivatedor grapevine sources?a. Sensory c. Concreteb. Written d. Physical forms

Answer 1

c. Concrete

Question 2

8. Coerced and uncounseled statements are consideredinvoluntary or forced confessions which are usually:

Answer 2

b. Extra judicial

Question 3

10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?a. Proof of the occurrence of certain eventb. Person’s criminal responsibility for the actsc. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame pointd. Proper chain of custody

Answer 3

c. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame point

Question 4

11. An act or declaration made in the presence and withinthe hearing or observation of a party who does or saysnothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for actionif comment is not true.

Answer 4

a. Admission by Silence

Question 5

13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied. It shouldbe direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.

Answer 5

c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true

Question 6

14. Which of the following need not be present in order toprove the guilt of the accused by means of confession oradmission?a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidenceb. Corpus delicti must be established separatelyc. Confession must be voluntarily and freely givend. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

Answer 6

d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

Question 7

19. A person who, by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest, willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own initiative.

Answer 7

b. Casual informant

Question 8

20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by humanor technical means to acquire information.

Answer 8

a. Surveillance

Question 9

22. This is also called “roping”, an investigation technique in which the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.

Answer 9

a. Undercover assignment

Question 10

25. What is the type of reasoning in which the collected information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.

Answer 10

a. Inductive

Question 11

26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, theinvestigator’s rational theory of the crime may begin with deductivelogic and later on inductive logic;Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learnedguess, but less than certainty and has very high order of probability.

Answer 11

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

Question 12

27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physicalappearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description ofthe witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction,conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of thevarious witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting

Answer 12

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct

Question 13

28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimalrequirements to be observed by the investigator to insure admissibilityof photographs in court:a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevantb. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathyc. The photograph shouldd. All of the above

Answer 13

d. All of the above

Question 14

34. Statement No. 1- The systematic procedure for verbaldescription of a person after a short period of visualobservation is termed Portrait Parle;Statement No. 2- Description of police characters which awitness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose ofreferences is Rogue’s Gallerya. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrectb. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrectc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 14

c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct

Question 15

35. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside fromthe marking should be made immediately after receipt by theevidence custodianStatement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidenceshould be made at the crime scene upon collection.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is correctc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 15

b. Statement No. 2 is correct

Question 16

36. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?a. At the time of custodial investigationb. During the actual questioningc. During the announcement that he is under arrestd. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

Answer 16

d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

Question 17

38. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchersgather at the center, and proceed outward along radius orspokes.Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow eachother along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside andspiraling toward the center.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is incorrectc. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 17

d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Question 18

39. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:

Answer 18

c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix withthe crowd to listen to their conversation

Question 19

40. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical formsb. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered fromthe regular, cultivated and grapevine sourcesc. Persons and thingsd. A and B only

Answer 19

c. Persons and things

Question 20

42. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:

Answer 20

A. RA 8049

Question 21

44. This is the first that an investigator must do upon hisarrival at the scene of the crime:

Answer 21

C. Interview ofwitness

Question 22

48. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has justbeen unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness arestill emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.

Answer 22

a. Hot case

Question 23

49. This law is known as the “ Rape Victim Assistance andprotection Act of 1998”.

Answer 23

b. RA 8505

Question 24

1. A quality of good report where it should be a true representation of facts (correctness) to the best of the investigator’s ability.

Answer 24

a. Accuracy

Question 25

2. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigation steps accomplished

Answer 25

b. Synopsis

Question 26

Same kind and same point

Answer 26

Cummulative evidence

Question 27

Different kind of evidence and same point

Answer 27

Corroborative evidence

Question 28

Specific information to general theory

Answer 28

Inductive

Question 29

General theory to specific information

Answer 29

Deductive

Question 30

2. After identifying, collecting and preserving informationgathered about the crime, the investigator shall_______________ such information to determine whether itcan stand prosecution and trial.

Answer 30

d. Evaluate

Question 31

4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible thingsmay be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate,and assist the investigator in its task in achieving theobjectives of criminal investigation.

Answer 31

c. Instrumentation

Question 32

5. Which phase of criminal Investigation will the investigatorapprise the person of his rights under Republic Act 7438?a. During the identification of criminal offenderb. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of theoffenderc. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt ofcriminal offenderd. During police line-up

Answer 32

b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of theoffender

Question 33

6. What specific offense has been committed? Who committedit? When was it committed? Where was it committed? Why wasit committed? And how was it committed? These are called the_______________________ of criminal investigation.

Answer 33

a. Cardinal Points

Question 34

7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in any or acombination of the following, except:a. By confession or admission by the criminalb. By corpus delictic. By circumstantial evidenced. By eyewitness

Answer 34

b. By corpus delicti

Question 35

8. Coerced and uncounseled statements are consideredinvoluntary or forced confessions which are usually:

Answer 35

b. Extra judicial

Question 36

9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438,Gino Aquino was invited and interrogated for the crime ofmurder. He executed an extra-judicial confessionacknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is theeffect of such confession to his case?

Answer 36

a. It can be used as evidence against him

Question 37

10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?a. Proof of the occurrence of certain eventb. Person’s criminal responsibility for the actsc. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame pointd. Proper chain of custody

Answer 37

c. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame point

Question 38

11. An act or declaration made in the presence and withinthe hearing or observation of a party who does or saysnothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for actionif comment is not true.

Answer 38

a. Admission by Silence

Question 39

12. In this process, written confession of the accused is usedas a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthensthe prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge thatthe accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister

Answer 39

b. Crime reenactment

Question 40

13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement,either oral or written, made by a person charged with thecommission of a crime which he admits participation in, orcommission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied. It shouldbe direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accusedregarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connectionwith the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. Itcan be implied.a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is falseb. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is truec. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false

Answer 40

c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true

Question 41

14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of confession or admission?a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidenceb. Corpus delicti must be established separatelyc. Confession must be voluntarily and freely givend. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

Answer 41

d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

Question 42

15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?a. Verbal Description and Rogue’s Galleryb. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketchc. Police Line-upd. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

Answer 42

d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

Question 43

16. You are an investigator of a suspected rape-slaying casewhich was allegedly witnessed by a certain person whovolunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator.What are the factors that you should not consider todetermine the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearanceof the suspectb. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation whenthe crime was committedc. His state of mind when he witnessed thecommission of the crimed. The lapse of time between the criminal event and whenidentification was made

Answer 43

c. His state of mind when he witnessed thecommission of the crime

Question 44

17. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that indirectly proves afact in issue through an inference which fact-finder draws fromthe evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce theconviction of the accused if:a. There are more than one circumstances presentb. The facts from which the inferences derived are provenc. The combination of all the circumstances is such as toproduce a conviction beyond reasonable doubtAll of the above

Answer 44

All of the above

Question 45

19. A person who, by social or professional position possessesor has access to information of continuing interest, willinglyprovides information to the police either in response to aspecific request or his own initiative.

Answer 45

b. Casual informant

Question 46

20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by humanor technical means to acquire information.

Answer 46

a. Surveillance

Question 47

21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are stationed at afixed point assuming that subject follows the same generalroute each day.

Answer 47

b. Leap Frog Method

Question 48

22. This is also called “roping”, an investigation technique inwhich the operative conceals his true identity and adopts anassumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specificmission.

Answer 48

a. Undercover assignment

Question 49

23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected murdercase which the there is no known suspect, no witnesses nor any othercircumstantial evidence, except physical evidence. Where can you getthese pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity of the suspect?

Answer 49

a. The Crime Scene

Question 50

24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct thecrime scene. What are the components of the crime scenesituation which you would analyze?a. The suspect’s arrival at the scene and place of entryb. Movement of the suspect from point of entry and hiscontact with the victimc. The suspect’s place of exitd. All of the above

Answer 50

d. All of the above

Question 51

25. What is the type of reasoning in which the collected information isanalyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.

Answer 51

a. Inductive

Question 52

26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, theinvestigator’s rational theory of the crime may begin with deductivelogic and later on inductive logic;Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learnedguess, but less than certainty and has very high order of probability.a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is falseb. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is truec. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

Answer 52

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

Question 53

27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physicalappearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description ofthe witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction,conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of thevarious witnesses. No assumption is made without supportingevidence.a. Statement no. 1 is correctb. Statement no. 2 is incorrectc. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 53

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct

Question 54

28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimalrequirements to be observed by the investigator to insure admissibilityof photographs in court:a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial orirrelevantb. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathyc. The photograph should be free from distortiond. All of the above

Answer 54

d. All of the above

Question 55

29. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of thefamily are as follows, except:a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sisterb. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, greatgranddaughter/grandsonc. Uncle, aunt, guardian, wardd. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

Answer 55

d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

Question 56

30. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:

Answer 56

d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration,Inquiry, Conclusion

Question 57

31. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?

Answer 57

d. Surveying

Question 58

32. Application of all procedures for the search of missingpersons.

Answer 58

b. Tracing

Question 59

33. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape,damaged or lost because of:a. Improper packagingb. Corruption of investigatorc. Non-maintenance of chain of custodyd. A and C are true

Answer 59

d. A and C are true

Question 60

34. Statement No. 1- The systematic procedure for verbaldescription of a person after a short period of visualobservation is termed Portrait Parle;Statement No. 2- Description of police characters which awitness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose ofreferences is Rogue’s Gallerya. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrectb. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrectc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 60

c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct

Question 61

35. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside fromthe marking should be made immediately after receipt by theevidence custodianStatement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidenceshould be made at the crime scene upon collection.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is correctc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 61

b. Statement No. 2 is correct

Question 62

36. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police custodyof suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled tobe informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine whichcannot be waived?a. At the time of custodial investigationb. During the actual questioningc. During the announcement that he is under arrestd. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

Answer 62

d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

Question 63

37. What is the principal psychological factor that contributesto a successful interrogation?

Answer 63

a. Privacy

Question 64

38. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchersgather at the center, and proceed outward along radius orspokes.Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow eachother along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside andspiraling toward the center.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is incorrectc. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Answer 64

d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Question 65

39. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:

Answer 65

c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix withthe crowd to listen to their conversation

Question 66

40. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:

Answer 66

c. Persons and things

Question 67

41. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dyingperson. You will obtain dying declaration from him. Which of thefollowing is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?

Answer 67

c. Attempt to save the life of the victim

Question 68

42. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:

Answer 68

A. RA 8049

Question 69

43. The notion which declares that human behavior tends torepeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator indetermining:

Answer 69

B. Modus operandi

Question 70

44. This is the first that an investigator must do upon hisarrival at the scene of the crime:

Answer 70

C. Interview ofwitness

Question 71

45. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification:

Answer 71

A. Cartographic sketch

Question 72

46. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer wholeads the execution of a valid search warrant. Who must bepresent when a valid search warrant is conducted on adomicile?A. The house ownerB. Any member of the house owner’s familyC. Two witnesses residing in the same communityD. All of the above

Answer 72

D. All of the above

Question 73

47. In Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidence obtained inviolation of any of these is inadmissible, except one.a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizuresb. Right to privacy and communication and correspondencec. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incriminationd. Right to counsel

Answer 73

d. Right to counsel

Question 74

48. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has justbeen unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness arestill emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.

Answer 74

a. Hot case

Question 75

49. This law is known as the “ Rape Victim Assistance andprotection Act of 1998”.

Answer 75

b. RA 8505

Question 76

50. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence need to bephotographed after its removal from the crime scene?

Answer 76

b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of thewounds

Question 77

51. The photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime are thefollowing, except:a. Over-All and environment’s photographb. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of thedeceasedc. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showingtheir identityd. Special technique photographs of the body after removal

Answer 77

c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showingtheir identity

Question 78

52. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered tobe the simplest and the most effective way of showing actualmeasurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in theirlocation at the scene.

Answer 78

a. Crime scene sketch

Question 79

53. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene,the following types of search could be used dependingupon locale, number of personnel available, type of objectsought and speed desired, except:a. Strip and double strip or grid searchb. Zone searchc. Rectangular and circular searchd. Spiral and wheel search

Answer 79

c. Rectangular and circular search

Question 80

54. Which of the following must be done to maintain thephysical integrity of evidence?

Answer 80

d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence

Question 81

55. Which of the following must be done to maintain thelegal integrity of evidence?

Answer 81

b. Maintain its chain of custody

Question 82

56. The methodology involving the systematic searching,handling, distribution and accountability of all evidencefound at the crime scene, including the documentation ofevery article of evidence from the point of initial discoveryat the scene, to its collection and transport to the point ofexamination, its temporary storage and its final disposal isreferred to us.

Answer 82

d. Chainof custody

Question 83

57. To prove the chain of custody of evidence, thefollowing must be demonstrated, except:a. The evidence must be free from alteration,contamination and switchingb. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at thescene

Answer 83

d. Any change in the condition of the evidence canbe explained

Question 84

58. Which of the following is not one of the questioningtechniques that should be utilized in interrogation?a. Chronological c. Going backwardb. General to specific d. Goingupward

Answer 84

d. Goingupward

Question 85

59. In questioning a witness, the ideal type of writtenstatement is:a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be shortb. Question and answer because it provides detailsof actsc. Combination of the twod. Your convenient type

Answer 85

b. Question and answer because it provides detailsof acts

Question 86

60. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answerquestions pertinent to the murder case being investigated.After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however,he was held for further questioning and considered him asuspect already. Persons who can visit him are as follow,except:a. Lovers, friends and countrymenb. Immediate member of his familyc. Any medical doctor, priest or religious ministerd. Personnel of the C.H.R.

Answer 86

a. Lovers, friends and countrymen

Question 87

61. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rapeb. Duel, abortion and infanticidec. Homicide and murderd. Parricide

Answer 87

a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape

Question 88

62. Vincent killed his adopter after the rendition of judgment of the petition foradoption. What was the crime committed by Vincent?

Answer 88

c. Homicide

Question 89

63. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are thatmistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected and thehomicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which heburns behind him. Which of the following is not one of the so called“Burned bridges”?a. When the dead person has been movedb. When the dead body has been embalmedc. When the dead body has been contaminated and thechain of custody was not properly accountedd. When the body is burned or cremated

Answer 89

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and thechain of custody was not properly accounted

Question 90

64. This is considered to be the beginning of any homicideinvestigation.

Answer 90

a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death

Question 91

65. In a case of dead person, when should autopsy be performed?

Answer 91

b. At once, when there is the slightest reason to suspectthe probability of homicide

Question 92

66. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigatorupon arrival at the homicide scene?a. Verification of the victim’s deathb. Identification of the person who is responsible for the deathc. Call a physician for the proper declaration of deathd. All of the above

Answer 92

a. Verification of the victim’s death

Question 93

67. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?

Answer 93

d. All of the above

Question 94

68. You were a police officer who responded in a violent crime justrecently occurred. How would you determine signs of death?a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movementb. By hearing heart soundsc. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a persond. Any of the above

Answer 94

d. Any of the above

Question 95

69. The following are the uses of physical evidence, except:a. Determine the cause of crimeb. Reconstruct the crimec. Identify the participantsd. Confirm or discredit an alibi

Answer 95

a. Determine the cause of crime

Question 96

70. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three importantfactors may be considered, except:a. The article must be properly identifiedb. Continuity or chain of custodyc. Legality of the procurementd. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material andrelevant

Answer 96

c. Legality of the procurement

Question 97

71. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of thesuperficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by the frictionagainst a hard rough surface.

Answer 97

b. Abrasions

Question 98

72. Statement no. 1-The admissibility of dying declaration is notdependent on it being made in any particular form.Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form requiredand need not be under oath.a. Statement no. 1 is trueb. Statement no. 2 is falsec. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

Answer 98

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

Question 99

73. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, theinvestigator must be sure that the following had already beenperformed:1. Crime scene search is made and sketch and photographsare taken.2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken intoconsiderations and relative position of the body was determined.3. Notes are properly taken; evidence are identified,collected and preserved.4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, theprosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.a. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 99

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 100

74. Below are the acts falling under rape by sexual assault, except:a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouthb. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orificec. Inserting penis while the woman is sleepingd Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital oranal orifice of another person.

Answer 100

c. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping

Question 101

75. Post-mortem change that is characterized by thediscoloration of the body after death.

Answer 101

A. livor mortis

Question 102

76. What injury would a person sustain if he or she hasbeen hit in the head with a hard object?

Answer 102

A. lacerated wound

Question 103

77. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:

Answer 103

B. RA 7877

Question 104

78. Which of the following body system coincides with thestopping of a mental organ function of a person to bemedically “dead”?

Answer 104

C. central nervous

Question 105

79. Identification of a dead body through examination ofthe teeth:

Answer 105

C. Forensicodontology

Question 106

80. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:

Answer 106

A. RA 7080

Question 107

81. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?

Answer 107

C. Abduction

Question 108

82. Which of the following is not one of the acts ofcommitting violation of domicile?

Answer 108

C. Search of the domicile without warrant

Question 109

83. Senior Police Officer II Melendez and Police Officer ICastillo arrested and detained Jose Ramos without anylegal basis for the crime of theft. When brought to theinquest prosecutor, the latter issued a release order. Whatcrime, if any, do the officers commit?

Answer 109

A. Arbitrary detention

Question 110

84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child,whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of hisascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?

Answer 110

c. Parricide

Question 111

85. A and B are husband and wife. While working assecurity guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night anddecided to go home around midnight. He saw B havingsexual intercourse with their neighbor, C. A grabbed C andhacked the latter to death. As Criminologist-Investigatorwhat crime if any would you charged against A?

Answer 111

a. Homicide

Question 112

86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offendermust have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intentto kill, the offender is liable for:

Answer 112

a. Physical injury

Question 113

87. Under RA 8294, the use of unlicensed firearm in thecommission of a crime is not considered as a separatecrime but shall be appreciated as a-

Answer 113

b. Mere aggravating circumstance

Question 114

88. X, a male, takes Y, another male, to a motel andthere, through threat and intimidation, succeeds ininserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any,does X commit?

Answer 114

b. Rape

Question 115

90. In what order would the steps be done by theinvestigator upon the finding of an evidential cigarettebutt?

Answer 115

C. 2, 3 and 1

Question 116

91. In the course of investigating the house where astabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains onthe front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and thevictim who may die were both cut their identities need tobe established through the bloodstains. How will the policecollect the stains?

Answer 116

C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a cleanrazor blade

Question 117

92. Majority of the mistakes committed relative toevidence, take place:1. during periods of transportation2. in the collection of samples3. a contaminated sampling4. the wrong type material

Answer 117

D. 2 and 3

Question 118

93. Once the crime scene has been thoroughlydocumented and locations of evidence was noted, thecollection process begins and will usually starts with:

Answer 118

C. fragile evidence

Question 119

94. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?

Answer 119

D. release of crime scene

Question 120

95. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked foridentification?

Answer 120

B. Marking at the back

Question 121

96. Which among the five human senses is considered themost objective?

Answer 121

D. Seeing

Question 122

97. How can identification be made on a decomposedcadaver?A. study his bones C. study his denturesB. study his skull D. all of these

Answer 122

D. all of these

Question 123

98. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.

Answer 123

a. RA 9775

Question 124

99. Philippine Act on Crimes Against InternationalHumanitarian Law, Genocide, and other Crimes againstHumanity.

Answer 124

b. RA 9851

Question 125

100. In the Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidenceobtained in violation of any of these is inadmissible, exceptone:a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizuresb. Right to privacy and communication andcorrespondencec. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incriminationd. Right to counsel

Answer 125

d. Right to counsel

Question 126

1. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as thefirst or earliest recorded medico legal expert.a. Antistius

Answer 126

b. Imhotep

Question 127

2. First chief medico legal officer of the PhilippineCommonwelth.

Answer 127

c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin

Question 128

3. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.

Answer 128

c. Paulus Zacchias

Question 129

4. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon,who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar, reportingthat out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated thechest cavity between the first and second rib which wasCaesar’s proximate cause of death.

Answer 129

a. Antistius

Question 130

5. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau ofInvestigation.

Answer 130

d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos

Question 131

6. This states that the greater number of points ofsimilarities and variations between two persons, thegreater the probability of the conclusion to be accurate.

Answer 131

c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification

Question 132

7. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.

Answer 132

c. Reddish-brown

Question 133

8. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color,with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel withpressure.

Answer 133

a. Arterial blood

Question 134

9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usuallydoes not spill far from the wound.

Answer 134

b. Venous blood

Question 135

10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleinsbacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions.

Answer 135

c. Menstrual blood

Question 136

11. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced inthe blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finercapillaries and arteries.

Answer 136

b. Embolism

Question 137

12. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheraldeficiency, characterized by the decreased blood volume,its flow, hemo-concentration and renal deficiency.

Answer 137

b. Shock

Question 138

13. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation dueto inflicted wounds in the cardio-vascular system.

Answer 138

c. Hemorrhage

Question 139

14. The growth and development of micro-organism in thelocation of the injury or wound.

Answer 139

a. Infection

Question 140

15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skindue to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of theapplication of a blunt force.

Answer 140

a. Contusion

Question 141

16. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.

Answer 141

a. Defense wound

Question 142

17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of theinstrument which caused it.

Answer 142

c. Patterned wound

Question 143

18. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of

Answer 143

b. Cremation

Question 144

19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section19 of the Code of Sanitation.

Answer 144

c. At least 1 and 1⁄2 meters deep

Question 145

20. A pers20. A person who died of a communicable disease mustbe buried with:on who died of a communicable disease mustbe buried with:

Answer 145

b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officerpermits extension

Question 146

21. A significant difference between the male and femaleskull is that in males, the supercialiary ridges are ______than compared with females.

Answer 146

a. Less sharp

Question 147

22. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared withmale pelvis.

Answer 147

a. Greater

Question 148

23. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessationin respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient todeclare a person clinically dead?

Answer 148

a. 10-15 minutes

Question 149

24. A simple test used to determine cessation ofrespiration by placing water or mercury in a container ontop of the chest of a person and no visible movement isnoticed.

Answer 149

a. Winslov test

Question 150

25. A muscular change characterized by the softness ofthe muscles and in which it no longer responds tomechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution ofproteins.

Answer 150

b. Stage of secondary flaccidity

Question 151

26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached froma dead body in how many days?

Answer 151

a. 7

Question 152

27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warmcountries within how many days from death?

Answer 152

c. 3

Question 153

28. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone,loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation offragment bones.

Answer 153

c. Communicated fracture

Question 154

29. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.

Answer 154

a. Internal hemorrhage

Question 155

30. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.

Answer 155

a. Imprint abrasion

Question 156

31. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.

Answer 156

a. Hypoxia

Question 157

33. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutinationwith either group A or B what would be the particularblood group of the sample?

Answer 157

d. Group O

Question 158

37. Average time for the stomach to empty its contentsafter meals.

Answer 158

b. 3 to 4 hours

Question 159

34. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibitchanges.

Answer 159

b. 20 years

Question 160

35. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish whitegreasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.

Answer 160

d. Maceration

Question 161

36. A discoloration of the body after death when the bloodtends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependentportions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes afterdeath and is completed by 12 hours.

Answer 161

b. Primary flaccidity

Question 162

38. Rate of growth of human hair.

Answer 162

a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day

Question 163

39. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of bodytemperature is about:

Answer 163

b. 15 to 20 0F

Question 164

40. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused byinfections carried in the blood stream. It may followobstruction of the pancreatic duct and subsequentcongestion of the gland.

Answer 164

d. Acute pancreatitis

Question 165

41. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.

Answer 165

a. Wound

Question 166

43. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

Answer 166

d. Hematoma

Question 167

42. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so seriousthat it will endanger one’s life.

Answer 167

b. Mortal wound

Question 168

43. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

Answer 168

d. Hematoma

Question 169

44. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles
    causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.

Answer 169

a. Sprain

Question 170

45. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone
    is evident.

Answer 170

d. fracture

Question 171

46. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone
    without external wounds.

Answer 171

d. Dislocation

Question 172

47. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of
    tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
    that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of
    the body to the gun is approximately:

Answer 172

a. 6 inches

Question 173

48. A physical injury which is found at the site and also
    the opposite site of the application of force.

Answer 173

d. Coup and contre coup injury

Question 173

49. A physical injury found at the site of the application of
    force.

Answer 173

b. Coup injury

Question 173

50. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log

Answer 173

c. Lacerated wound

Question 173

51. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what
    wound would be exhibited?

Answer 173

a. Punctured wound

Question 174

52. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

Answer 174

c. Lacerated wound

Question 174

53. A condition of a woman who has had one or more
    sexual experience but not had conceived a child.

Answer 174

d. Virgo-intacta

Question 175

54. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body.

Answer 175

d. Putrefaction

Question 175

55. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain
    parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of
    cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and
    diminished body temperature.

Answer 175

b. Frostbite

Question 176

56. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the
    breakdown of sweating mechanism.

Answer 176

b. Heat exhaustion

Question 176

57. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton,
    which part is not used?

Answer 176

d. Tibia

Question 176

58. These are superficial punctuate contusions seen most
    frequently at the side of the neck, overlaying or anterior
    to the sternomostoid muscle, breast and other parts of the
    body.

Answer 176

d. Love Bites

Question 177

59. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
    minutes would die, the cause of death would be:

Answer 177

a. Stupor

Question 177

60. Most effective method in determining sex of an
    individual.

Answer 177

a. Gonodal test

Question 177

61. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time
    of death.

Answer 177

d. Rigor mortis

Question 178

62. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:

Answer 178

d. Sexual intercourse

Question 178

63. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell
    occurs in:

Answer 178

b. 3 to 6 hours

Question 178

64. Most noticeable sign of death

Answer 178

d. Cessation of heart action and circulation

Question 179

65. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is
    no chance for complication or sequelae to develop.

Answer 179

b. Immediate or primary cause of death

Question 179

66. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged
    interval which allowed the development of serious
    suquelae which becomes the cause of death. It is usually
    common to cases involving stab wounds.

Answer 179

a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of
death

Question 179

67. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that
    death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful
    to proximate the time of death.

Answer 179

a. Flies

Question 180

68. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a
    trained physician.

Answer 180

a. Autopsy

Question 180

69. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act.

Answer 180

c. Vaginismus

Question 180

70. After death, the metabolic process inside the body
    ceases, heat is no longer produced and the body slowly
    loses its temperature.

Answer 180

a. Algor mortis

Question 181

71. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary
    cassation of the vital functions of the body.

Answer 181

c. Suspended animation

Question 181

72. Hair on the body surface is usually:

Answer 181

c. Fine

Question 181

73. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill
    in the body and non-existent reflexes.

Answer 181

b. Coma

Question 181

74. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the fetus
    is______ months.

Answer 181

b. 9 months

Question 182

75. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma,
    absence of electrical brain activity and complete cessation
    of all the vital functions without possibility of resuscitation.

Answer 182

c. Brain death

Question 183

76. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent
    cessation of heart action and respiration. It is a condition
    in which the physician and the members of the family
    pronounce a person to be dead.

Answer 183

a. Cardio-respiratory Death

Question 184

77. This is the state of the body in which there is complete,
    persistent and continuous cessation of the vital functions
    of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and
    health.

Answer 184

b. Somatic Death

Question 184

78. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there
    is still animal life among individual cells. About three (3)
    to six (6) hours later there is death of individual cells. This
    is known as________.

Answer 184

b. Molecular Death

Question 184

79. This condition is not really death but merely a transient
    loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital
    function of the body on the account of disease or external
    stimulus or other forms or influence.

Answer 184

a. State of Suspended Animation

Question 184

80. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a
    finger with moderate tightness. In a living person there
    appears a bloodless zone at the site of the application of
    the ligature. If such ligature is applied to the finger of a
    dead man, there is no such change in color.

Answer 184

c. Magnus Test

Question 185

81. After death the metabolic process inside the body
    ceases. No more heat is produced but the body loses
    slowly its temperature, evaporation or by conduction to
    the surrounding atmosphere. The progressive fall of the
    body temperature is one of the most prominent signs of
    death. This is known as_______.

Answer 185

c. Algor-Mortis

Question 185

82. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death
    due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some
    internal changes.

Answer 185

c. Post-mortem Caloricity

Question 186

83. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting
    when stimulated. The pupils are dilated, the sphincters are
    relaxed, and there is incontinence of urination and
    defecation.

Answer 186

a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
Irritability

Question 186

84. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable of
    responding to mechanical and chemical stimulus and the
    reaction become alkaline.

Answer 186

c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary
Relaxation

Question 186

85. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction
    of the muscles. This develops three to six hours after
    death and may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.

Answer 186

b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric
Rigidity or Rigor Mortis

Question 187

86. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of blood
    vessels cause the blood to be under the influence of
    gravity. It begins to accumulate in the most dependent
    portion of the body.

Answer 187

b. Livor Mortis

Question 187

87. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent
    portion of the body but still inside the blood vessels and
    still fluid in form.

Answer 187

a. Hypostatic Lividity

Question 187

88. This appears during the later stage of its formation
    when blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has
    diffused into the tissues of the body.

Answer 187

b. Diffusion Lividity

Question 188

89. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into
    simpler components associated with the foul smelling
    gases and accompanied by the change of color.

Answer 188

c. Putrefaction

Question 188

90. The dehydration of the whole body which results in
    the shivering and preservation of the body.

Answer 188

c. Mummification

Question 188

91. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the body
    are transformed to soft brownish white substance known
    as adipocere.

Answer 188

a. Saponification

Question 189

92. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid
    medium is the absence of putrefactive microorganism
    which is frequently observed in the death of fetus or utero.

Answer 189

a. Maceration

Question 189

93. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury
    and disease responsible for initiating the trend or
    physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which
    produce the fatal termination.

Answer 189

a. Cause of Death

Question 190

94. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill
    quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or
    complication to develop.

Answer 190

c. Immediate Cause of Death

Question 190

95. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently
    prolonged interval which permitted the development of
    serious sequel which actually causes death.

Answer 190

d. Secondary Cause of Death

Question 190

96. It refers to the physiological derangement or
    biochemical disturbance incompatible with life which is
    initiated by the cause to death.

Answer 190

a. Mechanism of Death

Question 190

97. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death
    came into being or how the cause of death arose.

Answer 190

b. Manner of Death

Question 191

98. The fatality is caused solely by disease.

Answer 191

a. Natural Death

Question 191

99. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound, stab, fracture, traumatic shock, etc.

Answer 191

b. Violent Death

Question 192

100. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome.

Answer 192

a. CRIB Death

Question 192

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH
INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION

Question 192

1. It is the term used by authorities in securing an area
   where crime occurred.

Answer 192

C. cordon

Question 192

2. ________ is the taking of a person into custody in order
   that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an
   offense. Rule 113, Sec 1.

Answer 192

A. arrest

Question 192

3. This is a person held in custody.

Answer 192

D. detainee

Question 193

4. It is a property or money given as surety that a person
   released from custody will return at an appointed time.

Answer 193

B. bail

Question 193

5. It includes any questioning by law enforcement
   authorities after a person is taken into custody or deprived
   of his freedom in any significant manner.

Answer 193

A. custodial investigation

Question 193

6. It is the legal act of confiscating.

Answer 193

C. murder

Question 193

8. It is any person who, not falling within the provisions of
   Article 246, shall kill another, without the attendance of
   any of the circumstances enumerated in the next
   preceding article, shall be deemed guilty of homicide and
   be punished by reclusion temporal.

Answer 193

B. homicide

Question 194

9. It is another way of acquiring an information through a
   pleasant manner.

Answer 194

D. interview

Question 194

10. It is a formal inquiry or systematic study. The action
    of investigating something or someone; formal or
    systematic examination or research.

Answer 194

A. investigation

Question 195

11. _______ is a person who conducts formal inquiry.

Answer 195

B. investigator

Question 195

12. It is the process of being questioned. A tool used to
    collect an information.

Answer 195

C. interrogation

Question 195

13. It is the act of looking for a person or a thing.

Answer 195

C. search

Question 195

14. It refers to the tools or means by which investigators
    attempt to explain everything that transcribed in the crime
    scene.

Answer 195

A. instrumentation

Question 195

15. It is a warrant directing any peace officer to search
    and seized.

Answer 195

D. search warrant

Question 195

16. It is a law enforcement authorities or investigating
    officers who collects forensic evidence from the crime
    scene.

Answer 195

B. SOCO

Question 196

17. It is a document from court ordering and directing a
    peace officer to apprehend and detain any person whose
    name will appear in warrant for him to answer matters
    regarding the commission of a crime.

Answer 196

C. arrest warrant

Question 196

18. This refers to the issuance of invitation to the person
    suspected to have committed a crime who at the same
    time is brought before the custody of law in order to
    answer matters regarding the commission of crime
    without jeopardy to the liability of a person for a violations
    he/she may commit.

Answer 196

A. criminal investigation and detention

Question 196

19. Without further delay, the executing officer of the
    warrant must deliver the arrested person to the nearest
    police station or jail.

Answer 196

D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest

Question 196

20. It is the document containing necessary information
    about the confession of the person brought before the
    custody of law prepared by the investigating officer.

Answer 196

B. custodial investigation report

Question 197

21. A point at which a check is performed by police officers
    or any other law enforcers for security and safety
    purposes.

Answer 197

C. checkpoint

Question 197

22. This is taking a person in custody under authority of
    law.

Answer 197

B. warrant of arrest

Question 198

23. It a sudden invasion by police officers or officers of the
    law.

Answer 198

D. raid

Question 198

24. A ______ is when a police make an arrest without a
    warrant.

Answer 198

A. warrantless arrest

Question 198

25. This refers to the process of determining the sequence
    of events about what occurred during and after the
    commission of crime.

Answer 198

D. reconstruction

Question 198

26. This is a place where crime took place.

Answer 198

C. crime scene

Question 198

27. This refers to a person who is a member of the SOCO
    team that takes lead during an investigation.

Answer 198

A. team leader

Question 199

28. This refers to a person who is responsible in receiving,
    keeping and preserving of any evidence found by the
    evidence collector in the crime scene.

Answer 199

B. evidence custodian

Question 199

29. It is the act of collecting or acquiring found evidence
    at the crime scene that is relevant to the case and may
    have value in the future.

Answer 199

D. collection of evidence

Question 199

30. This refers to the identification of evidence.

Answer 199

B. recognition of evidence

Question 200

31. It is the conduct of processes particularly in the
    recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and
    recognition of evidence to include the identification and
    interview and the arrest of suspect(s) at the crime scene.

Answer 200

A. crime scene investigation

Question 200

32. This is the act of documenting every piece of evidence
    found in the crime scene. Observing proper labelling of
    physical evidence by means of sketching, taking of
    photographs or video recording.

Answer 200

C. documentation of evidence

Question 200

33. It is the one who conducts crime scene investigation
    thoroughly over a case. CSI are the people who examine
    crime scenes with distinct specialties.

Answer 200

D. crime scene investigator

Question 200

34. Without any assumption of its truth, it is a proposition
    made as basis for reasoning.

Answer 200

B. hypothesis

Question 200

35. It is the act of determining its competence as an
    evidence.

Answer 200

A. evaluation of evidence

Question 201

36. It is assessing the plausibility of hypothesis.

Answer 201

C. testing the hypothesis

Question 202

37. This involves police procedures not limited to; first
    responder’s responsibility in the protection and
    preservation of the CS, identification and assistance to
    injured persons, recording names and location of hospital
    where they will be evacuated, call for emergency
    assistance; and etc…

Answer 202

A. crime scene response

Question 202

38. This may be subsequent places which may include the
    victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the road
    between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any
    comparable indoor or outdoor area.

Answer 202

C. secondary

Question 202

39. _______ refers to the site of the original or first
    criminal activity.

Answer 202

B. primary

Question 203

40. It is composed of many crime scenes. E.g. a gunshot
    victim’s body dumped in a field represents the following
    crime scenes within overall crime scene of the field; the
    body, the body’s wounds, and the ground around the
    body.

Answer 203

D. single microscopic crime scene

Question 203

41. The crime scene technician must ______ the first
    officer who responded to the scene or the victim to the
    determine the “hypothesis” of the case

Answer 203

B. interview

Question 203

42. The ________ are the trace evidence on the body, the
    gunshot residue around the wound, and the tire tread
    marks in the ground next to the body.

Answer 203

A. microscopic crime scene

Question 204

43. This is the third step in crime scene processing.

Answer 204

D. photograph

Question 205

44. This is the second step in crime scene processing.

Answer 205

C. examine

Question 206

45. Those are the one who use the `poker’ face who hide
    their emotions by being expressionless.

Answer 206

A. withholders

Question 206

46. This are individuals who readily react to stimulus and
    show it through facial expressions. These are the easiest
    to deal with.

Answer 206

D. ever-ready expressors

Question 206

47. This describes those who demonstrate facial
    expressions but contradict their true feelings.

Answer 206

C. substitute expressors

Question 206

48. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on their
    sleeves they show their face. Most investigators find this
    kind difficult to deal with.

Answer 206

B. revealers

Question 207

49. It is the confession or final conclusive report.

Answer 207

C. conclusion

Question 207

50. _______ refers to the manner in which words are
    spoken.

Answer 207

A. paralanguage

Question 208

51. _______ include movements of the eyes, expressions
    on the face, movements of certain parts of the body (such
    as hands and feet, and body posture.

Answer 208

B. kinetics or body motions

Question 208

52. This occurs during as well as after interrogation. It is
    an ongoing assessment of the data to quality and quantity
    and what is needed to further refine it, consolidate what’s
    there, and focus for final conclusion or confession.

Answer 208

D. evaluate

Question 208

53. Keep question as simple as possible avoid confusing
    questions.

Answer 208

C. simple question

Question 208

54. It refers to establishing a good communication in order
    to proceed a cognitive interview.

Answer 208

B. build rapport

Question 208

55. This means that investigators must not allow a
    question answerable by yes or no.

Answer 208

D. avoid implied answers

Question 208

56. The investigator must review the facts about the case.

Answer 208

A. case review

Question 209

57. Brief the investigator taking charge.

Answer 209

D. none of the above

Question 209

58. It is the surrounding area which includes any entry
    and exit points, or in the case of a shooting, any area
    where spent ammunition might be found.

Answer 209

B. outer perimeter

Question 209

59. ________ which is where any evidence might have
    been thrown by the suspect while fleeing.

Answer 209

C. extended perimeter

Question 209

60. The immediate area where the crime was committed.

Answer 209

A. inner perimeter

Question 209

61. Raid is where the crime took place.

Answer 209

B. false

Question 209

62. An act defining certain rights of the person arrested,
    detained.

Answer 209

D. RA 7438

Question 210

63. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the
    Philippine, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
    officer, commanding him to search for any property
    described therein and bring it before the court. Read Art
    III, Sec. 2, 1987 Constitution.

Answer 210

A. search and seizure

Question 210

64. It is the policy of the Senate to value the dignity of
    every human being and guarantee full respect for human
    rights.

Answer 210

C. Section 1. Statement of Policy

Question 210

65. This are the properties which are subject of the
    offense.

Answer 210

B. properties subject to seizure

Question 210

66. A person is called detainee when he/she is being held
    in custody
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 210

A. true

Question 210

67. Is it true that cordon is the term used by authorities in
    securing an area where crime occurred?
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 210

C. yes

Question 211

68. Warrantless arrest is a document from court ordering
    and directing a peace officer to apprehend and detain any
    person whose name will appear in warrant for him to
    answer matters regarding the commission of a crime.
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 211

B. false

Question 211

69. It is some sort of collateral, whether it is cash or a
    bond to guarantee a defendant is going to show up to
    Court.

Answer 211

A. bail

Question 212

70. It is a person who carries out a formal inquiry or
    investigation.

Answer 212

C. investigator

Question 212

71. It is the action of interrogating or the process of being
    interrogated.

Answer 212

B. Investigation

Question 212

72. It is a legal document authorizing a police officer or
    other official to enter and search premises.

Answer 212

D. Search warrant

Question 212

73. Sgt. Cruz and Pat. Flores arrested and detained
    Ramon without warrant for the crime of theft. When
    brought to the inquest prosecutor, the latter issued
    release order for further investigation. What was the
    crime if any do they have committed?

Answer 212

C. Delaying release

Question 212

74. It is the wrongful restraining or imprisonment of a
    non-citizen.

Answer 212

B. Illegal detention

Question 213

75. It is the violation of the right to liberty.

Answer 213

A. Arbitrary detention

Question 213

76. Any person who killed his father, mother or child,
    whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his
    ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?

Answer 213

C. parricide

Question 214

77. Brando and Yana is married couple. While working
    as security guard of Bank, Brando felt sick one night and
    decided to go home around midnight and saw Yana
    having sexual intercourse with a neighbor Gilbert.
    Brando grabbed Gilbert and hacked the latter to death.
    As an investigator what crime if any would you charged
    against A?

Answer 214

D. none

Question 214

78. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender
    must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no
    intent to kill, the offender is liable for?

Answer 214

A. physical injury

Question 214

79. An injury which creates a substantial risk of death,
    or which causes death or serious and protracted
    disfigurement, protracted impairment of health or
    protracted loss or impairment of the function of any
    bodily organ.

Answer 214

C. serious physical injury

Question 215

80. It is the unlawful killing of one person by another.

Answer 215

B. homicide

Question 215

81. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the
    mother’s womb.

Answer 215

C. abortion

Question 215

82. It is the crime of killing a child within a year of its
    birth.

Answer 215

A. infanticide

Question 215

83. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been
    considered to kill the victim.

Answer 215

D. murder

Question 216

84. Custodial investigation includes any questioning by law
    enforcement authorities after a person is taken into
    custody or deprived of his freedom in any significant
    manner.

Answer 216

A. true

Question 216

85. SOCO means?

Answer 216

A. Scene of the Crime Operation

Question 216

86. _________ is the act of looking for a person or a thing.

Answer 216

C. search

Question 216

87. _________ is the legal act of confiscating.

Answer 216

D. seizure

Question 217

88. Interrogation refers to the tools or means by which
    investigators attempt to explain everything that
    transcribed in the crime scene.
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 217

B. false

Question 217

89. _______ is issued by the competent authority upon a
    showing of probable cause, which means a warrant may
    be issued if a reasonable person would believe the
    information at hand is sufficient to suggest criminal
    activities.

Answer 217

C. arrest warrant

Question 217

90. A warrant of arrest may not be necessary when the
    accused is already under detention pursuant to warrant
    issued by MTC judge in (Rule 1112, Sec. 6)
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 217

A. true

Question 218

91. ______ is the deprivation by a public officer of the
    liberty of a person w/o any legal ground.

Answer 218

B. arbitrary detention

Question 218

92. ______ is the third step in crime scene processing.

Answer 218

D. photograph

Question 218

93. _______ refers to the process of determining the
    sequence of events about what occurred during and after
    the commission of crime.

Answer 218

D. reconstruction

Question 218

94. _______ refers to the identification of evidence.

Answer 218

B. recognition of evidence

Question 218

95. _______ may be subsequent places which may include
    the victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the
    road between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any
    comparable indoor or outdoor area.

Answer 218

C. secondary

Question 218

96. A warrantless arrest is when a police make an arrest without a warrant.
    A. true
    B. false
    C. yes
    D. no

Answer 218

A. true

Question 219

97. ________ is the third step in crime scene processing.

Answer 219

D. photograph

Question 219

98. ________ are the individuals who readily react to
    stimulus and show it through facial expressions. These are
    the easiest to deal with.

Answer 219

D. ever-ready expressors

Question 220

99. A point at which a check is performed by police officers
    or any other law enforcers for security and safety
    purposes.

Answer 220

C. checkpoint

Question 220

100. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on
     their sleeves they show their face. Most investigators
     find this kind difficult to deal with.

Answer 220

B. revealers

Question 220

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION

Question 220

1. In general, drivers’ training and education aims
   primarily to:
   A. Teach the rudiments of driving
   B. Instill awareness of one’s legal and moral
   responsibilities in traffic
   C. Teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a
   driver’s license
   D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory testing for
   driver’s license

Answer 220

A. Teach the rudiments of driving

Question 220

2. After the applicant has taken the written examination,
   he should undergo:

Answer 220

C. Actual Road Test

Question 220

3. There are various police units involved in traffic
   enforcement. Who enforces the R.A. 4136 and or national
   traffic laws along national roads and thoroughfares?

Answer 220

D. PNP-HPG

Question 221

4. In chasing a traffic violator, identification of the motor
   vehicle should be obtained even while the operation is
   going on. Which of the following should be sought first?

Answer 221

C. Color of the motor vehicle

Question 221

5. It is one of the oldest methods of traffic control in which
   one form of transportation is given priority by restricting
   or banning other forms of transportation.

Answer 221

D. Priority control

Question 222

6. In using traffic signs, there are basic sign shapes and
   colors. Which of the following is not one of them?

Answer 222

D. Triangle red and green sign

Question 222

7. What is the primary consideration when dealing with a
   violator?

Answer 222

D. Establishing pleasant relationship

Question 222

8. What is the enforcement activity which involves actual
   inspection of motor vehicles and motorists on the road?

Answer 222

C. Road check

Question 222

9. Of the following, which one regulates the movement of
   turning and passing traffic regulations?

Answer 222

A. Round and red sign

Question 222

10. Which of the following traffic signs are intended to
    guide motorists along established routes, inform the
    motorists of the proper roads, and help motorists along
    the way in the most simple and direct method?

Answer 222

C. Informative signs

Question 222

11. This is loosely defined as any acts that violate a state
    or municipalities traffic laws.

Answer 222

D. Traffic violation

Question 223

12. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as
    transportation is concerned?

Answer 223

D. Internal combustion Engine

Question 224

13. Which of the following is not a danger warning sign?

Answer 224

C. Speed limit

Question 224

14. The traffic citation ticket as temporary driving permit
    expires after how many hours?

Answer 224

D. 72

Question 224

15. What is the color of the traffic light located in the
    center of the traffic signaling device?

Answer 224

A. Amber

Question 224

16. This is actually a form of safety education where the
    traffic enforcer tells the violator that he violated a traffic
    law and explains the hazards of his violation.

Answer 224

C. Verbal Warning

Question 224

17. Of the following classifications of traffic signal lights,
    which is designed primarily to control and regulate traffic
    flows?

Answer 224

B. Traffic control signals

Question 224

18. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly
    those related to traffic obstruction to have free-flow of
    traffic is a goal of traffic law enforcement which is to:
    A. All of these
    B. Increase traffic efficiency
    C. Increase traffic mobility
    D. Increases safety level

Answer 224

B. Increase traffic efficiency

Question 225

19. When you are approaching an intersection with a
    traffic light with a steady red, which of the following
    should neither be expected nor observed?
    A. None of these
    B. Stop at the designated line.
    C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.
    D. Expect pedestrians to cross at the pedestrian lane.

Answer 225

C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.

Question 225

20. Who among the following has the priority over the
    other road users?

Answer 225

B. Motor vehicles on public roads

Question 226

21. Which is used to announce one’s intention to turn?

Answer 226

A. Directional signals

Question 226

22. Perpendicular intersection is the most common
    configuration for roads that cross each other, and it is the
    most basic type. This type of intersection is also known
    as:

Answer 226

B. “Four-way” intersection

Question 226

23. A flashing yellow light means, except:
    A. This is the same as a stop sign
    B. Proceed through the intersection with caution
    C. You have the right of way over a flashing red light
    D. Vehicles on the other side will proceed after coming to
    a full stop

Answer 226

A. This is the same as a stop sign

Question 227

24. A Single Continuous Line On a Four-lane Road
    indicates the following, except:
    A. When there are slow and fast lanes, never overtake by
    passing over the solid white line
    B. Lanes 1 & 4 (outer) lanes are for slow moving vehicles.
    C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the
    minimum speed limit.
    D. Lanes 2 & 3(inner) lanes are usually for faster moving
    vehicles.

Answer 227

C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the
minimum speed limit.

Question 227

25. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in
    between means:

Answer 227

D. A roadway which is extremely dangerous

Question 227

26. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement
    marking?

Answer 227

A. Directional arrows

Question 227

27. Traffic patrol does not necessary mean that the patrol
    officer will be constantly moving from one place to
    another. For effective traffic observation, there are
    instances that the traffic officer will be stationing himself

Amici Review Center 23 | P a g e
in a strategic place. In relation to this, what is the traffic
observation in which the traffic officer is in full view but so
located, for example at side street, so as to require effort
on the part of traffic users?

Answer 227

B. Visible observation

Question 227

28. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential
    factors without any one of which the result could not have
    occurred.

Answer 227

A. cause

Question 228

29. There are five essential steps in the traffic
    enforcement process:
    1) apprehension; 2) adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4)
    detection; and 5) penalization.
    Which is correct enumeration in reverse chronology?
    A. 1, 2, 3 4, & 5
    B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1
    C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5
    D. 1, 4, 3, 2, & 5

Answer 228

C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5

Question 228

30. There are various reasons why people commit traffic
    violations. Which is not one of them?

Answer 228

D. Negative area of citizenship

Question 228

31. What is the circumstance that permanently or
    temporarily alters an attribute?

Answer 228

D. modifier

Question 228

32. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible
    hazards or the road and traffic situation ahead and usually
    determined by the road rather than the particular driver
    of a vehicle is:

Answer 228

D. safe speed

Question 229

33. It refers to the time from the point of possible
    perception to actual perception.

Answer 229

B. perception delay

Question 229

34. Which is not true about culpa contractual?
    A. Negligence is merely incidental to the
    performance of an obligation that is not existing
    because of a contract
    B. The proof needed is proof beyond reasonable doubt
    C. Defense of “good father of a family” in the selection
    and supervision of employees is not proper complete
    defense
    D. The master-servant rule is applied

Answer 229

A. Negligence is merely incidental to the
performance of an obligation that is not existing
because of a contract

Question 229

35. Which is incorrect in culpa criminal?

Answer 229

A. Defense of a good father is a proper defense

Question 230

36. Which could not be considered an indication of hit-
    and-run accident?

A. The driver leaving the area of accident because he is in
imminent danger
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade
responsibility.
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver left
and reported to the police.
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to seek
assistance of a physician.

Answer 230

B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade
responsibility.

Question 230

37. Which statement is incorrect as far as hit-and-run
    accident is concerned?
    A. The driver who flees is always responsible for
    the accident
    B. The driver’s reason of fleeing from the accident could
    be that he is wanted for another crime
    C. The recovery of the hit-and-run vehicle does not always
    immediately establish the identity of the driver
    D. The driver of the hit-and-run vehicle may report that
    his own vehicle was a victim of another hit-and-run
    accident

Answer 230

A. The driver who flees is always responsible for
the accident

Question 230

38. What is the enforcement action which does not
    contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court
    or otherwise as a result of warning alone?

Answer 230

B. Traffic Citation

Question 230

39. In deciding whether to pursue or not to pursue or
    chase a traffic violator, consider whether the violation is
    hazardous or non-hazardous. Which of the following does
    not fall under the hazardous type of violations?

Answer 230

B. Traffic obstruction

Question 231

40. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can
    be explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other
    driver as faulty is categorized as:

Answer 231

A. Projectionist

Question 231

41. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic word
    “taraffaqa,” which means to:

Answer 231

D. Walk along slowly together

Question 231

42. In the computation of the speed of the motor vehicle
    based on the length of the skid mark, which of the
    following is a major restriction to the process:

Answer 231

C. Absence of the suspected car

Question 231

43. What is the mark caused by the forward rotation of
    the wheels being slower than the forward movement of
    the vehicle?

Answer 231

C. None of these

Question 232

44. There are two major functions in traffic law
    enforcement. Whose function the enforcement of traffic
    laws deterrent to law violations, special assistance to
    prosecutors and courts?

Answer 232

B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement

Question 232

45. There are three elements of traffic enforcement
    system. Which one is consist of legislation, police, and
    courts?

Answer 232

A. Enforcement system

Question 232

46. It refers to the groove made by a hard part of a motor
    vehicle to another car after sideswiping each other or it
    may be left on a road surface by a motor vehicle which
    overturned then slid on the road surface?:

Answer 232

D. Gouges

Question 233

47. It is the measurement of the maximum frictional
    resistance of pavements which is equal to the force
    exerted when the wheels are skidding divided by the
    weight of the car.

Answer 233

D. Either A or B

Question 233

48. What is the United Nations convention that established
    the International Traffic Rules and Regulations?

Answer 233

C. 1968 Vienna Convention

Question 233

49. What is the general principle that establishes who has
    the right to go first?

Answer 233

D. Right of Way

Question 233

50. In determining the skidding distance of a motor
    vehicle, which is by far the most important?

Answer 233

D. Speed of the motor vehicle

Question 233

51. Which is incorrect about skidmarks?
    A. It shows all the speed of the motor vehicle
    B. It is useful in estimating speed prior to an accident
    C. A good evidence in traffic accident investigations
    D. The length of the skidmark is affected by the road
    surface

Answer 233

B. Poor control measures

Question 234

53. What should not be done by a driver involved in an
    accident?

Answer 234

D. Concealing his identify as part of right to remain
silent

Question 234

54. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking one another
    until they can scarcely move.

Answer 234

D. Traffic jam

Question 234

55. What is the phenomenon in which traffic congestion
    reaches great intensity at predictable times of the day due
    to the large number of vehicles using the road at the same
    time?

Answer 234

B. Rush hour

Question 234

56. Which of the following best describes a hit-and-run
    driver?

Answer 234

B. Evading responsibility

Question 234

57. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in
    which vehicles impede each others’ progression as
    demand for limited road space approaches full capacity.

Answer 234

C. Traffic congestion

Question 234

58. The following are elements of hit-and-run accidents,
    except:
    A. Suspect driving the vehicle at the time of the accident.
    B. Suspect was involved in an accident resulting in death,
    personal injury or damage to property.
    C. Suspect failed to perform his responsibilities stated in
    Sec. 55 of R.A. 4136.
    D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

Answer 234

D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

Question 235

59. Which of the following ancient wheeled vehicles refers
    to the travelling wagon where the passengers were
    protected by a covering of leather or cloth fixed over a
    wooden framework?

Answer 235

A. Italian cocchio

Question 236

60. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is
    misperceiving or misjudging the road situation ahead. This
    cause is under the factor involving:
    A. Driver’s condition
    B. Main Vehicle or motor vehicle factors
    C. Road Factors
    D. A or C

Answer 236

D. A or C

Question 236

61. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing
    traffic accidents, human error condition can be corrected
    by “E” or pillar of traffic?

Answer 236

B. Education

Question 236

62. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of
    some foreign object in a collision or roll over. It is usually
    indicated by striations, rub-off of material or puncture.
    This is known as:

Answer 236

B. Contact damage

Question 236

63. When encountering hazards on the highway, the
    driver usually makes an action to adjust his speed, his
    position on the road, and his direction of motion. He also
    gives signals of intent to turn or slow, or any other action
    in situations involving potential hazards. These actions are
    called

Answer 236

D. Tactic

Question 236

64. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to any person
    using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as
    a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal
    which he is using.

Answer 236

A. Traffic unit

Question 236

65.It is the taking of enforcement action such as detection
then apprehension of traffic law violators. It also involves
either the arresting, issuance of citation tickets or
inspection summons, or simply warning any person who
is believed to have violated a traffic law, ordinance, or
regulation.

Answer 236

D. Traffic enforcement

Question 236

66. The maximum speed legally permitted on a given
    stretch of road is called:

Answer 236

D. Speed limit

Question 237

67. These are areas within the roadway constructed in
    manner to establish physical channels through which
    traffic guided.

Answer 237

B. Traffic Islands

Question 237

68. Which of the following prohibits lane changing or
    overtaking anytime?

Answer 237

C. Double white or solid line with broken white or
yellow line in between

Question 238

69. What traffic light states that unless specified, you can
    turn right after full stop to clear traffic coming from the
    left?

Answer 238

D. Steady red

Question 238

70. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the:
    A. inventor of the internal combustion engine
    B. inventor of the popular Model T
    C. pioneer in mass production of vehicles
    D. Both B and C

Answer 238

D. Both B and C

Question 238

71. Traffic control devices are sometimes mandatory.
    Which of the following is under this category?

Answer 238

A. Directional arrows

Question 239

72. Special rules for four-way stops may include the
    following, except:
    A. In the countries that use four-way stops, pedestrians
    always have priority at crosswalks – even at unmarked
    ones, which exist as the logical continuations of the
    sidewalks at every intersection with approximately right
    angles – unless signed or painted otherwise.
    B. Whichever vehicle first stops at the stop line – or before
    the crosswalk, if there is no stop line – has priority.
    C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is
    given to the vehicle on the left.
    D. If three vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given
    to the two vehicles going in opposite directions, if possible.

Answer 239

C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is
given to the vehicle on the left.

Question 239

73. What is issued as receipt of confiscation of driver’s
    license, certificate of registration, and or plate number if
    the violation is a local traffic ordinance?

Answer 239

B. Traffic citation ticket

Question 240

74. In determining the enforcement action to be taken, all
    but one should be considered.

Answer 240

A. Training of the enforcer

Question 240

75. If A is born in 2008, when can he be qualified to apply
    for a student driver’s permit based on the current age
    requirements as provided for by RA 4136?

Answer 240

D. 2024

Question 240

76. According to RA 4136, a professional driver is one
    who:

Answer 240

B. Earns out of driving

Question 241

77. This is a part of enforcement activity which is usually
    done when a traffic violator fails to stop.

Answer 241

D. Pursuit operation

Question 241

78. What is the process of training road users in the
    avoidance and prevention of traffic-related accidents?

Answer 241

D. Traffic safety education

Question 241

79. What is the first mode of land transportation that
    challenged the rail road train?

Answer 241

A. Motor vehicle

Question 242

80. Driving Company B approach to training their students’
    driver is trough classroom lecture and discussion. What
    method does Driving Company B apply?

Answer 242

B. Traditional

Question 242

81. What is the act of operating a vehicle in a way that
    shows a “willful” disregard for the safety of other people,
    including other drivers and pedestrians?

Answer 242

B. Reckless driving

Question 242

82. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the:

Answer 242

B. Mass Media

Question 242

83. The government agency having the primary
    responsibility of enforcing the R.A. 4136 is the:

Answer 242

B. LTO

Question 242

84. Traffic offenses such as mechanical violations and
    most nondangerous moving violations do not usually carry
    the same stigma and penalties as serious criminal
    offenses. These violations are called

Answer 242

D. Infractions

Question 243

85. Traveling too fast for conditions or in excess of the
    posted speed limits is commonly called:

Answer 243

D. Speeding

Question 243

86. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are
    classified to as:

Answer 243

D. Provincial Road or highway

Question 243

87. Roads that interconnect provinces are maintained by:

Answer 243

A. DPWH

Question 243

88. The summons and/or citation issued by police officers
    to motorists and other road users who fail to obey traffic
    laws are normally called:

Answer 243

B. Traffic tickets

Question 243

89. What is the Land Transportation Code of the
    Philippines?

Answer 243

D. R.A. 4136

Question 244

90. Personalized plate numbers are also called:

Answer 244

A. Vanity plate numbers

Question 244

91. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from
    the French word “Trafic” from old French “trafique,” and
    or from Italian word “traffic” or “trafficare.” (Italian).
    These ancient words mean the following, except:

Answer 244

C. to move

Question 244

92. What is the point where two roads or streets cross one
    another?

Answer 244

B. Intersection

Question 245

93. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose
    name such vehicle is duly registered with the LTO.

Answer 245

A. Owner

Question 245

94. The construction of an alternate route or road ease
    traffic in a particular area addresses the problem on:

Answer 245

C. Physical inadequacy

Question 245

95. Pedestrian refers to people who are travelling along
    the Trafficway by walking. The term originated from the
    Latin word “pedester” which literally means:

Answer 245

D. On foot

Question 245

96. All public roads are called:

Answer 245

B. Highway

Question 245

97. These are the general practices and procedures that
    road users are required to follow.

Answer 245

C. Traffic Rules

Question 246

98. What is the act of driving in which the driver
    anticipates the errors of others?

Answer 246

D. Defensive driver

Question 247

99. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and
    recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a
    function of

Answer 247

B. Traffic Engineering

Question 248

100. The ongoing drivers’ seminar for public utility vehicle
     is part of:

Answer 248

D. Traffic Education

Question 248

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

Question 249

1. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

Answer 249

C. electrical wiring

Question 250

2. Which of the following doe NOT fall under class A fires?

Answer 250

B. exploding gas depot

Question 251

3. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

Answer 251

A. simultaneous fire

Question 251

12. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the
    crime that you have to file is:

Answer 251

C. murder

Question 251

4. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide
   produced when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen
   because___________

Answer 251

D. greater oxidation takes place

Question 252

6. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation
   or street where fire hose is connected so that water with
   pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

Answer 252

D. fire hydrant

Question 252

5. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

Answer 252

D. explosion may occur

Question 252

13. What is the most common motive in burning cars?

Answer 252

C. financial difficulties

Question 252

7. Which of the following is considered as the most
   effective fixed installation for controlling fire which will
   discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near
   the ceiling?

Answer 252

B. automatic water sprinkler

Question 253

8. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids
   like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc

Answer 253

D. class B

Question 253

9. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they
   usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
   reason for taking this position?

Answer 253

C. a backward force is developed which must be
counter acted

Question 254

10. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober
    when no evidence is found?

Answer 254

C. electrical wiring

Question 255

11. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is
    the intentional burning of a car by another constitute
    arson?
    A. no
    B. yes
    C. it depends
    D. sometimes

Answer 255

B. yes

Question 256

14. Which of the following occur when a room is heated
    enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

Answer 256

C. flash over

Question 256

15. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices
    which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the
    designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

Answer 256

B. overloading

Question 257

16. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends
    from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of
    the building

Answer 257

C. vertical shaft

Question 257

17. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having
    a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with
    sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if
    construction on either side collapses under fire condition.

Answer 257

B. fire wall

Question 258

19. When you are approaching an intersection with a
    traffic light with a steady red, which of the following
    should neither be expected nor observed?

Answer 258

C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.

Question 259

21. Which is used to announce one’s intention to turn?

Answer 259

A. Directional signals

Question 259

22. Perpendicular intersection is the most common
    configuration for roads that cross each other, and it is the
    most basic type. This type of intersection is also known
    as:

Answer 259

B. “Four-way” intersection

Question 260

25. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in
    between means:

Answer 260

D. A roadway which is extremely dangerous

Question 260

26. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement
    marking?

Answer 260

A. Directional arrows

Question 261

27. Traffic patrol does not necessary mean that the patrol
    officer will be constantly moving from one place to
    another. For effective traffic observation, there are
    instances that the traffic officer will be stationing himself

Amici Review Center 23 | P a g e
in a strategic place. In relation to this, what is the traffic
observation in which the traffic officer is in full view but so
located, for example at side street, so as to require effort
on the part of traffic users?

Answer 261

B. Visible observation

Question 261

28. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential
    factors without any one of which the result could not have
    occurred.

Question 262

29. There are five essential steps in the traffic
    enforcement process:
    1) apprehension; 2) adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4)
    detection; and 5) penalization.
    Which is correct enumeration in reverse chronology?
    A. 1, 2, 3 4, & 5
    B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1
    C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5
    D. 1, 4, 3, 2, & 5

Answer 262

C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5

Question 263

30. There are various reasons why people commit traffic
    violations. Which is not one of them?

Answer 263

D. Negative area of citizenship

Question 263

18. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly
    those related to traffic obstruction to have free-flow of
    traffic is a goal of traffic law enforcement which is to:
    A. All of these
    B. Increase traffic efficiency
    C. Increase traffic mobility
    D. Increases safety level

Answer 263

B. Increase traffic efficiency

Question 263

23. A flashing yellow light means, except:
    A. This is the same as a stop sign
    B. Proceed through the intersection with caution
    C. You have the right of way over a flashing red light
    D. Vehicles on the other side will proceed after coming to
    a full stop

Answer 263

A. This is the same as a stop sign

Question 263

20. Who among the following has the priority over the
    other road users?

Answer 263

B. Motor vehicles on public roads

Question 264

24. A Single Continuous Line On a Four-lane Road
    indicates the following, except:
    A. When there are slow and fast lanes, never overtake by
    passing over the solid white line
    B. Lanes 1 & 4 (outer) lanes are for slow moving vehicles.
    C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the
    minimum speed limit.
    D. Lanes 2 & 3(inner) lanes are usually for faster moving
    vehicles.

Answer 264

C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the
minimum speed limit.

Question 265

31. What is the circumstance that permanently or
    temporarily alters an attribute?

Answer 265

D. modifier

Question 266

32. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible
    hazards or the road and traffic situation ahead and usually
    determined by the road rather than the particular driver
    of a vehicle is:

Answer 266

D. safe speed

Question 266

33. It refers to the time from the point of possible perception to actual perception.

Answer 266

B. perception delay

Question 266

34. Which is not true about culpa contractual?

Answer 266

A. Negligence is merely incidental to the
performance of an obligation that is not existing
because of a contract

Question 267

35. Which is incorrect in culpa criminal?

Answer 267

A. Defense of a good father is a proper defense

Question 267

36. Which could not be considered an indication of hit-
    and-run accident?

Answer 267

B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade
responsibility.

Question 267

37. Which statement is incorrect as far as hit-and-run
    accident is concerned?
    A. The driver who flees is always responsible for
    the accident
    B. The driver’s reason of fleeing from the accident could
    be that he is wanted for another crime
    C. The recovery of the hit-and-run vehicle does not always
    immediately establish the identity of the driver
    D. The driver of the hit-and-run vehicle may report that
    his own vehicle was a victim of another hit-and-run
    accident

Answer 267

A. The driver who flees is always responsible for
the accident

Question 268

38. What is the enforcement action which does not
    contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court
    or otherwise as a result of warning alone?

Answer 268

B. Traffic Citation

Question 268

39. In deciding whether to pursue or not to pursue or
    chase a traffic violator, consider whether the violation is
    hazardous or non-hazardous. Which of the following does
    not fall under the hazardous type of violations?
    A. Driving under the influence of liquor

Answer 268

B. Traffic obstruction

Question 268

40. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can
    be explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other
    driver as faulty is categorized as:

Answer 268

A. Projectionist

Question 269

41. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic word
    “taraffaqa,” which means to:

Answer 269

D. Walk along slowly together

Question 269

42. In the computation of the speed of the motor vehicle based on the length of the skid mark, which of the following is a major restriction to the process:

Answer 269

C. Absence of the suspected car

Question 270

43. What is the mark caused by the forward rotation of
    the wheels being slower than the forward movement of
    the vehicle?

Answer 270

C. None of these

Question 271

44. There are two major functions in traffic law
    enforcement. Whose function the enforcement of traffic
    laws deterrent to law violations, special assistance to
    prosecutors and courts?

Answer 271

B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement

Question 271

45. There are three elements of traffic enforcement
    system. Which one is consist of legislation, police, and
    courts?

Answer 271

A. Enforcement system

Question 272

46. It refers to the groove made by a hard part of a motor
    vehicle to another car after sideswiping each other or it
    may be left on a road surface by a motor vehicle which
    overturned then slid on the road surface?:

Answer 272

D. Gouges

Question 272

47. It is the measurement of the maximum frictional
    resistance of pavements which is equal to the force
    exerted when the wheels are skidding divided by the
    weight of the car.
    A. Coefficient of Friction
    B. Drag Factor
    C. Frictional Force
    D. Either A or B

Answer 272

D. Either A or B

Question 273

48. What is the United Nations convention that established
    the International Traffic Rules and Regulations?

Answer 273

C. 1968 Vienna Convention

Question 273

49. What is the general principle that establishes who has
    the right to go first?

Answer 273

D. Right of Way

Question 274

50. In determining the skidding distance of a motor vehicle, which is by far the most important?

Answer 274

D. Speed of the motor vehicle

Question 274

51. Which is incorrect about skidmarks?

Answer 274

A. It shows all the speed of the motor vehicle

Question 274

52. Training of traffic auxiliary personnel answers the
    problem concerning:

Answer 274

B. Poor control measures

Question 275

53. What should not be done by a driver involved in an
    accident?

Answer 275

D. Concealing his identify as part of right to remain
silent

Question 275

54. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking one another
    until they can scarcely move.

Answer 275

D. Traffic jam

Question 276

55. What is the phenomenon in which traffic congestion
    reaches great intensity at predictable times of the day due
    to the large number of vehicles using the road at the same
    time?

Answer 276

B. Rush hour

Question 276

56. Which of the following best describes a hit-and-run
    driver?

Answer 276

B. Evading responsibility

Question 277

57. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in
    which vehicles impede each others’ progression as
    demand for limited road space approaches full capacity.

Answer 277

C. Traffic congestion

Question 278

59. Which of the following ancient wheeled vehicles refers
    to the travelling wagon where the passengers were
    protected by a covering of leather or cloth fixed over a
    wooden framework?

Answer 278

A. Italian cocchio

Question 278

58. The following are elements of hit-and-run accidents, except:
    A. Suspect driving the vehicle at the time of the accident.
    B. Suspect was involved in an accident resulting in death, personal injury or damage to property.
    C. Suspect failed to perform his responsibilities stated in Sec. 55 of R.A. 4136.
    D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

Answer 278

D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

Question 278

60. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving or misjudging the road situation ahead. This cause is under the factor involving:
    A. Driver’s condition
    B. Main Vehicle or motor vehicle factors
    C. Road Factors
    D. A or C

Answer 278

D. A or C

Question 279

61. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic accidents, human error condition can be corrected
    by “E” or pillar of traffic?

Answer 279

B. Education

Question 279

62. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of
    some foreign object in a collision or roll over. It is usually
    indicated by striations, rub-off of material or puncture.
    This is known as:

Answer 279

B. Contact damage

Question 279

63. When encountering hazards on the highway, the
    driver usually makes an action to adjust his speed, his
    position on the road, and his direction of motion. He also
    gives signals of intent to turn or slow, or any other action
    in situations involving potential hazards. These actions are
    called

Answer 279

D. Tactic

Question 280

64. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to any person
    using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as
    a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal
    which he is using.

Answer 280

A. Traffic unit

Question 280

65.It is the taking of enforcement action such as detection
then apprehension of traffic law violators. It also involves
either the arresting, issuance of citation tickets or
inspection summons, or simply warning any person who
is believed to have violated a traffic law, ordinance, or
regulation.

Answer 280

D. Traffic enforcement

Question 280

66. The maximum speed legally permitted on a given stretch of road is called:

Answer 280

D. Speed limit

Question 281

67. These are areas within the roadway constructed in manner to establish physical channels through which
    traffic guided.

Answer 281

B. Traffic Islands

Question 281

68. Which of the following prohibits lane changing or overtaking anytime?

Answer 281

C. Double white or solid line with broken white or yellow line in between

Question 282

69. What traffic light states that unless specified, you can turn right after full stop to clear traffic coming from the left?

Answer 282

D. Steady red

Question 282

70. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the:
    A. inventor of the internal combustion engine
    B. inventor of the popular Model T
    C. pioneer in mass production of vehicles
    D. Both B and C

Answer 282

D. Both B and C

Question 283

71. Traffic control devices are sometimes mandatory.
    Which of the following is under this category?

Answer 283

A. Directional arrows

Question 283

72. Special rules for four-way stops may include the
    following, except:
    A. In the countries that use four-way stops, pedestrians
    always have priority at crosswalks – even at unmarked ones, which exist as the logical continuations of the sidewalks at every intersection with approximately right angles – unless signed or painted otherwise.
    B. Whichever vehicle first stops at the stop line – or before the crosswalk, if there is no stop line – has priority.
    C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the vehicle on the left.
    D. If three vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the two vehicles going in opposite directions, if possible.

Answer 283

C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is
given to the vehicle on the left.

Question 284

73. What is issued as receipt of confiscation of driver’s
    license, certificate of registration, and or plate number if
    the violation is a local traffic ordinance?

Answer 284

B. Traffic citation ticket

Question 284

75. If A is born in 2008, when can he be qualified to apply for a student driver’s permit based on the current age
    requirements as provided for by RA 4136?

Answer 284

D. 2024

Question 285

77. This is a part of enforcement activity which is usually done when a traffic violator fails to stop.

Answer 285

D. Pursuit operation

Question 285

78. What is the process of training road users in the
    avoidance and prevention of traffic-related accidents?

Answer 285

D. Traffic safety education

Question 285

74. In determining the enforcement action to be taken, all but one should be considered.

Answer 285

A. Training of the enforcer

Question 285

79. What is the first mode of land transportation that challenged the rail road train?

Answer 285

A. Motor vehicle

Question 285

76. According to RA 4136, a professional driver is one who:

Answer 285

B. Earns out of driving

Question 286

80. Driving Company B approach to training their students’ driver is trough classroom lecture and discussion. What
    method does Driving Company B apply?

Answer 286

B. Traditional

Question 286

81. What is the act of operating a vehicle in a way that shows a “willful” disregard for the safety of other people, including other drivers and pedestrians?
    A. All of these
    B. Reckless driving
    C. Irresponsible driving
    D. Danger driving

Answer 286

B. Reckless driving

Question 287

82. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the:

Answer 287

B. Mass Media

Question 287

83. The government agency having the primary responsibility of enforcing the R.A. 4136 is the:

Answer 287

B. LTO

Question 288

84. Traffic offenses such as mechanical violations and most non dangerous moving violations do not usually carry
    the same stigma and penalties as serious criminal offenses. These violations are called

Answer 288

D. Infractions

Question 288

86. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are classified to as:

Answer 288

D. Provincial Road or highway

Question 288

87. Roads that interconnect provinces are maintained by:

Answer 288

A. DPWH

Question 289

85. Traveling too fast for conditions or in excess of the posted speed limits is commonly called:

Answer 289

D. Speeding

Question 289

89. What is the Land Transportation Code of the Philippines?

Answer 289

D. R.A. 4136

Question 289

88. The summons and/or citation issued by police officers to motorists and other road users who fail to obey traffic
    laws are normally called:

Answer 289

B. Traffic tickets

Question 289

90. Personalized plate numbers are also called:

Answer 289

A. Vanity plate numbers

Question 289

91. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from the French word “Trafic” from old French “trafique,” and or from Italian word “traffic” or “trafficare.” (Italian). These ancient words mean the following, except:
    A. to trade
    B. commerce
    C. to move
    D. carry on trade

Answer 289

C. to move

Question 289

92. What is the point where two roads or streets cross one another?

Answer 289

B. Intersection

Question 289

93. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name such vehicle is duly registered with the LTO.

Answer 289

A. Owner

Question 290

94. The construction of an alternate route or road ease traffic in a particular area addresses the problem on:

Answer 290

C. Physical inadequacy

Question 290

95. Pedestrian refers to people who are travelling along the Trafficway by walking. The term originated from the Latin word “pedester” which literally means:

Answer 290

D. On foot

Question 290

96. All public roads are called:

Answer 290

B. Highway

Question 291

V98. What is the act of driving in which the driver anticipates the errors of others?

Answer 291

D. Defensive driver

Question 291

99. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a
    function of

Answer 291

B. Traffic Engineering

Question 292

97. These are the general practices and procedures that road users are required to follow.

Answer 292

C. Traffic Rules

Question 292

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

Question 292

100. The ongoing drivers’ seminar for public utility vehicle is part of:

Answer 292

D. Traffic Education

Question 292

1. Which causes the greatest number of fire?
   A. spontaneous combustion
   B. leaking gas pipes
   C. electrical wiring
   D. smoking and matches

Answer 292

C. electrical wiring

Question 292

2. Which of the following doe NOT fall under class A fires?
   A. none of these
   B. exploding gas depot
   C. burning nipa hut
   D. forest fire

Answer 292

B. exploding gas depot

Question 293

3. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
   A. simultaneous fire
   B. unexplained explosion
   C. faulty electric wiring
   D. thick relish smoke

Answer 293

A. simultaneous fire

Question 294

4. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen
   because___________

Answer 294

D. greater oxidation takes place

Question 294

5. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

Answer 294

D. explosion may occur

Question 294

6. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

Answer 294

D. fire hydrant

Question 295

8. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc

Answer 295

D. class B

Question 295

7. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near
   the ceiling?
   A. fire hydrant
   B. automatic water sprinkler
   C. standpipe
   D. fire extinguisher

Answer 295

B. automatic water sprinkler

Question 296

10. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?

Answer 296

C. electrical wiring

Question 297

9. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
   reason for taking this position?

Answer 297

C. a backward force is developed which must be
counter acted

Question 298

11. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning of a car by another constitute arson?
    A. no
    B. yes
    C. it depends
    D. sometimes

Answer 298

B. yes

Question 299

12. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:

Answer 299

C. murder

Question 300

14. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

Answer 300

C. flash over

Question 300

15. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the
    designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

Answer 300

B. overloading

Question 300

13. What is the most common motive in burning cars?

Answer 300

C. financial difficulties

Question 301

16. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of
    the building

Answer 301

C. vertical shaft

Question 301

18. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:

Answer 301

A. smothering

Question 302

19. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the fire fighter should avoid___________

Answer 302

D. making opening over the fire

Question 302

17. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under fire condition.

Answer 302

B. fire wall

Question 303

21. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?

Answer 303

D. Extension

Question 303

22. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the
    passage of smoke or fire?

Answer 303

B. damper

Question 303

24. What is a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistant material attached to and extending below the
    bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke
    will be heated upwards to a roof vent?

Answer 303

D. curtain board

Question 303

25. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily?

Answer 303

D. combustible fiber

Question 303

20. Which of these statement is TRUE?
    A. radiation is heat transfer through combustion
    B. radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
    C. radiation is heat transfer through air motion
    D. radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

Answer 303

D. radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

Question 303

23. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?

Answer 303

B. oxidizing agent

Question 304

27. What is known as the fire code of the Philippines

Answer 304

D. Presidential Decree No 1185

Question 304

26. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building

Answer 304

A. vertical shaft

Question 305

28. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use
    in order to:

Answer 305

C. prevent water hammer

Question 305

29. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor
    used to bypass a fety device in an electrical system?

Answer 305

B. jumper

Question 306

30. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the
    “reconnaissance” phase of military operation?

Answer 306

D. size-up

Question 306

31. Conduction of heat transfer through:

Answer 306

A. solid materials

Question 307

32. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate?

Answer 307

A. presence of humid substance

Question 307

33. The most common motive of arson is

Answer 307

C. profit

Question 307

34. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?

Answer 307

B. distillation

Question 307

35. Light is transferred by light rays through the method of

Answer 307

D. radiation

Question 308

36. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form
    lenitable mixture with air?

Answer 308

B. ignition point

Question 308

37. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
    A. inflammable substance found in the premises
    B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
    C. building insurance
    D. any of these

Answer 308

B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the
building

Question 308

38. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer
    is

Answer 308

B. radiation

Question 309

39. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?

Answer 309

A. hydrant key

Question 309

40. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flew cannot be checked, the safest
    practice is to

Answer 309

A. use foam to put off the fire

Question 309

41. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

Answer 309

D.15

Question 310

42. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?

Answer 310

B. ladder

Question 311

43. Conduction is heat transfer through

Answer 311

D. solid materials

Question 311

44. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?

Answer 311

B. rungs

Question 312

46. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam, metal conduit and ducts.

Answer 312

A. conduction

Question 312

47. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire
    hazard?

Question 313

51. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

Answer 313

B. establishment of corpus delict

Question 313

45. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
    pressure?

Answer 313

B. boiling point

Question 313

48. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.

Answer 313

C. specific gravity

Question 313

50. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish,
    what does it indicate?

Answer 313

C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay

Question 314

53. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation
    of molecules

Answer 314

C.temperature

Question 314

52. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called

Answer 314

B.conduction

Question 314

49. What kind of toxicological analysis are routinely carried out for fire deaths?

Answer 314

C. carbon monoxide and alcohol

Question 314

54. The cause of the majority of fire death is

Answer 314

D. asphyxiation

Question 314

56. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

Answer 314

D.flash point

Question 314

55. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases
    on our midst, which of the following facilities should you
    check?

Answer 314

A.electric switch system

Question 315

57. What should the firefighter do what ventilating a peaked roof?
    A.make opening at right angel to ridge pool
    B.make opening on ridge pole on windward side of theroof
    C.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut sheathing
    D.make opening on windward side of the roof peak

Answer 315

C.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut
sheathing

Question 315

58. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread
    laterally along the cufling?

Answer 315

A. heat

Question 315

59. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state
    pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its
    container?

Answer 315

C.liquefied gas

Question 315

60. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is
    necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary
    and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST
    value in making such decision?

Answer 315

D.observing the color of the flame

Question 316

61. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start.

Answer 316

C.close to the floor beams

Question 317

62. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?

Answer 317

B.oxidizing material

Question 318

63. Passage way from one building to another or through
    or around a wall in appropriately the same floor level

Answer 318

D. horizontal exit

Question 319

64. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as

Answer 319

B.bed ladder

Question 320

65. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the
    point origin or atleast to the area involved?

Answer 320

B.confinement

Question 321

66. The techniques used in clearing a building of smoke
    and with the use of smoke ejector is called as what?

Answer 321

C. forced ventilation

Question 322

67. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:

Answer 322

A.smothering

Question 322

68. Which of the following occur when a room is heated
    enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

Answer 322

C.flash over

Question 323

69. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in
    quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?

Answer 323

B. oxidizing material

Question 323

70. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread
    laterally along the cufling?

Answer 323

A. heat

Question 324

71. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

Answer 324

D. flash point

Question 325

72. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation
    of molecules

Answer 325

C. temperature

Question 326

73. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called

Answer 326

B. conduction

Question 326

74. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.

Answer 326

C. specific gravity

Question 327

75. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam, metal conduit and ducts.

Answer 327

A. conduction

Question 327

76. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
    pressure?

Answer 327

B. boiling point

Question 328

77.How many percent of air is needed to sustain
combustion?

Answer 328

D. 15

Question 329

78. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer
    is

Answer 329

B. radiation

Question 330

79. Which of these refers to the study of the sources,
    behavior, and measurement of heat?

Answer 330

D. Thermodynamics

Question 330

80. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having
    a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with
    sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if
    construction on either side collapses under fire condition.

Answer 330

B. fire wall

Question 331

81. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

Answer 331

C. electrical wiring

Question 332

82. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

Answer 332

D. explosion may occur

Question 332

83. Burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen
    with combustible substance. The French chemist who

Answer 332

A. Antoine Lavoisier

Question 333

84. What are the two primary methods of starting fire?

Answer 333

C. Percussion & Friction

Question 333

85. The relationship of the three essential elements of fire
    is illustrated by the –

Answer 333

B. fire triangle

Question 334

86. What chemical reaction involves combining 2 light
    nuclei causing the development of a very strong energy?

Answer 334

B. Nuclear fusion

Question 335

87. What chemical reaction specifically takes place the
    moment the spilled gasoline ignites?

Answer 335

C. Exothermic reaction

Question 336

89. A hot piece of lump remains after solid fuel has
    partially burned and is still rapidly oxidizing without the
    manifestation of flame. This is called –
    A. ember
    B. glowing substance
    C. smoldering material
    D. all of the above

Answer 336

D. all of the above

Question 337

90. The following are advisable techniques of
    extinguishing Class B fire, except –
    A. shutting the fuel supply
    B. pouring water over the burning liquid
    C. exclusion of air
    D. cooling the liquid

Answer 337

B. pouring water over the burning liquid

Question 338

91. What substance is commercially produced purposely
    to put out fire?

Answer 338

D. Extinguishing agent

Question 339

92. The Building Code of the Philippine or act of 1977 is:

Answer 339

A. PD 1096

Question 340

93. This Act shall be known as the “Revised Fire Code of
    the Philippines of 2008”.

Answer 340

B. RA 9514

Question 340

94. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

Answer 340

B. establishment of corpus delicti

Question 341

95. The cause of the majority of fire death is

Answer 341

D. asphyxiation

Question 342

96. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases
    on our midst, which of the following facilities should you
    check?

Answer 342

A. electric switch system

Question 343

97. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state
    pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its
    container?

Answer 343

C. liquefied gas

Question 343

98. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is
    necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary
    and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST
    value in making such decision?

Answer 343

D. observing the color of the flame

Question 344

99.Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the
point origin or atleast to the area involved?

Answer 344

B. confinement

Question 344

100. The use of one or more electrical appliances or
     devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond
     the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

Answer 344

B.overloading

Question 345

DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

Question 345

1. What drug classification are solvents, paints and
   gasoline which are examples of substances that are
   sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?

Answer 345

D. Inhalants

Question 346

2. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
   secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
   techniques were made by its operator in concealing their
   activities

Answer 346

B. Clandestine Operation

Question 346

3. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin
   in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of
   illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders
   of:

Answer 346

C. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar

Question 347

4. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological
   classification which often relives pain and induces sleep.

Answer 347

D. Narcotics

Question 347

5. Which among the following is one of the most abuse
   hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contains
   active components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?

Answer 347

C. Marijuana

Question 348

6. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in
   the Philippines that contain active components known
   as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?

Answer 348

B. Marijuana

Question 349

7. The term “Ecstasy” is used for a group of “designer”
   drugs closely related in chemical form to the
   amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:

Answer 349

B. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

Question 349

8. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend
   offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
9. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the
   influence of drugs
10. Physical sign of drug abuse
11. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction
12. Symptoms of Drug abuse
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    B. 2, 3 and 4
    C. 1, 2 and 4
    D. 1, 2, 3 and

Answer 349

C. 1, 2 and 4

Question 350

9. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He prescribed
   opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the
   Sumerians during 7000 BC.

Answer 350

A. Hippocrates

Question 351

10. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium
    in China by the British Indies that leads to the Opium War
    of 1840.

Answer 351

B. Yung Chen

Question 351

11. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.

Answer 351

C. Cocaine hydrochloride

Question 352

12. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree”
    planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as
    the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of
    dangerous drug.

Answer 352

C. Cannabis Sativa

Question 353

13. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs,
    except:
    A. Indian hemp
    B. Coca bush
    C. Opium poppy
    D. Ephedra

Answer 353

D. Ephedra

Question 354

14. Which of the following drug trafficking organization
    which furnishes drugs to the users?

Answer 354

D. Local organization

Question 355

15. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global
    drug market.
    I. Heroin and Cocaine
    II. Shabu and Ecstasy
    III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and III
    D. I, II and III

Answer 355

C. I and III

Question 356

16. What drugs that produce sensations such as
    distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
    effects?

Answer 356

D. Hallucinogens

Question 357

17. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of
    dangerous drug to the body by one person to another
    is .

Answer 357

C. Administer

Question 358

18. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will
    bring him else where he ceased from using it. Diego’s act
    is called:

Answer 358

A. Abstinence

Question 358

19. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of
    legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
    procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by
    the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is
    called:

Answer 358

B. Chemical diversion

Question 359

20. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous
    drugs is called

Answer 359

D. clandestine laboratory

Question 360

21. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act
    of 2002, except:
    A. Cultivation, culture and delivery
    B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and
    trading
    C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
    D. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation
    and possession

Answer 360

C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance

Question 360

22. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

Answer 360

C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness

Question 361

D. Stimulant

Answer 361

D. Stimulant

Question 362

24. Which of the following is not one of the means
    of the taking methamphetamine hydrochloride?

Answer 362

D. Oral

Question 363

24. Which of the following is not one of the means
    of the taking methamphetamine hydrochloride?
    A. Chasing the dragon
    B. Smoking
    C. Snorting
    D. Oral

Question 363

25. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
    A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
    B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
    C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
    D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
    whose edges are serrated in shape.

Answer 363

D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
whose edges are serrated in shape.

Question 364

26. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are
    menace to the community because they:

Answer 364

D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.

Question 365

28. This drug is representative of a broad class of
    stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed
    to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental
    depression.

Answer 365

A. Amphetamine

Question 366

29. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering
    taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives
    of Opium poppy.

Answer 366

A. Morphine

Question 366

27. Which of the following is the commonly known as the
    “Poor man’s cocaine”.

Answer 366

D. Shabu

Question 367

30. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the
    indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness
    and corruption of the minds and body.

Answer 367

D. Vice

Question 367

31. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is
    from ____t

Answer 367

A. The Golden Crescent

Question 368

32. What will be the disposition in a case where minor
    is convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs?

Answer 368

B. Sentence will be suspended

Question 369

33. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for
    the first time shall be punished with:

Answer 369

B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months

Question 370

34. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
    hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
    difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that

Answer 370

B. It is easy to cultivate

Question 371

35. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-
    awareness and emotion:

Answer 371

A. Hallucinogens

Question 372

36. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having
    the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy

Answer 372

D. Anabolic Steroid

Question 373

38. A form of physical dependence, severe craving
    for the drug even to the point of interfering with the
    person’s ability to function normally.

Answer 373

C. Addiction

Question 374

39. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result
    of abusing drugs:

Answer 374

D. Detoxification

Question 375

40. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

Answer 375

A. Ketamine

Question 375

41. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.

Answer 375

D. Opium Poppy

Question 376

42. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
    A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
    B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
    C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.
    D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day.

Answer 376

A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.

Question 377

43. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its members from being hook to addiction?

Answer 377

43. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its members from being hook to addiction?

Question 378

44. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the liquor (alcohol)?

Answer 378

C. 0.15

Question 378

45. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

Answer 378

A. opiates

Question 379

46. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are:
47. Opium 2. Morphine 3. Cocaine 4.
    Heroine 5. Ephedrine 6. Cannabis

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 3, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer 379

B. 1, 2 and 4

Question 380

47. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?

Answer 380

C. experimental thrill

Question 380

48. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?

Answer 380

B. hallucinogen

Question 380

49. It is a chemical substance used as medicine or in the making of medicines, which affects the body and mind and have potential for abuse.

Answer 380

A. drug

Question 380

50. It is the production, preparation, compounding or processing a dangerous drug either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin or by chemical synthesis.

Answer 380

D. manufacture

Question 380

51. This is any substance taken into the body that alters the way and the mind and the body work.

Answer 380

C. chemical

Question 381

52. It is the person who sell, administer, deliver or give away to another, distribute or transport any dangerous drug.

Answer 381

B.pusher

Question 381

53. It is an instance when the use of chemical has produced negative or harmful consequences.

Answer 381

D. chemical abuse

Question 382

54. This an attachment to drug use that arises from a drug ability to satisfy some emotional or personality needs of an individual.

Answer 382

C. psychological dependence

Question 383

55. It refers to the state of psychic or physical dependence or both on dangerous drugs following the administration or use of that drug. WHO defines it as the periodic, continuous, repeated administration of a drug.

Answer 383

A. drug dependence

Question 384

56. It is an adaptive state caused by repeated drug use that reveals itself by development of intense physical symptoms when the drug is stopped (withdrawal syndrome).

Answer 384

57. This refers to illegally used drugs or dangerous drugs, which are either prohibited or regulated drugs. It also refers to drugs that produces sleep or stupor and relieves pain due to its depressant effect on the CNS.

Question 385

57. This refers to illegally used drugs or dangerous drugs, which are either prohibited or regulated drugs. It also refers to drugs that produces sleep or stupor and relieves pain due to its depressant effect on the CNS.

Answer 385

B. narcotic drug

Question 385

58. is the increasing dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect in the body.

Answer 385

D. tolerance

Question 386

59. refers to the state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug.

Answer 386

C. drug addiction

Question 387

60. This is the illegal, wrongful or improper use of any drug.

Answer 387

A. drug abuse