CDI 7 TO 9 Flashcards
TRUST THE PROCCESS
1
Q
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
A
2
Q
- It is a network of illegal drug operations operated and manned carefully by groups of criminals who knowingly traffic through nefarious trade for personal or group profit.
A
B. drug syndicate
3
Q
- amount needed to treat or heal, that is, the smallest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic
A
C. minimal dose
4
Q
- It is the one who illegally, wrongfully, or improperly uses any narcotic substances for reasons of curiosity, peer pressure, or other similar reasons.
A
A. drug experimenter
5
Q
- largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired therapeutic effect, without any accompanying
A
D. maximal dose
6
Q
- It is street slang for cocaine.
A
B. coke
7
Q
- A death occurs because the part of the brain that controls breathing becomes paralyzed.
A
C. overdose.
8
Q
- It is the withdrawal effect that occurs after a repeated opiate use.
A
A. cold turkey
9
Q
- This is called when a person is under the influence of drugs.
A
D. high
10
Q
- Accurate cannot be performed by any ordinary chemist since detection of dangerous drugs requires sophisticated equipment and apparatus, special chemical reagents and most of all, the specialized technical know-how
A
D. laboratory examination
11
Q
- Drug abuse is a manifestation of an underlying character of Thus majority of the drug users are fundamentally immature, emotionally childish, and insecure or are suffering from problems of adolescence.
A
A. personality disorder
12
Q
- It is a process whereby a team of professionals composed of psychiatrists, psychologists, and psychiatric social workers conduct an examination to determine whether or not a patient is suffering from psychiatric disorder.
A
A. psychiatric evaluation
13
Q
- A sign or symptom of family problem involving parent – child relationship, peer pressures, unethical values.
A
B. social disorder
14
Q
- are those who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional energy to perform an important work. Such individual may or may not exhibit psychological dependence.
A
A. situational users
15
Q
- are those, whose activities revolve almost entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies. They show strong psychological dependence on the drug.
A
C. Hardcore addicts
16
Q
- This are the school age users who take drugs for “kicks’, an adventurous daring experience, or as a means of fun. There may be some degree of psychological dependence but little physical dependence due to the mixed pattern of use.
A
B. spree users
17
Q
- are those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug is an integral part of life.
A
D. hippie
18
Q
- This test is to measure the readiness with which the individual increases his knowledge and improves skills when given the necessary opportunity and training.
A
C. aptitude tes
19
Q
- This type of test is used to evaluate the character and personality traits of an individual such as his emotional adjustment, interpersonal relation, motivation and attitude.
A
B. personality test
20
Q
- This test is designed to cover a wide variety of mental functions with special emphasis on adjustment comprehension and reasoning.
A
A. intelligence test
21
Q
- This is designed to reveal the field of interest that a client will be interested in.
A
D. interest test
22
Q
- It is a derivative of morphine, commonly available in cough preparations. These cough medicines have been widely abused by the young whenever hard narcotics are difficult to obtain. Withdrawal symptoms are less severe than other drugs.
A
A. codeine
23
Q
- This are drugs used for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress, and insomnia. They are also of value in the treatment of epilepsy and hypertension. They are available in capsules, pills or tablets, and taken orally or injected.
A
C. barbiturates
24
Q
- It is derived from a poppy plant – Papaver somniferum popularly known as “gum”, “gamot”, “kalamay” or “panocha”.
A
A. opium
24
83. This are commonly used among hospitality girls. Sudden withdrawal from these drugs is even more dangerous than opiate withdrawal. The dependent develops generalized convulsions and delirium, which are frequently associated with heart and respiratory failure.
D. seconal
25
84. It is a tincture of opium in combination with camphor. Commonly used as a household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain.
B. paregoric
26
86. are drugs that calm and relax and diminish anxiety. They are used in the treatment of nervous states and some mental disorders without producing sleep.
C. tranquilizers
27
87. This is the king of all drugs with potential for abuse. Most widely used, socially accepted and most extensively legalized drug throughout the world
D. alcohol
28
88. , also known as opioids, are some of the oldest substances known to humankind.
B. narcotics
29
90. This are common synthetic drugs with morphine – like effects. is widely used as a painkiller in childbirth while is the drug of choice in the withdrawal treatment of heroin dependents since it relieves the physical craving for heroin.
D. demerol and methadone
29
89. This are gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as “gas”, “teardrops”.
C. volatile solvents
30
91. exerts action characterized by analgesia, drowsiness, mood changes, and mental clouding.
A. morphine
31
92. is three to five times more powerful than morphine from which it is derived and the most addicting opium derivative.
B. heroin
32
93. It is chemically known as methamphetamine.
B. shabu
33
94. It is is a greenish-gray mixture of the dried flowers of Cannabis sativa.
D. marijuana
34
95. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks, and some wake-up pills.
A. caffeine
35
96. This is an active component in tobacco, which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous system.
C. nicotine
36
97. is derived from the surface part of a small gray brown cactus. It emits a nauseating odor and its user suffers from nausea.
A. peyote
37
98. It is a take-off on the motor oil additive. It is a chemical derivative of mescaline claimed to produce more violent and longer effects than mescaline dose.
C. STP
38
99. This hallucinogenic alkaloid from small Mexican mushrooms are used by Mexican Indians today. These mushrooms induced nausea, muscular relaxation, mood changes with visions of bright colors and shapes, and other hallucinations.
D. psilocybin
39
100. It is the alkaloid hallucinogen extracted from the peyote cactus and can also be synthesized in the laboratory. It produces less nausea than peyote and shows effects resembling those of LSD although milder in nature.
B. mescaline
40
TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 and 2
41
1. This relates to the gathered data in connection with how the writer presents these in his report. It is vital since this will affect the investigator’s decision on the facts and information that he will include.
d. Selection
42
2. It is the quality of writing pertaining to being explicitly define and specific rather than general. A good writer must be precise and specific in writing his or her report, and should avoid ideas that mislead the readers.
a. Specificity
43
3. This refers to the point of view from which the investigator presents the findings of his report based from gathered evidences. For maintaining the objectivity of the report, the third person point of view should be used; the writer should refer himself or herself as the ‘investigator” or “the police officer”.
c. Perspective
44
4. It is the process of how a report is put together after the specific details of facts have been gathered. The chronological order of narrating events should be used in writing the report.
a. Organization
45
5. This is the conformity to facts and representation of truth with precision and exactness. In writing a report, all facts and information whether favorable or unfavorable to the concerned subject should be included, and these facts are verified by statement of witnesses, and by reference to official records or reliable sources.
b. accuracy
46
6. This refers to the clearness of thought, style, or expression of the writer. An effective writer must use correct English, and must point directly to the written communication to save readers from reading unnecessary words.
c. clarity
47
7. This has something to do with the quality or state of being brief and concise, with the quality or terseness, and lack or wordiness.
d. brevity
48
8. It refers to having all the necessary normal part, components, and style of writing in its entirety. In writing a complete report the elements of the crime should established and the additional facts should prove those elements.
a. completeness
48
9. This is an objective statement of the findings of the investigator, an official record of the information that is relevant to an investigation.
b. Report
49
10. Having this in writing is having or exhibiting a disposition that is free of favoritism, bias, impartiality, self-interest, or preference in judgment.
d. Fairness
50
11. According to the Philippine National Police investigative manual, these are the types of report writers, except:
a. The writers who think first and write afterwards
b. The writers who don’t write at
all
c. The writers who write and think at the same time
d. The writers who write without thinking
b. The writers who don’t write at
all
51
12. These are written reports referring to information on the status of the activity or operation within a unit or organization.
c. Performance reports
51
13. These are written reports identifying the existence and causes of certain problems. Examples of these are case reports on Causes of Juvenile Delinquency, Causes of Drug Addiction, and causes of Human Trafficking.
d. Problem determining reports
52
14. These are written reports on the methods of logical gathering and presentation of data. Examples of these reports about facts and figures of terrorism, Drug trafficking, Human Trafficking, etc.
14. These are written reports on the methods of logical gathering and presentation of data. Examples of these reports about facts and figures of terrorism, Drug trafficking, Human Trafficking, etc.
53
15. These are written reports identifying the processes and solution of certain problems. Examples of these are
case studies on preventive measures against juvenile Delinquency, Drug Addiction and Human Trafficking.
a. Problem solution reports
53
16. These are written reports dealing with technical and specialized subjects.
a. Technical reports
54
17. These are written reports on financial, personnel, purchase, equipment, property maintenance, and general correspondence which are important in the agency or organization’s management.
c. Internal business reports
55
18. These are written reports about police incidents, investigations, arrests, identification of persons, and other miscellaneous reports for routine operations of police organization.
d. Operational reports
56
19. These are reports that are furnished for the necessity of the solution of crime accident, and other police administrative-related problems,
b. Summary reports
57
20. These are reports that cover all the exact and exhaustive narration of facts. These reports are classified as Initial or Advance, progress or Follow-up, and Final or Closing Reports.
d. Formal report
58
21. These are reports that are mostly related with ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or memorandum form.
b. Basic report
59
22. This is written by a police unit or office based from a directive or instruction from higher police officers. This type of report follows the memorandum format of correspondence.
c. Special report
60
23. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty-four hours after an important incident. This report is written to inform an immediate chief or those in higher position of particular occurrences in his command responsibility
a. Spot report
61
24. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about those persons who are by the police.
c. Wanted person report
62
25. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of communication in a station. This is a routine report because the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily.
a. Beat Inspection report
63
26. This is a report that documents all the events in arresting a suspect including personal information, jail bookings, information about control and release of prisoners, and court proceedings. This report is based on information received, ensuring probable cause for warrant/ warrantless arrest.
b. Arrest report
64
27. These are reports written after the conclusion from preliminary investigation that a crime truly happened. This report also includes important factors like corpus delicti (elements of the crime), suspect descriptions, properties taken, evidences collected, property damages, victims’ injuries, and suspects’ modus operandi.
d. Crime report
65
28. This report is written by the officer who investigates the accident. This type of report documents all the facts and information about any vehicular accident whether it is fatal or non-fatal.
c. Traffic accident report
65
29. This is an advance information on a new or fresh case an investigator; the data in this report is not yet complete, but it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary investigation of the case.
d. Advance report
66
30. This is a written narration of facts developed by the investigator in the course of the follow-up investigation. This is a report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case but have not been incorporated in the initial report.
a. Progress report
67
31. A complete written narration of facts based from a thorough investigation of the case. This is a result of evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts and circumstances of the case, and the complete accumulate and collection of data.
b. Final report
68
32. This is the part indicating the summary of the result of the whole investigation process. The summary should be supported by facts basing from the order of statement of allegations.
d. Conclusion
69
33. This part is the coherent presentation of all the important facts supported by evidences involving the whole investigation.
b. Facts of the case
70
34. This part is where the investigator writes the purpose of his report by generally stating what the investigation is all about. Included in this part are the complaints, and the allegations of committed crimes.
a. Matters investigated
71
35. This is the part indicating all the factual information related to the investigation. The investigator discusses all the circumstances to give the reader a clear picture of the whole investigation in order to establish the conclusion and recommendation of the report.
c. Discussion
72
36. This is the first step of writing the investigation report where the investigator determines his purposes and objectives in writing the report. He the gathers the facts and circumstances related to the case.
a. Initial preparation
72
37. Just like the second step, the first draft should also follow the chronological order or presentation. The draft should be based from the outline and should be presented in a clear manner with the use of appropriate transitions to maintain the coherent flow of ideas.
c. Preparation of the first draft
73
38. This is the step where the investigator will recheck, edit, and review the rough draft to check the errors, and goes on rewriting to improve the whole report.
d. Rewriting and polishing the report
74
39. Using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and evidences, related to the case should be sequentially presented.
b. Final organization of the collected data
74
40. When an incident happens, this report must be made within twenty-four hours.
c. Spot report
75
41. Police officer Juan arrested a suspect. What should he make to document all the events in arresting a suspect?
d. Arrest report
76
42. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal vehicular accident. What report shall be made?
42. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal vehicular accident. What report shall be made?
77
43. PCPL Dela Fuente is an investigator who is investigating a particular case. He shall write an
that will provide permanent official record of the pertinent information procured during the course of investigation.
a. Investigation report
78
44. Ricky is a wanted person. In order for the public to know that he is wanted, what report shall be made by the police?
d. Wanted Person report
79
45. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports, official summaries of arrests, and other significant events reported in a police station. (PNP Manual revised 2010)
b. Police Blotter
80
46. Defined as a daily record of events within the territories of a police unit, it contains daily material concerning events for legal and statistical purposes. (PNP Circular No.5)
b. Police Blotter
81
47. It is a document containing facts related to a legal proceeding. The person who makes the declaration affixes his or her signature in a separate endorsement paragraph at the end of the document with a statement that the declaration is made under oath.
c. Sworn statement
82
48. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement of fact signed by an affiant or author, and witnessed by a notary public. This can be used as evidence in court proceedings.
b. Affidavit
83
49. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the date made by the affiant.
c. Statement of Attestation
84
50. This is a statement verifying that what is stated is true under oath.
d. Statement of truth
85
51. These are separate claims that are numbered as mandated by law;
b. Individual averments
86
53. A complainant executed this when he no longer wishes to pursue a case against an accused or defendant in a court case. The complainant states that he/she didn’t really intend to institute the case and he/she no longer interested in testifying or prosecuting
c. Affidavit of desistance
87
52. The part of affidavit which this identifies the affiant.
a. Commencement
88
54. This is a statement given under oath and penalty under perjury. This states about facts and circumstances about the arrest, the information which led to the arrest and the observation made before and after the arrest. This is filled out by the arresting officer.
b. Affidavit of arrest
88
55. An affidavit which contains the following: the name of the accused, the designation of the offense by the statute, the acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense, the name of the general offended party, the approximate time of the commission of the offense, and the place wherein the offense was committed.
d. Affidavit of complaint
89
56. This is a legal and binding document of written testimony of a witness as a way for evidence to be presented to the court.
It is usually filled out by a lawyer, and
then filed as part of the case.
Affidavit of witness
90
The part of memorandum which contains
the date, subject, thru channels and
addressee.
Heading
91
59. This is mainly for faster dissemination, the memorandum may be addressed to a specific individual or head of a unit, or by the use of an office symbol.
d. Attention
91
58. The part where the words “MEMORANDUM FOR” is used if sends to a superior office or “MEMORANDUM TO” if sends to a subordinate.
b. Addressee
92
60. This is placed below the subject indicating when the memorandum is written.
b. Date
93
61. This is written two spaces below the sender and two spaces to the right colon. It contains no more than ten words.
a. Subject
93
62. This is the originator’s name found 5 spaces below the last paragraph of the body of the message.
d. Complimentary ending
94
This is the message of the memorandum. it is
double-spaced when the message is less that
nine lines.
Body
95
Also termed as MC in government offices, these
have subjects that explain or classify rules for
subordinates to comply.
Memorandum circular
96
65. These are administrative instructions requiring
compliance from personnel or office dealing with
subjects like delegation of authority,
appointment or assignment of personnel.
b. Office circulars
97
66. Generally, these are issuances coming from
Department of Interior and Local Government
(DILG) to the PNP, these are administrative
instructions that are directive, advisory, and
delegation of authority, and instructions or
regulations to be implemented.
d. Circulars
97
68. These are directives signed by the Chief
Directorial Staff for the appointment, transfer,
promotion, reduction, relief from duty,
separation and leave of absence of personnel.
c. Special orders
97
67. These are administrative instructions that are
regularly and mandatory. This order is mainly for
the regulation of administrative matters in the
National Headquarters, Regional, Provincial, and
District Offices. These orders usually deal with
suspects like personal conduct requiring
compliance.
a. Office orders
98
This is about instructions to be followed on a routinary basis concerning regular procedures, the chief of the
director directs this.
pecial operating procedure
99
70. This refers to the verified, confirmed, evaluated, and
analyzed reports. These are the end products of the
investigation, and the submission of reports done by the
investigator.
Record
100
71. This is written in three (3) copies together with
the booking sheet. These copies are to be forwarded to:
Central record unit (original copy), Fiscal or Clerk of
Court (second copy), and Fiscal or Clerk of Court with
the complaint or other supporting document (third
copy).
b. Arrest record
100
72. These are records consisting of complaints or
assignment sheets which are considered as document
source for analyzing crimes. These are the foundation
record of any police department, and written by the desk
officer who makes the complaint or assignment sheet.
Case records
100
73. These are records that are not necessarily related to any complaints
d. Miscellaneous records
101
74. These are records of fingerprint identification which is done in two (2) copies. The first copy is filed in
the central record of the police station, and the second copy is forwarded to the headquarters of the National
Bureau of Investigation.
c. Identification records
101
75. The other term for investigative report is:
c. Formal report
102
76. Basic report is also known as informal report. The
statement is true.
a. True
103
77. Police records pertain to all written materials such as
books, papers, maps, photographs, documentaries, that
in ways are written or received by any law enforcement
agency that serve its legal purposes (Agsalda, 2007). It
is essential that agency should have a clear knowledge
on how to manage them properly.
b. Police records management
104
78. The records supervisory personnel need to adhere to the
following standards, except:
a. Assure good reports, set up good recording standards so
that all will know what is expected of them
b. Set up a system of spot-checking to ensure that
corrections are being made to assure uniformity
c. Protect the reputation of the department and its offices
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
105
79. This is the basic numbering system which the entire
major files are identified with.
c. Decimal system
106
80. This is the number issued to arrested and
Amici Review Center 48 | P a g e
booked persons who committed criminal offenses or
traffic violations. However, this is not issued to persons
who commit minor offenses,
b. Arrest report number
107
81. This is the control number assigned by the dispatchers for all police reports like traffic accidents, crimes, and non-criminal situations.
d. Case report number
108
82. This is the number issued by those assigned in the arrest and personal identification service detail. This number
is given once to an arrested person when he is fingerprinted and photographed.
a. Identification number
108
83. Infanticide and Parricide cases shall be counted as ____________ case.
b. Murder
109
84. Attempted and Frustrated homicide cases which result to injuries to the victim(s) are counted as ___________ cases.
Physical injury
110
85. Only consummated robbery cases and robbery in band are to be counted.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
a. True
111
87. The following are suggested strategies that a writer must adhere in writing a report, except:
a. Check and re-check first whether notes on gathered facts are already complete and organized.
b. If notes on gathered facts are sufficient, go back into the process of gathering more facts related to the situation.
c. Make an outline of the report basing
from the completely gathered facts.
d. Use the chronological order of writing in presenting facts and ideas in
the written report.
b. If notes on gathered facts are sufficient, go back into the process of gathering more facts related to the situation.
111
86. To ensure that a consistent crime
recording standard is maintained within
the PNP, each unit shall appoint
a____________.
c. Crime registrar
112
88. Qualities of a Good report, except:
a. Fairness
b. Brevity
c. Clarity
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
113
89. Report writers are greatly expected to be in grammar and
all its governing rules
c. well-versed
114
90. There are writers who write without:
c. thinking
115
91. Beat Inspection Reports are also called Before Patrol
Reports.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
a. True
116
92. In counting of crime
incidents, only consummated, and not, statutory rapes shall be included.
a.True
b. False
c.Maybe
d.No
b. False
117
93. Only consummated
carnapping cases are to be recorded.
a. True
b.False
c.Maybe
d.No
a. True
118
94. You can use the term
___________ as substitute to the term
Initial Report.
a. Advance Report
119
95. Below are the examples of miscellaneous records, except:
a. Records from the Immigration Commission
b. Records of City, Municipal, and Barangay Officials
c. Records of Organizations like Unions,
Cooperatives, Social Groups and Religious Sectors.
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
120
96. As a general rule, all crime incidents, whether reported by the victims, witnesses or third must be recorded in the police blotter, even under the following circumstances, except:
a. when the offender is ill and is unlikely to
recover or is too senile or too mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place.
b. When the complainant or an essential witness is dead and the proceedings cannot be pursued.
c. When the victim or an essential witness
refuse, or is permanently unable to stand as a witness
d. The victims or complainants or
witnesses are of legal age
d. The victims or complainants or
witnesses are of legal age
121
For compound and complex crimes, only the most serious offense should be counted. This is known as the:
a. Principal crime rule
122
98. In addition to actual physical injury cases, incidents perpetrated by/or involving insurgents/terrorists which resulted to the wounding of the victim(s) must not be counted.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
a. True
123
99. Suicide shall not be counted as crime.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
a. True
124
100.Infractions involving violations of
provincial/city/municipal and barangay
ordinances shall not be counted.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
a. True
125
INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS AND PROTECTION
126
1. It is also called as computer crime.
B. cybercrime
126
2. _______ is a type of fraud that involves the use of some form of telecommunications or the internet.
A. Wire fraud
127
3. _______ are individuals or teams of people who use technology to commit malicious activities on digital systems or networks with the intention of stealing
sensitive company information or personal data, and
generating profit.
D. Cybercriminals
128
5. Computer viruses is the gaining of unauthorized access
to data in a system or computer.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
128
4. This occurs when someone uses another person's personal identifying information, like their name,
identifying number, or credit card number, without their permission, to commit fraud or other crimes.
C. Identity theft and invasion of privacy
129
6. This sneaky virus disguises itself in the coding of links, ads, images, videos, and site code. It can infect systems when users download malicious files or visit malicious
websites.
C. Web Scripting Virus
130
8. It is the access to the whole or any part of a computer system without right.
B. Illegal Access
130
7. The most common way email gets hacked are
through phishing schemes.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
131
9. It is the willful engagement, maintenance, control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for favor or consideration.
D. Cybersex
132
10. ______ is a branch of criminology that involves the study of harms and crimes against the environment broadly conceived, including the study of environmental law and policy, the study of corporate crimes against the environment, and environmental justice from a criminological perspective.
C. Green criminology
133
11. A burial ground shall at least be ______ distant from any dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same distance from any burial ground.
A. 25 meters
134
13. The integrity of traffic data and subscriber information relating to communication services provided by a service provider shall be preserved for a minimum period of ______ from the date of the transaction.
B. six (6) months
135
12 Is it unlawful for any person to bury remains in places other than those legally authorized?
C. yes
136
14. It is the intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data, electronic
document, or electronic data message, without right, including the introduction or transmission of viruses.
C. Data Interference
137
15. It is the interception made by technical means without right of any non-public transmission of computer data to,
from, or within a computer system including electromagnetic emissions from a computer system carrying such computer data.
A. Illegal Interception
138
16. It is the intentional alteration or reckless hindering or interference with the functioning of a computer or
computer network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer data or program, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right or authority, including the
introduction or transmission of viruses.
D. System Interference
139
17. It is described as a fraudulent activity where the criminal uses the ATM card of another person to withdraw
money instantly from that account
B. ATM fraud
140
18. _______ is the gaining of unauthorized access to data in a system or computer.
D. Hacking
141
19. _______ overwrite file content to infect entire folders, files, and programs.
A. Overwrite Virus
142
20. This computer virus hides out in a file on a USB drive or email attachment
D. Boot Sector Virus
143
21. This computer virus travels through network connections and replicate themselves through shared
resources.
B. Network Virus
144
22. _______ spread by performing unauthorized actions on your operating system, folders, and programs.
C. Multipartite virus
145
23. This virus type infects your browser and redirects you to malicious websites.
A. Browser hijacker
146
24. This computer virus slow down programs and damage system files when a user runs them.
B. File Infector
147
26. The transmission of commercial electronic communication with the use of computer system which seek to advertise, sell, or offer for sale products and
services are prohibited.
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
148
25. It is an unlawful or prohibited acts defined and punishable by Republic Act No. 9775.
C. Child Pornography
149
27. It is the unlawful or prohibited acts of libel as defined
in Article 355 of the Revised Penal Code, as amended,
committed through a computer system or any other
similar means which may be devised in the future.
A. Cybersex
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
C. Child Pornography
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
150
28. When did cybercrime begin?
B. 1970
151
29. This refers to the virtual computer world, and more specifically, an electronic medium that is used to facilitate
online communication.
C. cyberspace
152
30. _______ are people who specialize in attacks on the telephone system.
A. phreakers
153
31. ATM fraud occurs when someone uses another person's personal identifying information without permission.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
154
32. Fraud is the gaining of unauthorized access to data in
a system or computer.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
155
33. It shall be unlawful for any person to bury remains
in places other than those legally authorized.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
156
34. No burial ground shall be located within ______ from either side of a river or within 50 meters from any source of water supply.
D. 50 meters
157
35. Compliance with burial requirements such as death certificate, proper depth of graves, shipment of remains abroad shall governed by Department of Health.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
158
36. A burial ground shall at least be 35 meters distant from any dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same distance from any burial
ground.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
159
37. When the cause of death is a dangerous communicable disease, the remains shall be buried within
______ after death.
C. 12 hours
160
38. Cutting, Gathering and/or Collecting Timber, or Other Forest Products without license is a criminal offense.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
161
39. Tree criminology is a branch of criminology that involves the study of harms and crimes against the
environment broadly conceived, including the study of environmental law and policy, the study of corporate crimes against the environment, and environmental
justice from a criminological perspective.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
162
40. ______ crime is a highly profitable and rapidly expanding area of international criminal activity.
D. Environmental
163
41. The term identity theft was coined in _______.
C. 1964
164
42. This type of computer virus is sneaky that they can even attach themselves to your anti-virus software files.
A. Resident Virus
165
43. This virus can infect systems when users download malicious files or visit malicious websites.
C. Web Scripting Virus
166
44. Phishing is the most widely used technique because
it's simple, affordable, and attacks the weakest link in any
security system – people.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
167
45. It is the unauthorized input, alteration, or deletion of computer data or program or interference in the functioning of a computer system, causing damage
thereby with fraudulent intent.
B. Computer-related Fraud
168
46. It is the input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent that it be considered or acted upon for legal
purposes as if it were authentic, regardless whether or not the data is directly readable and intelligible.
A. Computer-related Forgery
169
47. It is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, possession, alteration or deletion of identifying
information belonging to another, whether natural or
juridical, without right.
C. Computer-related Identity Theft
170
48. ______ can be defined as a subcategory of online sexual activity where Internet is used for sexually gratifying activities.
A. Cybersex
171
49. Child pornography is a form of child sexual exploitation.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
172
50. SPAM is also known as?
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
173
51. It is a published false statement that is damaging to a person's reputation.
B. Libel
174
52. This refers to activities that seek to compromise digital devices, such as computers, smartphones, tablets, and
even entire networks.
A. Hacking
175
53. It is also known as the Revised Forestry Code.
C. P.D. No. 705
176
54. It is the code on sanitation of the Philippines.
B. P.D. NO. 856
177
55. Washing clothes or bathing within a radius of 25 meters from any well or other source of drinking water
is prohibited.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
178
56. No radioactive sources or materials shall be stored within a radius of _______ meters from any well or source of drinking water unless the radioactive source
is adequately and safely enclosed by proper shielding.
D. 25 meters
179
57. Compliance with burial requirements such as death
certificate, proper depth of graves, shipment of remains
abroad shall governed by Bureau of Quarantine.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
180
58. Except when required by legal investigation or when
permitted by the local health authority, no unembalmed
remains shall remain unburied longer than 24 hours
after death.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
181
59. This republic act is also known as the toxic substances and hazardous waste act.
C. R.A. NO. 6969
182
60. This republic act is also known as the ecological solid waste management act.
D. R.A. NO. 9003
183
61. This republic act is also known as the wildlife conservation and protection act
D. R.A. NO. 9147
184
62. It is also known as the Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.
B. Republic Act No. 9775
185
63. This republic act is also known as the cybercrime prevention act of 2012.
A. RA 10175
186
64. P.D. No. 715 is also known as the Revised Forestry Code.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
187
65. Is the P.D. NO. 856 the code on sanitation of the Philippines?
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
C. yes
188
66. Green criminology is a branch of criminology that involves the study of harms and crimes against the
environment broadly conceived, including the study of environmental law and policy, the study of corporate crimes against the environment, and environmental
justice from a criminological perspective.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
189
67. A burial ground shall at least be 25 meters distant from any dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same distance from any burial
ground.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
A. true
190
68. No artesian, deep or shallow well shall be constructed within ______ from any source of pollution.
D. 25 meters
191
69. Child pornography is not a form of child sexual exploitation.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
192
70. Is the installation of booster pump to boost water direct from the water distribution line of a water supply
system, where low-water pressure prevails prohibited?
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
C. yes
193
71. Breakers are the people who specialize in attacks on the telephone system.
A. true
B. false
C. yes
D. no
B. false
194
72. ______ can infect systems when users download malicious files or visit malicious websites.
C. Web Scripting Virus
195
73. _______ is any criminal activity that involves a computer, networked device or a network.
B. cybercrime
196
74. A _______ is a malware program that modifies web browser settings without the user's permission and redirects the user to websites the user had not intended to visit.
A. Browser hijacker
197
75. _______ generally copy their code onto executable programs such as .com and .exe files.
B. File Infector
198
76. It is a relatively new type of malware that spreads from computer to computer without having to drop a file- based copy of itself in any of the affected computers.
D. Network Virus
199
77. It is a fast-moving virus that uses file infectors or boot infectors to attack the boot sector and executable files
simultaneously.
C. Multipartite virus
200
78. This includes many online swindles that involves false or misleading promises of love and companionship, property, money and wealth, investment fraud,
inheritance scams, etc.
B. Computer-related Fraud
201
79. It involves impersonation of legitimate individuals, authorities, agencies, and other entities online for fraudulent purposes.
A. Computer-related Forgery
202
80. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, and deprive others from registering the same.
A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Fraud
C. Computer-related Identity Theft
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
203
81. It is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, possession, alteration or deletion of identifying information belonging to another, whether natural or
juridical, without right.
C. Computer-related Identity Theft
204
82. It is a type of malware that hides and stores itself within the computer's memory
A. Resident Virus
205
83. It is a type of malware that infects a system's boot partition or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of a hard disk
D. Boot Sector Virus
206
84. It is a malware that has the capacity to breach web browser security.
C. Web Scripting Virus
207
85. It is also considered as unauthorized access.
B. Illegal Access
208
86. It is when committed intentionally, the interception without right is made. By technical means, of non-public
transmission of computer data to, from, or within a computer system.
A. Illegal Interception
209
87. It is a serious hindering without right on the functioning of a computer system by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating, altering or
suppressing computer data.
D. System Interference
210
88. It is the intentionally damaging, deleting, deterioration, alteration, or suppression of computer data
without right.
C. Data Interference
211
89. _______ is stealing from the machine in the ATM by breaking in.
B. ATM fraud
212
90. It is most commonly associated with illegal activity and data theft by cyber criminals.
D. Hacking
213
91. It is a type of fraud that involves the use of some form of telecommunications or the internet.
A. Wire fraud
213
92. _______ includes any scheme that uses a web site, chat room, email account, or all three to defraud a company or individual.
C. Internet Fraud
214
93. It is the transmission of commercial electronic communication with the use of computer system which seek to advertise, sell, or offer for sale products and
services
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
215
94. It is a criminal activity that involves a computer, networked device or a network.
A. Cybersex
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
C. Child Pornography
D. none of the above
D. none of the above
216
95. It is a subcategory of online sexual activity that is distinct from seeking sexual information and/or a romantic
relationship online—in that it involves sexual gratification.
A. Cybersex
217
96. This refers to any content that depicts sexually explicit activities involving a child.
C. Child Pornography
218
97. It is a defamation by print, writing, pictures, or signs, as distinguished from slander, which is defamation by oral
expressions or transitory gestures.
A. libel
219
98. It is an attack meant to shut down a machine or network, making it inaccessible to its intended users.
C. denial of service attacks
220
99. This virus targets a specific file type, most commonly
executable files (.exe), by replicating and infecting files.
D. direct action
221
100. It is the practice of sending fraudulent
communications that appears to come from a reputable
source.
B. phishing
