CDI 1 TO 6 Flashcards by COLLADO KIM JAYCER A.

Which of the following is not one of the forms ofinformation the investigator obtained from regular, cultivatedor grapevine sources?a. Sensory c. Concreteb. Written d. Physical forms

c. Concrete

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Coerced and uncounseled statements are consideredinvoluntary or forced confessions which are usually:

b. Extra judicial

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Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?a. Proof of the occurrence of certain eventb. Person’s criminal responsibility for the actsc. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame pointd. Proper chain of custody

c. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame point

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An act or declaration made in the presence and withinthe hearing or observation of a party who does or saysnothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for actionif comment is not true.

a. Admission by Silence

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Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied. It shouldbe direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.

c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true

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Which of the following need not be present in order toprove the guilt of the accused by means of confession oradmission?a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidenceb. Corpus delicti must be established separatelyc. Confession must be voluntarily and freely givend. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

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A person who, by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest, willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own initiative.

b. Casual informant

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Covert observation of a person, place, or things by humanor technical means to acquire information.

a. Surveillance

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This is also called “roping”, an investigation technique in which the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.

a. Undercover assignment

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What is the type of reasoning in which the collected information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.

a. Inductive

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Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, theinvestigator’s rational theory of the crime may begin with deductivelogic and later on inductive logic;Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learnedguess, but less than certainty and has very high order of probability.

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

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Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physicalappearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description ofthe witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction,conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of thevarious witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct

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After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimalrequirements to be observed by the investigator to insure admissibilityof photographs in court:a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevantb. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathyc. The photograph shouldd. All of the above

d. All of the above

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Statement No. 1- The systematic procedure for verbaldescription of a person after a short period of visualobservation is termed Portrait Parle;Statement No. 2- Description of police characters which awitness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose ofreferences is Rogue’s Gallerya. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrectb. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrectc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct

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Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside fromthe marking should be made immediately after receipt by theevidence custodianStatement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidenceshould be made at the crime scene upon collection.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is correctc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

b. Statement No. 2 is correct

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Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?a. At the time of custodial investigationb. During the actual questioningc. During the announcement that he is under arrestd. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

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Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchersgather at the center, and proceed outward along radius orspokes.Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow eachother along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside andspiraling toward the center.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is incorrectc. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

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“Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:

c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix withthe crowd to listen to their conversation

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Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical formsb. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered fromthe regular, cultivated and grapevine sourcesc. Persons and thingsd. A and B only

c. Persons and things

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This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:

A. RA 8049

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This is the first that an investigator must do upon hisarrival at the scene of the crime:

C. Interview ofwitness

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A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has justbeen unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness arestill emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.

a. Hot case

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This law is known as the “ Rape Victim Assistance andprotection Act of 1998”.

b. RA 8505

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A quality of good report where it should be a true representation of facts (correctness) to the best of the investigator’s ability.

a. Accuracy

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2. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigation steps accomplished

b. Synopsis

Same kind and same point

Cummulative evidence

Different kind of evidence and same point

Corroborative evidence

Specific information to general theory

Inductive

General theory to specific information

Deductive

2. After identifying, collecting and preserving informationgathered about the crime, the investigator shall_______________ such information to determine whether itcan stand prosecution and trial.

d. Evaluate

4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible thingsmay be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate,and assist the investigator in its task in achieving theobjectives of criminal investigation.

c. Instrumentation

5. Which phase of criminal Investigation will the investigatorapprise the person of his rights under Republic Act 7438?a. During the identification of criminal offenderb. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of theoffenderc. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt ofcriminal offenderd. During police line-up

b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of theoffender

6. What specific offense has been committed? Who committedit? When was it committed? Where was it committed? Why wasit committed? And how was it committed? These are called the_______________________ of criminal investigation.

a. Cardinal Points

7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in any or acombination of the following, except:a. By confession or admission by the criminalb. By corpus delictic. By circumstantial evidenced. By eyewitness

b. By corpus delicti

8. Coerced and uncounseled statements are consideredinvoluntary or forced confessions which are usually:

b. Extra judicial

9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438,Gino Aquino was invited and interrogated for the crime ofmurder. He executed an extra-judicial confessionacknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is theeffect of such confession to his case?

a. It can be used as evidence against him

10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?a. Proof of the occurrence of certain eventb. Person’s criminal responsibility for the actsc. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame pointd. Proper chain of custody

c. Additional evidence of a different character to thesame point

11. An act or declaration made in the presence and withinthe hearing or observation of a party who does or saysnothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for actionif comment is not true.

a. Admission by Silence

12. In this process, written confession of the accused is usedas a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthensthe prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge thatthe accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister

b. Crime reenactment

13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement,either oral or written, made by a person charged with thecommission of a crime which he admits participation in, orcommission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied. It shouldbe direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt.Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accusedregarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connectionwith the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. Itcan be implied.a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is falseb. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is truec. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false

c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true

14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of confession or admission?a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidenceb. Corpus delicti must be established separatelyc. Confession must be voluntarily and freely givend. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?a. Verbal Description and Rogue’s Galleryb. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketchc. Police Line-upd. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

16. You are an investigator of a suspected rape-slaying casewhich was allegedly witnessed by a certain person whovolunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator.What are the factors that you should not consider todetermine the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearanceof the suspectb. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation whenthe crime was committedc. His state of mind when he witnessed thecommission of the crimed. The lapse of time between the criminal event and whenidentification was made

c. His state of mind when he witnessed thecommission of the crime

17. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that indirectly proves afact in issue through an inference which fact-finder draws fromthe evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce theconviction of the accused if:a. There are more than one circumstances presentb. The facts from which the inferences derived are provenc. The combination of all the circumstances is such as toproduce a conviction beyond reasonable doubtAll of the above

All of the above

19. A person who, by social or professional position possessesor has access to information of continuing interest, willinglyprovides information to the police either in response to aspecific request or his own initiative.

b. Casual informant

20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by humanor technical means to acquire information.

a. Surveillance

21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are stationed at afixed point assuming that subject follows the same generalroute each day.

b. Leap Frog Method

22. This is also called “roping”, an investigation technique inwhich the operative conceals his true identity and adopts anassumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specificmission.

a. Undercover assignment

23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected murdercase which the there is no known suspect, no witnesses nor any othercircumstantial evidence, except physical evidence. Where can you getthese pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity of the suspect?

a. The Crime Scene

24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct thecrime scene. What are the components of the crime scenesituation which you would analyze?a. The suspect’s arrival at the scene and place of entryb. Movement of the suspect from point of entry and hiscontact with the victimc. The suspect’s place of exitd. All of the above

d. All of the above

25. What is the type of reasoning in which the collected information isanalyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.

a. Inductive

26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, theinvestigator’s rational theory of the crime may begin with deductivelogic and later on inductive logic;Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learnedguess, but less than certainty and has very high order of probability.a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is falseb. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is truec. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physicalappearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description ofthe witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction,conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of thevarious witnesses. No assumption is made without supportingevidence.a. Statement no. 1 is correctb. Statement no. 2 is incorrectc. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct

28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimalrequirements to be observed by the investigator to insure admissibilityof photographs in court:a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial orirrelevantb. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathyc. The photograph should be free from distortiond. All of the above

d. All of the above

29. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of thefamily are as follows, except:a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sisterb. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, greatgranddaughter/grandsonc. Uncle, aunt, guardian, wardd. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

30. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:

d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration,Inquiry, Conclusion

31. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?

d. Surveying

32. Application of all procedures for the search of missingpersons.

b. Tracing

33. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape,damaged or lost because of:a. Improper packagingb. Corruption of investigatorc. Non-maintenance of chain of custodyd. A and C are true

d. A and C are true

34. Statement No. 1- The systematic procedure for verbaldescription of a person after a short period of visualobservation is termed Portrait Parle;Statement No. 2- Description of police characters which awitness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose ofreferences is Rogue’s Gallerya. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrectb. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrectc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct

35. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside fromthe marking should be made immediately after receipt by theevidence custodianStatement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidenceshould be made at the crime scene upon collection.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is correctc. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

b. Statement No. 2 is correct

36. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police custodyof suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled tobe informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine whichcannot be waived?a. At the time of custodial investigationb. During the actual questioningc. During the announcement that he is under arrestd. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning

37. What is the principal psychological factor that contributesto a successful interrogation?

a. Privacy

38. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchersgather at the center, and proceed outward along radius orspokes.Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow eachother along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside andspiraling toward the center.a. Statement No. 1 is correctb. Statement No. 2 is incorrectc. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correctd. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

39. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:

c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix withthe crowd to listen to their conversation

40. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:

c. Persons and things

41. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dyingperson. You will obtain dying declaration from him. Which of thefollowing is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?

c. Attempt to save the life of the victim

42. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:

A. RA 8049

43. The notion which declares that human behavior tends torepeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator indetermining:

B. Modus operandi

44. This is the first that an investigator must do upon hisarrival at the scene of the crime:

C. Interview ofwitness

45. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification:

A. Cartographic sketch

46. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer wholeads the execution of a valid search warrant. Who must bepresent when a valid search warrant is conducted on adomicile?A. The house ownerB. Any member of the house owner’s familyC. Two witnesses residing in the same communityD. All of the above

D. All of the above

47. In Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidence obtained inviolation of any of these is inadmissible, except one.a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizuresb. Right to privacy and communication and correspondencec. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incriminationd. Right to counsel

d. Right to counsel

48. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has justbeen unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness arestill emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.

a. Hot case

49. This law is known as the “ Rape Victim Assistance andprotection Act of 1998”.

b. RA 8505

50. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence need to bephotographed after its removal from the crime scene?

b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of thewounds

51. The photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime are thefollowing, except:a. Over-All and environment’s photographb. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of thedeceasedc. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showingtheir identityd. Special technique photographs of the body after removal

c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showingtheir identity

52. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered tobe the simplest and the most effective way of showing actualmeasurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in theirlocation at the scene.

a. Crime scene sketch

53. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene,the following types of search could be used dependingupon locale, number of personnel available, type of objectsought and speed desired, except:a. Strip and double strip or grid searchb. Zone searchc. Rectangular and circular searchd. Spiral and wheel search

c. Rectangular and circular search

54. Which of the following must be done to maintain thephysical integrity of evidence?

d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence

55. Which of the following must be done to maintain thelegal integrity of evidence?

b. Maintain its chain of custody

56. The methodology involving the systematic searching,handling, distribution and accountability of all evidencefound at the crime scene, including the documentation ofevery article of evidence from the point of initial discoveryat the scene, to its collection and transport to the point ofexamination, its temporary storage and its final disposal isreferred to us.

d. Chainof custody

57. To prove the chain of custody of evidence, thefollowing must be demonstrated, except:a. The evidence must be free from alteration,contamination and switchingb. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at thescene

d. Any change in the condition of the evidence canbe explained

58. Which of the following is not one of the questioningtechniques that should be utilized in interrogation?a. Chronological c. Going backwardb. General to specific d. Goingupward

d. Goingupward

59. In questioning a witness, the ideal type of writtenstatement is:a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be shortb. Question and answer because it provides detailsof actsc. Combination of the twod. Your convenient type

b. Question and answer because it provides detailsof acts

60. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answerquestions pertinent to the murder case being investigated.After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however,he was held for further questioning and considered him asuspect already. Persons who can visit him are as follow,except:a. Lovers, friends and countrymenb. Immediate member of his familyc. Any medical doctor, priest or religious ministerd. Personnel of the C.H.R.

a. Lovers, friends and countrymen

61. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rapeb. Duel, abortion and infanticidec. Homicide and murderd. Parricide

a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape

62. Vincent killed his adopter after the rendition of judgment of the petition foradoption. What was the crime committed by Vincent?

c. Homicide

63. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are thatmistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected and thehomicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which heburns behind him. Which of the following is not one of the so called“Burned bridges”?a. When the dead person has been movedb. When the dead body has been embalmedc. When the dead body has been contaminated and thechain of custody was not properly accountedd. When the body is burned or cremated

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and thechain of custody was not properly accounted

64. This is considered to be the beginning of any homicideinvestigation.

a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death

65. In a case of dead person, when should autopsy be performed?

b. At once, when there is the slightest reason to suspectthe probability of homicide

66. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigatorupon arrival at the homicide scene?a. Verification of the victim’s deathb. Identification of the person who is responsible for the deathc. Call a physician for the proper declaration of deathd. All of the above

a. Verification of the victim’s death

67. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?

d. All of the above

68. You were a police officer who responded in a violent crime justrecently occurred. How would you determine signs of death?a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movementb. By hearing heart soundsc. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a persond. Any of the above

d. Any of the above

69. The following are the uses of physical evidence, except:a. Determine the cause of crimeb. Reconstruct the crimec. Identify the participantsd. Confirm or discredit an alibi

a. Determine the cause of crime

70. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three importantfactors may be considered, except:a. The article must be properly identifiedb. Continuity or chain of custodyc. Legality of the procurementd. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material andrelevant

c. Legality of the procurement

71. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of thesuperficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by the frictionagainst a hard rough surface.

b. Abrasions

72. Statement no. 1-The admissibility of dying declaration is notdependent on it being made in any particular form.Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form requiredand need not be under oath.a. Statement no. 1 is trueb. Statement no. 2 is falsec. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both trued. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true

73. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, theinvestigator must be sure that the following had already beenperformed:1. Crime scene search is made and sketch and photographsare taken.2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken intoconsiderations and relative position of the body was determined.3. Notes are properly taken; evidence are identified,collected and preserved.4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, theprosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.a. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Below are the acts falling under rape by sexual assault, except:a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouthb. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orificec. Inserting penis while the woman is sleepingd Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital oranal orifice of another person.

c. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping

75. Post-mortem change that is characterized by thediscoloration of the body after death.

A. livor mortis

76. What injury would a person sustain if he or she hasbeen hit in the head with a hard object?

A. lacerated wound

77. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:

B. RA 7877

78. Which of the following body system coincides with thestopping of a mental organ function of a person to bemedically “dead”?

C. central nervous

79. Identification of a dead body through examination ofthe teeth:

C. Forensicodontology

80. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:

A. RA 7080

81. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?

C. Abduction

82. Which of the following is not one of the acts ofcommitting violation of domicile?

C. Search of the domicile without warrant

83. Senior Police Officer II Melendez and Police Officer ICastillo arrested and detained Jose Ramos without anylegal basis for the crime of theft. When brought to theinquest prosecutor, the latter issued a release order. Whatcrime, if any, do the officers commit?

A. Arbitrary detention

84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child,whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of hisascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?

c. Parricide

85. A and B are husband and wife. While working assecurity guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night anddecided to go home around midnight. He saw B havingsexual intercourse with their neighbor, C. A grabbed C andhacked the latter to death. As Criminologist-Investigatorwhat crime if any would you charged against A?

a. Homicide

86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offendermust have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intentto kill, the offender is liable for:

a. Physical injury

87. Under RA 8294, the use of unlicensed firearm in thecommission of a crime is not considered as a separatecrime but shall be appreciated as a-

b. Mere aggravating circumstance

88. X, a male, takes Y, another male, to a motel andthere, through threat and intimidation, succeeds ininserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any,does X commit?

b. Rape

90. In what order would the steps be done by theinvestigator upon the finding of an evidential cigarettebutt?

C. 2, 3 and 1

91. In the course of investigating the house where astabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains onthe front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and thevictim who may die were both cut their identities need tobe established through the bloodstains. How will the policecollect the stains?

C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a cleanrazor blade

92. Majority of the mistakes committed relative toevidence, take place:1. during periods of transportation2. in the collection of samples3. a contaminated sampling4. the wrong type material

D. 2 and 3

93. Once the crime scene has been thoroughlydocumented and locations of evidence was noted, thecollection process begins and will usually starts with:

C. fragile evidence

94. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?

D. release of crime scene

95. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked foridentification?

B. Marking at the back

96. Which among the five human senses is considered themost objective?

D. Seeing

97. How can identification be made on a decomposedcadaver?A. study his bones C. study his denturesB. study his skull D. all of these

D. all of these

98. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.

a. RA 9775

99. Philippine Act on Crimes Against InternationalHumanitarian Law, Genocide, and other Crimes againstHumanity.

b. RA 9851

100. In the Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidenceobtained in violation of any of these is inadmissible, exceptone:a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizuresb. Right to privacy and communication andcorrespondencec. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incriminationd. Right to counsel

d. Right to counsel

1. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as thefirst or earliest recorded medico legal expert.a. Antistius

b. Imhotep

2. First chief medico legal officer of the PhilippineCommonwelth.

c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin

3. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.

c. Paulus Zacchias

4. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon,who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar, reportingthat out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated thechest cavity between the first and second rib which wasCaesar’s proximate cause of death.

a. Antistius

5. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau ofInvestigation.

d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos

6. This states that the greater number of points ofsimilarities and variations between two persons, thegreater the probability of the conclusion to be accurate.

c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification

7. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.

c. Reddish-brown

8. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color,with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel withpressure.

a. Arterial blood

9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usuallydoes not spill far from the wound.

b. Venous blood

10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleinsbacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions.

c. Menstrual blood

11. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced inthe blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finercapillaries and arteries.

b. Embolism

12. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheraldeficiency, characterized by the decreased blood volume,its flow, hemo-concentration and renal deficiency.

b. Shock

13. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation dueto inflicted wounds in the cardio-vascular system.

c. Hemorrhage

14. The growth and development of micro-organism in thelocation of the injury or wound.

a. Infection

15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skindue to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of theapplication of a blunt force.

a. Contusion

16. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.

a. Defense wound

17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of theinstrument which caused it.

c. Patterned wound

18. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of

b. Cremation

19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section19 of the Code of Sanitation.

c. At least 1 and 1⁄2 meters deep

20. A pers20. A person who died of a communicable disease mustbe buried with:on who died of a communicable disease mustbe buried with:

b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officerpermits extension

21. A significant difference between the male and femaleskull is that in males, the supercialiary ridges are ______than compared with females.

a. Less sharp

22. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared withmale pelvis.

a. Greater

23. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessationin respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient todeclare a person clinically dead?

a. 10-15 minutes

24. A simple test used to determine cessation ofrespiration by placing water or mercury in a container ontop of the chest of a person and no visible movement isnoticed.

a. Winslov test

25. A muscular change characterized by the softness ofthe muscles and in which it no longer responds tomechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution ofproteins.

b. Stage of secondary flaccidity

26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached froma dead body in how many days?

a. 7

27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warmcountries within how many days from death?

c. 3

28. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone,loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation offragment bones.

c. Communicated fracture

29. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.

a. Internal hemorrhage

30. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.

a. Imprint abrasion

31. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.

a. Hypoxia

33. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutinationwith either group A or B what would be the particularblood group of the sample?

d. Group O

37. Average time for the stomach to empty its contentsafter meals.

b. 3 to 4 hours

34. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibitchanges.

b. 20 years

35. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish whitegreasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.

d. Maceration

36. A discoloration of the body after death when the bloodtends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependentportions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes afterdeath and is completed by 12 hours.

b. Primary flaccidity

38. Rate of growth of human hair.

a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day

39. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of bodytemperature is about:

b. 15 to 20 0F

40. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused byinfections carried in the blood stream. It may followobstruction of the pancreatic duct and subsequentcongestion of the gland.

d. Acute pancreatitis

41. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.

a. Wound

43. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

d. Hematoma

42. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so seriousthat it will endanger one’s life.

b. Mortal wound

43. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

d. Hematoma

44. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.

a. Sprain

45. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.

d. fracture

46. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.

d. Dislocation

47. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately:

a. 6 inches

48. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of the application of force.

d. Coup and contre coup injury

49. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.

b. Coup injury

50. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log

c. Lacerated wound

51. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?

a. Punctured wound

52. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

c. Lacerated wound

53. A condition of a woman who has had one or more sexual experience but not had conceived a child.

d. Virgo-intacta

54. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body.

d. Putrefaction

55. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body temperature.

b. Frostbite

56. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating mechanism.

b. Heat exhaustion

57. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?

d. Tibia

58. These are superficial punctuate contusions seen most frequently at the side of the neck, overlaying or anterior to the sternomostoid muscle, breast and other parts of the body.

d. Love Bites

59. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the cause of death would be:

a. Stupor

60. Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.

a. Gonodal test

61. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time of death.

d. Rigor mortis

62. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:

d. Sexual intercourse

63. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:

b. 3 to 6 hours

64. Most noticeable sign of death

d. Cessation of heart action and circulation

65. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no chance for complication or sequelae to develop.

b. Immediate or primary cause of death

66. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the development of serious suquelae which becomes the cause of death. It is usually common to cases involving stab wounds.

a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death

67. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful to proximate the time of death.

a. Flies

68. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.

a. Autopsy

69. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act.

c. Vaginismus

70. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, heat is no longer produced and the body slowly loses its temperature.

a. Algor mortis

71. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cassation of the vital functions of the body.

c. Suspended animation

72. Hair on the body surface is usually:

c. Fine

73. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the body and non-existent reflexes.

b. Coma

74. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the fetus is______ months.

b. 9 months

75. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma, absence of electrical brain activity and complete cessation of all the vital functions without possibility of resuscitation.

c. Brain death

76. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent cessation of heart action and respiration. It is a condition in which the physician and the members of the family pronounce a person to be dead.

a. Cardio-respiratory Death

77. This is the state of the body in which there is complete, persistent and continuous cessation of the vital functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.

b. Somatic Death

78. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is still animal life among individual cells. About three (3) to six (6) hours later there is death of individual cells. This is known as________.

b. Molecular Death

79. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital function of the body on the account of disease or external stimulus or other forms or influence.

a. State of Suspended Animation

80. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a finger with moderate tightness. In a living person there appears a bloodless zone at the site of the application of the ligature. If such ligature is applied to the finger of a dead man, there is no such change in color.

c. Magnus Test

81. After death the metabolic process inside the body ceases. No more heat is produced but the body loses slowly its temperature, evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding atmosphere. The progressive fall of the body temperature is one of the most prominent signs of death. This is known as_______.

c. Algor-Mortis

82. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal changes.

c. Post-mortem Caloricity

83. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when stimulated. The pupils are dilated, the sphincters are relaxed, and there is incontinence of urination and defecation.

a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability

84. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable of responding to mechanical and chemical stimulus and the reaction become alkaline.

c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation

85. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction of the muscles. This develops three to six hours after death and may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.

b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor Mortis

86. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of blood vessels cause the blood to be under the influence of gravity. It begins to accumulate in the most dependent portion of the body.

b. Livor Mortis

87. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent portion of the body but still inside the blood vessels and still fluid in form.

a. Hypostatic Lividity

88. This appears during the later stage of its formation when blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the tissues of the body.

b. Diffusion Lividity

89. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components associated with the foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color.

c. Putrefaction

90. The dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and preservation of the body.

c. Mummification

91. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the body are transformed to soft brownish white substance known as adipocere.

a. Saponification

92. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium is the absence of putrefactive microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of fetus or utero.

a. Maceration

93. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury and disease responsible for initiating the trend or physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal termination.

a. Cause of Death

94. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop.

c. Immediate Cause of Death

95. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged interval which permitted the development of serious sequel which actually causes death.

d. Secondary Cause of Death

96. It refers to the physiological derangement or biochemical disturbance incompatible with life which is initiated by the cause to death.

a. Mechanism of Death

97. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into being or how the cause of death arose.

b. Manner of Death

98. The fatality is caused solely by disease.

a. Natural Death

99. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound, stab, fracture, traumatic shock, etc.

b. Violent Death

100. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome.

a. CRIB Death

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION

1. It is the term used by authorities in securing an area where crime occurred.

C. cordon

2. ________ is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Rule 113, Sec 1.

A. arrest

3. This is a person held in custody.

D. detainee

4. It is a property or money given as surety that a person released from custody will return at an appointed time.

B. bail

5. It includes any questioning by law enforcement authorities after a person is taken into custody or deprived of his freedom in any significant manner.

A. custodial investigation

6. It is the legal act of confiscating.

C. murder

8. It is any person who, not falling within the provisions of Article 246, shall kill another, without the attendance of any of the circumstances enumerated in the next preceding article, shall be deemed guilty of homicide and be punished by reclusion temporal.

B. homicide

9. It is another way of acquiring an information through a pleasant manner.

D. interview

10. It is a formal inquiry or systematic study. The action of investigating something or someone; formal or systematic examination or research.

A. investigation

11. _______ is a person who conducts formal inquiry.

B. investigator

12. It is the process of being questioned. A tool used to collect an information.

C. interrogation

13. It is the act of looking for a person or a thing.

C. search

14. It refers to the tools or means by which investigators attempt to explain everything that transcribed in the crime scene.

A. instrumentation

15. It is a warrant directing any peace officer to search and seized.

D. search warrant

16. It is a law enforcement authorities or investigating officers who collects forensic evidence from the crime scene.

B. SOCO

17. It is a document from court ordering and directing a peace officer to apprehend and detain any person whose name will appear in warrant for him to answer matters regarding the commission of a crime.

C. arrest warrant

18. This refers to the issuance of invitation to the person suspected to have committed a crime who at the same time is brought before the custody of law in order to answer matters regarding the commission of crime without jeopardy to the liability of a person for a violations he/she may commit.

A. criminal investigation and detention

19. Without further delay, the executing officer of the warrant must deliver the arrested person to the nearest police station or jail.

D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest

20. It is the document containing necessary information about the confession of the person brought before the custody of law prepared by the investigating officer.

B. custodial investigation report

21. A point at which a check is performed by police officers or any other law enforcers for security and safety purposes.

C. checkpoint

22. This is taking a person in custody under authority of law.

B. warrant of arrest

23. It a sudden invasion by police officers or officers of the law.

D. raid

24. A ______ is when a police make an arrest without a warrant.

A. warrantless arrest

25. This refers to the process of determining the sequence of events about what occurred during and after the commission of crime.

D. reconstruction

26. This is a place where crime took place.

C. crime scene

27. This refers to a person who is a member of the SOCO team that takes lead during an investigation.

A. team leader

28. This refers to a person who is responsible in receiving, keeping and preserving of any evidence found by the evidence collector in the crime scene.

B. evidence custodian

29. It is the act of collecting or acquiring found evidence at the crime scene that is relevant to the case and may have value in the future.

D. collection of evidence

30. This refers to the identification of evidence.

B. recognition of evidence

31. It is the conduct of processes particularly in the recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and recognition of evidence to include the identification and interview and the arrest of suspect(s) at the crime scene.

A. crime scene investigation

32. This is the act of documenting every piece of evidence found in the crime scene. Observing proper labelling of physical evidence by means of sketching, taking of photographs or video recording.

C. documentation of evidence

33. It is the one who conducts crime scene investigation thoroughly over a case. CSI are the people who examine crime scenes with distinct specialties.

D. crime scene investigator

34. Without any assumption of its truth, it is a proposition made as basis for reasoning.

B. hypothesis

35. It is the act of determining its competence as an evidence.

A. evaluation of evidence

36. It is assessing the plausibility of hypothesis.

C. testing the hypothesis

37. This involves police procedures not limited to; first responder’s responsibility in the protection and preservation of the CS, identification and assistance to injured persons, recording names and location of hospital where they will be evacuated, call for emergency assistance; and etc...

A. crime scene response

38. This may be subsequent places which may include the victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the road between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any comparable indoor or outdoor area.

C. secondary

39. _______ refers to the site of the original or first criminal activity.

B. primary

40. It is composed of many crime scenes. E.g. a gunshot victim’s body dumped in a field represents the following crime scenes within overall crime scene of the field; the body, the body’s wounds, and the ground around the body.

D. single microscopic crime scene

41. The crime scene technician must ______ the first officer who responded to the scene or the victim to the determine the “hypothesis” of the case

B. interview

42. The ________ are the trace evidence on the body, the gunshot residue around the wound, and the tire tread marks in the ground next to the body.

A. microscopic crime scene

43. This is the third step in crime scene processing.

D. photograph

44. This is the second step in crime scene processing.

C. examine

45. Those are the one who use the `poker’ face who hide their emotions by being expressionless.

A. withholders

46. This are individuals who readily react to stimulus and show it through facial expressions. These are the easiest to deal with.

D. ever-ready expressors

47. This describes those who demonstrate facial expressions but contradict their true feelings.

C. substitute expressors

48. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on their sleeves they show their face. Most investigators find this kind difficult to deal with.

B. revealers

49. It is the confession or final conclusive report.

C. conclusion

50. _______ refers to the manner in which words are spoken.

A. paralanguage

51. _______ include movements of the eyes, expressions on the face, movements of certain parts of the body (such as hands and feet, and body posture.

B. kinetics or body motions

52. This occurs during as well as after interrogation. It is an ongoing assessment of the data to quality and quantity and what is needed to further refine it, consolidate what’s there, and focus for final conclusion or confession.

D. evaluate

53. Keep question as simple as possible avoid confusing questions.

C. simple question

54. It refers to establishing a good communication in order to proceed a cognitive interview.

B. build rapport

55. This means that investigators must not allow a question answerable by yes or no.

D. avoid implied answers

56. The investigator must review the facts about the case.

A. case review

57. Brief the investigator taking charge.

D. none of the above

58. It is the surrounding area which includes any entry and exit points, or in the case of a shooting, any area where spent ammunition might be found.

B. outer perimeter

59. ________ which is where any evidence might have been thrown by the suspect while fleeing.

C. extended perimeter

60. The immediate area where the crime was committed.

A. inner perimeter

61. Raid is where the crime took place.

B. false

62. An act defining certain rights of the person arrested, detained.

D. RA 7438

63. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the Philippine, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for any property described therein and bring it before the court. Read Art III, Sec. 2, 1987 Constitution.

A. search and seizure

64. It is the policy of the Senate to value the dignity of every human being and guarantee full respect for human rights.

C. Section 1. Statement of Policy

65. This are the properties which are subject of the offense.

B. properties subject to seizure

66. A person is called detainee when he/she is being held in custody A. true B. false C. yes D. no

A. true

67. Is it true that cordon is the term used by authorities in securing an area where crime occurred? A. true B. false C. yes D. no

C. yes

68. Warrantless arrest is a document from court ordering and directing a peace officer to apprehend and detain any person whose name will appear in warrant for him to answer matters regarding the commission of a crime. A. true B. false C. yes D. no

B. false

69. It is some sort of collateral, whether it is cash or a bond to guarantee a defendant is going to show up to Court.

A. bail

70. It is a person who carries out a formal inquiry or investigation.

C. investigator

71. It is the action of interrogating or the process of being interrogated.

B. Investigation

72. It is a legal document authorizing a police officer or other official to enter and search premises.

D. Search warrant

73. Sgt. Cruz and Pat. Flores arrested and detained Ramon without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further investigation. What was the crime if any do they have committed?

C. Delaying release

74. It is the wrongful restraining or imprisonment of a non-citizen.

B. Illegal detention

75. It is the violation of the right to liberty.

A. Arbitrary detention

76. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?

C. parricide

77. Brando and Yana is married couple. While working as security guard of Bank, Brando felt sick one night and decided to go home around midnight and saw Yana having sexual intercourse with a neighbor Gilbert. Brando grabbed Gilbert and hacked the latter to death. As an investigator what crime if any would you charged against A?

D. none

78. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for?

A. physical injury

79. An injury which creates a substantial risk of death, or which causes death or serious and protracted disfigurement, protracted impairment of health or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily organ.

C. serious physical injury

80. It is the unlawful killing of one person by another.

B. homicide

81. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb.

C. abortion

82. It is the crime of killing a child within a year of its birth.

A. infanticide

83. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim.

D. murder

84. Custodial investigation includes any questioning by law enforcement authorities after a person is taken into custody or deprived of his freedom in any significant manner.

A. true

85. SOCO means?

A. Scene of the Crime Operation

86. _________ is the act of looking for a person or a thing.

C. search

87. _________ is the legal act of confiscating.

D. seizure

88. Interrogation refers to the tools or means by which investigators attempt to explain everything that transcribed in the crime scene. A. true B. false C. yes D. no

B. false

89. _______ is issued by the competent authority upon a showing of probable cause, which means a warrant may be issued if a reasonable person would believe the information at hand is sufficient to suggest criminal activities.

C. arrest warrant

90. A warrant of arrest may not be necessary when the accused is already under detention pursuant to warrant issued by MTC judge in (Rule 1112, Sec. 6) A. true B. false C. yes D. no

A. true

91. ______ is the deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a person w/o any legal ground.

B. arbitrary detention

92. ______ is the third step in crime scene processing.

D. photograph

93. _______ refers to the process of determining the sequence of events about what occurred during and after the commission of crime.

D. reconstruction

94. _______ refers to the identification of evidence.

B. recognition of evidence

95. _______ may be subsequent places which may include the victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the road between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any comparable indoor or outdoor area.

C. secondary

96. A warrantless arrest is when a police make an arrest without a warrant. A. true B. false C. yes D. no

A. true

97. ________ is the third step in crime scene processing.

D. photograph

98. ________ are the individuals who readily react to stimulus and show it through facial expressions. These are the easiest to deal with.

D. ever-ready expressors

99. A point at which a check is performed by police officers or any other law enforcers for security and safety purposes.

C. checkpoint

100. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on their sleeves they show their face. Most investigators find this kind difficult to deal with.

B. revealers

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

1. In general, drivers’ training and education aims primarily to: A. Teach the rudiments of driving B. Instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic C. Teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driver’s license D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory testing for driver’s license

A. Teach the rudiments of driving

2. After the applicant has taken the written examination, he should undergo:

C. Actual Road Test

3. There are various police units involved in traffic enforcement. Who enforces the R.A. 4136 and or national traffic laws along national roads and thoroughfares?

D. PNP-HPG

4. In chasing a traffic violator, identification of the motor vehicle should be obtained even while the operation is going on. Which of the following should be sought first?

C. Color of the motor vehicle

5. It is one of the oldest methods of traffic control in which one form of transportation is given priority by restricting or banning other forms of transportation.

D. Priority control

6. In using traffic signs, there are basic sign shapes and colors. Which of the following is not one of them?

D. Triangle red and green sign

7. What is the primary consideration when dealing with a violator?

D. Establishing pleasant relationship

8. What is the enforcement activity which involves actual inspection of motor vehicles and motorists on the road?

C. Road check

9. Of the following, which one regulates the movement of turning and passing traffic regulations?

A. Round and red sign

10. Which of the following traffic signs are intended to guide motorists along established routes, inform the motorists of the proper roads, and help motorists along the way in the most simple and direct method?

C. Informative signs

11. This is loosely defined as any acts that violate a state or municipalities traffic laws.

D. Traffic violation

12. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as transportation is concerned?

D. Internal combustion Engine

13. Which of the following is not a danger warning sign?

C. Speed limit

14. The traffic citation ticket as temporary driving permit expires after how many hours?

D. 72

15. What is the color of the traffic light located in the center of the traffic signaling device?

A. Amber

16. This is actually a form of safety education where the traffic enforcer tells the violator that he violated a traffic law and explains the hazards of his violation.

C. Verbal Warning

17. Of the following classifications of traffic signal lights, which is designed primarily to control and regulate traffic flows?

B. Traffic control signals

18. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly those related to traffic obstruction to have free-flow of traffic is a goal of traffic law enforcement which is to: A. All of these B. Increase traffic efficiency C. Increase traffic mobility D. Increases safety level

B. Increase traffic efficiency

19. When you are approaching an intersection with a traffic light with a steady red, which of the following should neither be expected nor observed? A. None of these B. Stop at the designated line. C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side. D. Expect pedestrians to cross at the pedestrian lane.

C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.

20. Who among the following has the priority over the other road users?

B. Motor vehicles on public roads

21. Which is used to announce one’s intention to turn?

A. Directional signals

22. Perpendicular intersection is the most common configuration for roads that cross each other, and it is the most basic type. This type of intersection is also known as:

B. "Four-way" intersection

23. A flashing yellow light means, except: A. This is the same as a stop sign B. Proceed through the intersection with caution C. You have the right of way over a flashing red light D. Vehicles on the other side will proceed after coming to a full stop

A. This is the same as a stop sign

24. A Single Continuous Line On a Four-lane Road indicates the following, except: A. When there are slow and fast lanes, never overtake by passing over the solid white line B. Lanes 1 & 4 (outer) lanes are for slow moving vehicles. C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the minimum speed limit. D. Lanes 2 & 3(inner) lanes are usually for faster moving vehicles.

C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the minimum speed limit.

25. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between means:

D. A roadway which is extremely dangerous

26. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement marking?

A. Directional arrows

27. Traffic patrol does not necessary mean that the patrol officer will be constantly moving from one place to another. For effective traffic observation, there are instances that the traffic officer will be stationing himself Amici Review Center 23 | P a g e in a strategic place. In relation to this, what is the traffic observation in which the traffic officer is in full view but so located, for example at side street, so as to require effort on the part of traffic users?

B. Visible observation

28. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential factors without any one of which the result could not have occurred.

A. cause

29. There are five essential steps in the traffic enforcement process: 1) apprehension; 2) adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4) detection; and 5) penalization. Which is correct enumeration in reverse chronology? A. 1, 2, 3 4, & 5 B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1 C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5 D. 1, 4, 3, 2, & 5

C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5

30. There are various reasons why people commit traffic violations. Which is not one of them?

D. Negative area of citizenship

31. What is the circumstance that permanently or temporarily alters an attribute?

D. modifier

32. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible hazards or the road and traffic situation ahead and usually determined by the road rather than the particular driver of a vehicle is:

D. safe speed

33. It refers to the time from the point of possible perception to actual perception.

B. perception delay

34. Which is not true about culpa contractual? A. Negligence is merely incidental to the performance of an obligation that is not existing because of a contract B. The proof needed is proof beyond reasonable doubt C. Defense of “good father of a family” in the selection and supervision of employees is not proper complete defense D. The master-servant rule is applied

A. Negligence is merely incidental to the performance of an obligation that is not existing because of a contract

35. Which is incorrect in culpa criminal?

A. Defense of a good father is a proper defense

36. Which could not be considered an indication of hit- and-run accident? A. The driver leaving the area of accident because he is in imminent danger B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility. C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver left and reported to the police. D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to seek assistance of a physician.

B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility.

37. Which statement is incorrect as far as hit-and-run accident is concerned? A. The driver who flees is always responsible for the accident B. The driver’s reason of fleeing from the accident could be that he is wanted for another crime C. The recovery of the hit-and-run vehicle does not always immediately establish the identity of the driver D. The driver of the hit-and-run vehicle may report that his own vehicle was a victim of another hit-and-run accident

A. The driver who flees is always responsible for the accident

38. What is the enforcement action which does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of warning alone?

B. Traffic Citation

39. In deciding whether to pursue or not to pursue or chase a traffic violator, consider whether the violation is hazardous or non-hazardous. Which of the following does not fall under the hazardous type of violations?

B. Traffic obstruction

40. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can be explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other driver as faulty is categorized as:

A. Projectionist

41. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic word “taraffaqa,” which means to:

D. Walk along slowly together

42. In the computation of the speed of the motor vehicle based on the length of the skid mark, which of the following is a major restriction to the process:

C. Absence of the suspected car

43. What is the mark caused by the forward rotation of the wheels being slower than the forward movement of the vehicle?

C. None of these

44. There are two major functions in traffic law enforcement. Whose function the enforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violations, special assistance to prosecutors and courts?

B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement

45. There are three elements of traffic enforcement system. Which one is consist of legislation, police, and courts?

A. Enforcement system

46. It refers to the groove made by a hard part of a motor vehicle to another car after sideswiping each other or it may be left on a road surface by a motor vehicle which overturned then slid on the road surface?:

D. Gouges

47. It is the measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements which is equal to the force exerted when the wheels are skidding divided by the weight of the car.

D. Either A or B

48. What is the United Nations convention that established the International Traffic Rules and Regulations?

C. 1968 Vienna Convention

49. What is the general principle that establishes who has the right to go first?

D. Right of Way

50. In determining the skidding distance of a motor vehicle, which is by far the most important?

D. Speed of the motor vehicle

51. Which is incorrect about skidmarks? A. It shows all the speed of the motor vehicle B. It is useful in estimating speed prior to an accident C. A good evidence in traffic accident investigations D. The length of the skidmark is affected by the road surface

B. Poor control measures

53. What should not be done by a driver involved in an accident?

D. Concealing his identify as part of right to remain silent

54. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking one another until they can scarcely move.

D. Traffic jam

55. What is the phenomenon in which traffic congestion reaches great intensity at predictable times of the day due to the large number of vehicles using the road at the same time?

B. Rush hour

56. Which of the following best describes a hit-and-run driver?

B. Evading responsibility

57. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in which vehicles impede each others’ progression as demand for limited road space approaches full capacity.

C. Traffic congestion

58. The following are elements of hit-and-run accidents, except: A. Suspect driving the vehicle at the time of the accident. B. Suspect was involved in an accident resulting in death, personal injury or damage to property. C. Suspect failed to perform his responsibilities stated in Sec. 55 of R.A. 4136. D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

59. Which of the following ancient wheeled vehicles refers to the travelling wagon where the passengers were protected by a covering of leather or cloth fixed over a wooden framework?

A. Italian cocchio

60. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving or misjudging the road situation ahead. This cause is under the factor involving: A. Driver’s condition B. Main Vehicle or motor vehicle factors C. Road Factors D. A or C

D. A or C

61. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic accidents, human error condition can be corrected by “E” or pillar of traffic?

B. Education

62. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of some foreign object in a collision or roll over. It is usually indicated by striations, rub-off of material or puncture. This is known as:

B. Contact damage

63. When encountering hazards on the highway, the driver usually makes an action to adjust his speed, his position on the road, and his direction of motion. He also gives signals of intent to turn or slow, or any other action in situations involving potential hazards. These actions are called

D. Tactic

64. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal which he is using.

A. Traffic unit

65.It is the taking of enforcement action such as detection then apprehension of traffic law violators. It also involves either the arresting, issuance of citation tickets or inspection summons, or simply warning any person who is believed to have violated a traffic law, ordinance, or regulation.

D. Traffic enforcement

66. The maximum speed legally permitted on a given stretch of road is called:

D. Speed limit

67. These are areas within the roadway constructed in manner to establish physical channels through which traffic guided.

B. Traffic Islands

68. Which of the following prohibits lane changing or overtaking anytime?

C. Double white or solid line with broken white or yellow line in between

69. What traffic light states that unless specified, you can turn right after full stop to clear traffic coming from the left?

D. Steady red

70. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the: A. inventor of the internal combustion engine B. inventor of the popular Model T C. pioneer in mass production of vehicles D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

71. Traffic control devices are sometimes mandatory. Which of the following is under this category?

A. Directional arrows

72. Special rules for four-way stops may include the following, except: A. In the countries that use four-way stops, pedestrians always have priority at crosswalks – even at unmarked ones, which exist as the logical continuations of the sidewalks at every intersection with approximately right angles – unless signed or painted otherwise. B. Whichever vehicle first stops at the stop line – or before the crosswalk, if there is no stop line – has priority. C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the vehicle on the left. D. If three vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the two vehicles going in opposite directions, if possible.

C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the vehicle on the left.

73. What is issued as receipt of confiscation of driver’s license, certificate of registration, and or plate number if the violation is a local traffic ordinance?

B. Traffic citation ticket

74. In determining the enforcement action to be taken, all but one should be considered.

A. Training of the enforcer

75. If A is born in 2008, when can he be qualified to apply for a student driver’s permit based on the current age requirements as provided for by RA 4136?

D. 2024

76. According to RA 4136, a professional driver is one who:

B. Earns out of driving

77. This is a part of enforcement activity which is usually done when a traffic violator fails to stop.

D. Pursuit operation

78. What is the process of training road users in the avoidance and prevention of traffic-related accidents?

D. Traffic safety education

79. What is the first mode of land transportation that challenged the rail road train?

A. Motor vehicle

80. Driving Company B approach to training their students’ driver is trough classroom lecture and discussion. What method does Driving Company B apply?

B. Traditional

81. What is the act of operating a vehicle in a way that shows a "willful" disregard for the safety of other people, including other drivers and pedestrians?

B. Reckless driving

82. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the:

B. Mass Media

83. The government agency having the primary responsibility of enforcing the R.A. 4136 is the:

B. LTO

84. Traffic offenses such as mechanical violations and most nondangerous moving violations do not usually carry the same stigma and penalties as serious criminal offenses. These violations are called

D. Infractions

85. Traveling too fast for conditions or in excess of the posted speed limits is commonly called:

D. Speeding

86. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are classified to as:

D. Provincial Road or highway

87. Roads that interconnect provinces are maintained by:

A. DPWH

88. The summons and/or citation issued by police officers to motorists and other road users who fail to obey traffic laws are normally called:

B. Traffic tickets

89. What is the Land Transportation Code of the Philippines?

D. R.A. 4136

90. Personalized plate numbers are also called:

A. Vanity plate numbers

91. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from the French word “Trafic” from old French “trafique,” and or from Italian word “traffic” or “trafficare.” (Italian). These ancient words mean the following, except:

C. to move

92. What is the point where two roads or streets cross one another?

B. Intersection

93. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name such vehicle is duly registered with the LTO.

A. Owner

94. The construction of an alternate route or road ease traffic in a particular area addresses the problem on:

C. Physical inadequacy

95. Pedestrian refers to people who are travelling along the Trafficway by walking. The term originated from the Latin word “pedester” which literally means:

D. On foot

96. All public roads are called:

B. Highway

97. These are the general practices and procedures that road users are required to follow.

C. Traffic Rules

98. What is the act of driving in which the driver anticipates the errors of others?

D. Defensive driver

99. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a function of

B. Traffic Engineering

100. The ongoing drivers’ seminar for public utility vehicle is part of:

D. Traffic Education

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

1. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

C. electrical wiring

2. Which of the following doe NOT fall under class A fires?

B. exploding gas depot

3. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

A. simultaneous fire

12. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:

C. murder

4. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen because___________

D. greater oxidation takes place

6. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

D. fire hydrant

5. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

D. explosion may occur

13. What is the most common motive in burning cars?

C. financial difficulties

7. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?

B. automatic water sprinkler

8. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc

D. class B

9. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this position?

C. a backward force is developed which must be counter acted

10. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?

C. electrical wiring

11. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning of a car by another constitute arson? A. no B. yes C. it depends D. sometimes

B. yes

14. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

C. flash over

15. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

B. overloading

16. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building

C. vertical shaft

17. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under fire condition.

B. fire wall

19. When you are approaching an intersection with a traffic light with a steady red, which of the following should neither be expected nor observed?

C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.

21. Which is used to announce one’s intention to turn?

A. Directional signals

22. Perpendicular intersection is the most common configuration for roads that cross each other, and it is the most basic type. This type of intersection is also known as:

B. "Four-way" intersection

25. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between means:

D. A roadway which is extremely dangerous

26. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement marking?

A. Directional arrows

B. Visible observation

28. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential factors without any one of which the result could not have occurred.

C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5

30. There are various reasons why people commit traffic violations. Which is not one of them?

D. Negative area of citizenship

B. Increase traffic efficiency

A. This is the same as a stop sign

20. Who among the following has the priority over the other road users?

B. Motor vehicles on public roads

C. Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the minimum speed limit.

31. What is the circumstance that permanently or temporarily alters an attribute?

D. modifier

32. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible hazards or the road and traffic situation ahead and usually determined by the road rather than the particular driver of a vehicle is:

D. safe speed

33. It refers to the time from the point of possible perception to actual perception.

B. perception delay

34. Which is not true about culpa contractual?

A. Negligence is merely incidental to the performance of an obligation that is not existing because of a contract

35. Which is incorrect in culpa criminal?

A. Defense of a good father is a proper defense

36. Which could not be considered an indication of hit- and-run accident?

B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility.

A. The driver who flees is always responsible for the accident

38. What is the enforcement action which does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of warning alone?

B. Traffic Citation

B. Traffic obstruction

40. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can be explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other driver as faulty is categorized as:

A. Projectionist

41. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic word “taraffaqa,” which means to:

D. Walk along slowly together

42. In the computation of the speed of the motor vehicle based on the length of the skid mark, which of the following is a major restriction to the process:

C. Absence of the suspected car

43. What is the mark caused by the forward rotation of the wheels being slower than the forward movement of the vehicle?

C. None of these

44. There are two major functions in traffic law enforcement. Whose function the enforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violations, special assistance to prosecutors and courts?

B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement

45. There are three elements of traffic enforcement system. Which one is consist of legislation, police, and courts?

A. Enforcement system

D. Gouges

47. It is the measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements which is equal to the force exerted when the wheels are skidding divided by the weight of the car. A. Coefficient of Friction B. Drag Factor C. Frictional Force D. Either A or B

D. Either A or B

48. What is the United Nations convention that established the International Traffic Rules and Regulations?

C. 1968 Vienna Convention

49. What is the general principle that establishes who has the right to go first?

D. Right of Way

50. In determining the skidding distance of a motor vehicle, which is by far the most important?

D. Speed of the motor vehicle

51. Which is incorrect about skidmarks?

A. It shows all the speed of the motor vehicle

52. Training of traffic auxiliary personnel answers the problem concerning:

B. Poor control measures

53. What should not be done by a driver involved in an accident?

D. Concealing his identify as part of right to remain silent

54. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking one another until they can scarcely move.

D. Traffic jam

55. What is the phenomenon in which traffic congestion reaches great intensity at predictable times of the day due to the large number of vehicles using the road at the same time?

B. Rush hour

56. Which of the following best describes a hit-and-run driver?

B. Evading responsibility

57. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in which vehicles impede each others’ progression as demand for limited road space approaches full capacity.

C. Traffic congestion

59. Which of the following ancient wheeled vehicles refers to the travelling wagon where the passengers were protected by a covering of leather or cloth fixed over a wooden framework?

A. Italian cocchio

D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident

D. A or C

61. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic accidents, human error condition can be corrected by “E” or pillar of traffic?

B. Education

62. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of some foreign object in a collision or roll over. It is usually indicated by striations, rub-off of material or puncture. This is known as:

B. Contact damage

D. Tactic

64. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or animal which he is using.

A. Traffic unit

D. Traffic enforcement

66. The maximum speed legally permitted on a given stretch of road is called:

D. Speed limit

67. These are areas within the roadway constructed in manner to establish physical channels through which traffic guided.

B. Traffic Islands

68. Which of the following prohibits lane changing or overtaking anytime?

C. Double white or solid line with broken white or yellow line in between

69. What traffic light states that unless specified, you can turn right after full stop to clear traffic coming from the left?

D. Steady red

70. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the: A. inventor of the internal combustion engine B. inventor of the popular Model T C. pioneer in mass production of vehicles D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

71. Traffic control devices are sometimes mandatory. Which of the following is under this category?

A. Directional arrows

C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the vehicle on the left.

73. What is issued as receipt of confiscation of driver’s license, certificate of registration, and or plate number if the violation is a local traffic ordinance?

B. Traffic citation ticket

75. If A is born in 2008, when can he be qualified to apply for a student driver’s permit based on the current age requirements as provided for by RA 4136?

D. 2024

77. This is a part of enforcement activity which is usually done when a traffic violator fails to stop.

D. Pursuit operation

78. What is the process of training road users in the avoidance and prevention of traffic-related accidents?

D. Traffic safety education

74. In determining the enforcement action to be taken, all but one should be considered.

A. Training of the enforcer

79. What is the first mode of land transportation that challenged the rail road train?

A. Motor vehicle

76. According to RA 4136, a professional driver is one who:

B. Earns out of driving

80. Driving Company B approach to training their students’ driver is trough classroom lecture and discussion. What method does Driving Company B apply?

B. Traditional

81. What is the act of operating a vehicle in a way that shows a "willful" disregard for the safety of other people, including other drivers and pedestrians? A. All of these B. Reckless driving C. Irresponsible driving D. Danger driving

B. Reckless driving

82. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the:

B. Mass Media

83. The government agency having the primary responsibility of enforcing the R.A. 4136 is the:

B. LTO

84. Traffic offenses such as mechanical violations and most non dangerous moving violations do not usually carry the same stigma and penalties as serious criminal offenses. These violations are called

D. Infractions

86. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are classified to as:

D. Provincial Road or highway

87. Roads that interconnect provinces are maintained by:

A. DPWH

85. Traveling too fast for conditions or in excess of the posted speed limits is commonly called:

D. Speeding

89. What is the Land Transportation Code of the Philippines?

D. R.A. 4136

88. The summons and/or citation issued by police officers to motorists and other road users who fail to obey traffic laws are normally called:

B. Traffic tickets

90. Personalized plate numbers are also called:

A. Vanity plate numbers

C. to move

92. What is the point where two roads or streets cross one another?

B. Intersection

93. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name such vehicle is duly registered with the LTO.

A. Owner

94. The construction of an alternate route or road ease traffic in a particular area addresses the problem on:

C. Physical inadequacy

95. Pedestrian refers to people who are travelling along the Trafficway by walking. The term originated from the Latin word “pedester” which literally means:

D. On foot

96. All public roads are called:

B. Highway

V98. What is the act of driving in which the driver anticipates the errors of others?

D. Defensive driver

99. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a function of

B. Traffic Engineering

97. These are the general practices and procedures that road users are required to follow.

C. Traffic Rules

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

100. The ongoing drivers’ seminar for public utility vehicle is part of:

D. Traffic Education

1. Which causes the greatest number of fire? A. spontaneous combustion B. leaking gas pipes C. electrical wiring D. smoking and matches

C. electrical wiring

2. Which of the following doe NOT fall under class A fires? A. none of these B. exploding gas depot C. burning nipa hut D. forest fire

B. exploding gas depot

3. Which of the following best illustrate arson? A. simultaneous fire B. unexplained explosion C. faulty electric wiring D. thick relish smoke

A. simultaneous fire

4. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen because___________

D. greater oxidation takes place

5. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

D. explosion may occur

6. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

D. fire hydrant

8. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc

D. class B

7. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling? A. fire hydrant B. automatic water sprinkler C. standpipe D. fire extinguisher

B. automatic water sprinkler

10. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?

C. electrical wiring

9. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this position?

C. a backward force is developed which must be counter acted

11. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning of a car by another constitute arson? A. no B. yes C. it depends D. sometimes

B. yes

12. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:

C. murder

14. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

C. flash over

15. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

B. overloading

13. What is the most common motive in burning cars?

C. financial difficulties

16. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building

C. vertical shaft

18. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:

A. smothering

19. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the fire fighter should avoid___________

D. making opening over the fire

B. fire wall

21. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?

D. Extension

22. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?

B. damper

24. What is a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistant material attached to and extending below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be heated upwards to a roof vent?

D. curtain board

25. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily?

D. combustible fiber

20. Which of these statement is TRUE? A. radiation is heat transfer through combustion B. radiation is heat transfer through solid materials C. radiation is heat transfer through air motion D. radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

D. radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

23. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?

B. oxidizing agent

27. What is known as the fire code of the Philippines

D. Presidential Decree No 1185

26. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building

A. vertical shaft

28. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:

C. prevent water hammer

29. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a fety device in an electrical system?

B. jumper

30. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the “reconnaissance” phase of military operation?

D. size-up

31. Conduction of heat transfer through:

A. solid materials

32. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate?

A. presence of humid substance

33. The most common motive of arson is

C. profit

34. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?

B. distillation

35. Light is transferred by light rays through the method of

D. radiation

36. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form lenitable mixture with air?

B. ignition point

37. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson? A. inflammable substance found in the premises B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building C. building insurance D. any of these

B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building

38. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is

B. radiation

39. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?

A. hydrant key

40. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flew cannot be checked, the safest practice is to

A. use foam to put off the fire

41. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

D.15

42. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?

B. ladder

43. Conduction is heat transfer through

D. solid materials

44. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?

B. rungs

46. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam, metal conduit and ducts.

A. conduction

47. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

51. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

B. establishment of corpus delict

45. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?

B. boiling point

48. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.

C. specific gravity

50. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?

C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay

53. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules

C.temperature

52. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called

B.conduction

49. What kind of toxicological analysis are routinely carried out for fire deaths?

C. carbon monoxide and alcohol

54. The cause of the majority of fire death is

D. asphyxiation

56. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

D.flash point

55. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases on our midst, which of the following facilities should you check?

A.electric switch system

57. What should the firefighter do what ventilating a peaked roof? A.make opening at right angel to ridge pool B.make opening on ridge pole on windward side of theroof C.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut sheathing D.make opening on windward side of the roof peak

C.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut sheathing

58. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the cufling?

A. heat

59. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container?

C.liquefied gas

60. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision?

D.observing the color of the flame

61. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start.

C.close to the floor beams

62. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?

B.oxidizing material

63. Passage way from one building to another or through or around a wall in appropriately the same floor level

D. horizontal exit

64. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as

B.bed ladder

65. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point origin or atleast to the area involved?

B.confinement

66. The techniques used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is called as what?

C. forced ventilation

67. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:

A.smothering

68. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface?

C.flash over

69. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?

B. oxidizing material

70. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the cufling?

A. heat

71. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

D. flash point

72. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules

C. temperature

73. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called

B. conduction

74. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.

C. specific gravity

75. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam, metal conduit and ducts.

A. conduction

76. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?

B. boiling point

77.How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

D. 15

78. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is

B. radiation

79. Which of these refers to the study of the sources, behavior, and measurement of heat?

D. Thermodynamics

80. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under fire condition.

B. fire wall

81. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

C. electrical wiring

82. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?

D. explosion may occur

83. Burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen with combustible substance. The French chemist who

A. Antoine Lavoisier

84. What are the two primary methods of starting fire?

C. Percussion & Friction

85. The relationship of the three essential elements of fire is illustrated by the –

B. fire triangle

86. What chemical reaction involves combining 2 light nuclei causing the development of a very strong energy?

B. Nuclear fusion

87. What chemical reaction specifically takes place the moment the spilled gasoline ignites?

C. Exothermic reaction

89. A hot piece of lump remains after solid fuel has partially burned and is still rapidly oxidizing without the manifestation of flame. This is called – A. ember B. glowing substance C. smoldering material D. all of the above

D. all of the above

90. The following are advisable techniques of extinguishing Class B fire, except – A. shutting the fuel supply B. pouring water over the burning liquid C. exclusion of air D. cooling the liquid

B. pouring water over the burning liquid

91. What substance is commercially produced purposely to put out fire?

D. Extinguishing agent

92. The Building Code of the Philippine or act of 1977 is:

A. PD 1096

93. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008".

B. RA 9514

94. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist?

B. establishment of corpus delicti

95. The cause of the majority of fire death is

D. asphyxiation

96. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases on our midst, which of the following facilities should you check?

A. electric switch system

97. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container?

C. liquefied gas

98. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision?

D. observing the color of the flame

99.Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point origin or atleast to the area involved?

B. confinement

100. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

B.overloading

DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

1. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?

D. Inhalants

2. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities

B. Clandestine Operation

3. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:

C. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar

4. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain and induces sleep.

D. Narcotics

5. Which among the following is one of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contains active components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?

C. Marijuana

6. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?

B. Marijuana

7. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:

B. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

8. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has: 1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs 2. Physical sign of drug abuse 3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction 4. Symptoms of Drug abuse A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and

C. 1, 2 and 4

9. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the Sumerians during 7000 BC.

A. Hippocrates

10. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China by the British Indies that leads to the Opium War of 1840.

B. Yung Chen

11. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.

C. Cocaine hydrochloride

12. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.

C. Cannabis Sativa

13. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except: A. Indian hemp B. Coca bush C. Opium poppy D. Ephedra

D. Ephedra

14. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the users?

D. Local organization

15. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market. I. Heroin and Cocaine II. Shabu and Ecstasy III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III

C. I and III

16. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects?

D. Hallucinogens

17. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body by one person to another is .

C. Administer

18. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him else where he ceased from using it. Diego’s act is called:

A. Abstinence

19. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:

B. Chemical diversion

20. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called

D. clandestine laboratory

21. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except: A. Cultivation, culture and delivery B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance D. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession

C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance

22. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness

D. Stimulant

24. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine hydrochloride?

D. Oral

24. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine hydrochloride? A. Chasing the dragon B. Smoking C. Snorting D. Oral

25. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by: A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown. C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.

D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.

26. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they:

D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.

28. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.

A. Amphetamine

29. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of Opium poppy.

A. Morphine

27. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “Poor man’s cocaine”.

D. Shabu

30. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the minds and body.

D. Vice

31. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from ____t

A. The Golden Crescent

32. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs?

B. Sentence will be suspended

33. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with:

B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months

34. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that

B. It is easy to cultivate

35. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self- awareness and emotion:

A. Hallucinogens

36. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy

D. Anabolic Steroid

38. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering with the person’s ability to function normally.

C. Addiction

39. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:

D. Detoxification

40. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

A. Ketamine

41. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.

D. Opium Poppy

42. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT. A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices. B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence. C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies. D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day.

A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.

43. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its members from being hook to addiction?

44. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the liquor (alcohol)?

C. 0.15

45. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates

46. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are: 1. Opium 2. Morphine 3. Cocaine 4. Heroine 5. Ephedrine 6. Cannabis A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

B. 1, 2 and 4

47. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?

C. experimental thrill

48. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?

B. hallucinogen

49. It is a chemical substance used as medicine or in the making of medicines, which affects the body and mind and have potential for abuse.

A. drug

50. It is the production, preparation, compounding or processing a dangerous drug either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin or by chemical synthesis.

D. manufacture

51. This is any substance taken into the body that alters the way and the mind and the body work.

C. chemical

52. It is the person who sell, administer, deliver or give away to another, distribute or transport any dangerous drug.

B.pusher

53. It is an instance when the use of chemical has produced negative or harmful consequences.

D. chemical abuse

54. This an attachment to drug use that arises from a drug ability to satisfy some emotional or personality needs of an individual.

C. psychological dependence

55. It refers to the state of psychic or physical dependence or both on dangerous drugs following the administration or use of that drug. WHO defines it as the periodic, continuous, repeated administration of a drug.

A. drug dependence

56. It is an adaptive state caused by repeated drug use that reveals itself by development of intense physical symptoms when the drug is stopped (withdrawal syndrome).

57. This refers to illegally used drugs or dangerous drugs, which are either prohibited or regulated drugs. It also refers to drugs that produces sleep or stupor and relieves pain due to its depressant effect on the CNS.

B. narcotic drug

58. is the increasing dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect in the body.

D. tolerance

59. refers to the state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug.

C. drug addiction

60. This is the illegal, wrongful or improper use of any drug.

A. drug abuse