Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

Unlike conventional aircraft, what are you commanding with the stick?

A

Roll rate in bank
G load in pitch (Load factor Demand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you disconnect the autopilot with the sidestick?

A

Applying significant force to the stick will disconnect the autopilot, but using the disconnect button is better practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you deactivate a side stick?

A

Press and hold the red button for command authority. Holding for 40 seconds will completely deactivate the opposite sidestick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the actions done by the autopilot that are not represented on the rudder pedals?

A

turn coordination, rudder trim and yaw damping. All manual trim and other pilot inputs are felt through the pedals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Flat/Slat protections?

A

Surface asymmetry between left and right wing, Surface attachment failure, Uncommanded surface movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is S/F-Lock?

A

The Wing Tip Brakes are stopping the flaps/slats from moving to an uncommanded position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is A-LOCK?

A

A-LOCK prevents SLAT retraction at high AoA and low speeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many spoilers are there and why are they used?

A

10 total (5 per wing), they at as speed brakes(panels 2,3,4), roll spoilers and ground spoilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is different with the A320 when speed brakes are used while autopilot is on?

A

The A320 will only allow 1/2 deflection of speed brakes when autopilot is on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does it mean when the SPEED BRK message is amber?

A

Engine is above idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When will the speed brakes auto retract?

A

Above MCT thrust
Flaps set to FULL (config 3 in A321)
High AoA
Flight Control Computer malfunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you arm the ground spoilers?

A

Pulling up on the speed brake lever until you see the GND SPLRS ARMED message and can see the white band around the base of the lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the ground spoilers during a rejected TO?

A

When ARMED: 72kts + IDLE = Spoilers Deployed
UnARMED: 72kts + reverse thrust = Spoilers Deloyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which control surfaces move in each Flap setting?

A

1+F (1 set on ground or retracting to 1 in flight): Slats and Flaps Move to position 1
1: SLATS only to position 1
2: FLAPS and SLATS to position 2
3: FLAPS only to position 3
FULL: FLAPS and SLATS to FULL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After speed brakes are auto retracted due to TOGA power, how can you regain control of them?

A

Reduce power
Lever to retract
Wait 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When will auto spoilers engage on landing?

A

Spoilers Armed: Both Mains on Ground + Idle power
Spoilers not armed: Both Mains on Ground + Reverse selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is partial spoiler deployment engaged?

A

Spoilers ARMED:
Both thrust levers at or below IDLE
One gear on ground

Spoilers NOT ARMED:
Reverse (at least 1 engine)
One gear on ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will spoilers auto retract on landing?

A

Thrust above idle
Spoilers disarmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the Flight Control Computers?

A

7 Total
2 ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer)
3 SEC (Spoiler Elevator Computer)
2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do the ELACs control?

A

Elevators
Ailerons
THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do the SEC control?

A

Spoilers
Backup Elevator Control
Backup THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do the FAC control?

A

Rudder
Speed computations
Weight Calcs
Windshear warnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the event of complete electrical failure, what surfaces have a mechanical backup?

A

Rudder and THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How are the Slats/Flaps controlled?

A

2 Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCC) Each SFCC has two channels which power their own hydraulic jack
4 jacks per slat/flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What will happen to the Aileron max deflection with flaps down?

A

Aileron max deflection is reduced with flaps down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During pre-flight, the Slat/Flap surfaces are not in the commanded position? What do you do?

A

DO NOT MOVE THE LEVER, contact mx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In normal law, how is sidestick control different on the ground?

A

On the ground, the flight controls act like a conventional aircraft for rotation and control surface checks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is Normal Law switching from Direct Mode to Load Factor and Roll Rate Demand mode?

A

5 seconds after TO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When will the Flap automatically retract?

A

210 kts NOTE: THE SLATS WILL NOT AUTO RETRACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are you requesting when you move the sidestick to neutral position?

A

1 G load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does THS engage?

A

When you release the sidestick, the THS moves the Elevator to center the elevators in respect to the stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Little no back stick is required up to what bank angle?

A

33 degrees bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the pitch protections?

A

Load factor limitation
Pitch attitude (30/-15)
High Speed (Vmo / Mmo)
Angle of Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the G loading protections?

A

+2.5 / -1.0 G +2 / 0 G with Flaps or Slats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the Pitch (Attitude) protection limits?

A

+30 / -15 degrees Pitch Config 0-3 (at low speed +25 / -15)
+25 /-15 degrees Config FULL (at low speed +20 / -15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the High Speed Protection?

A

The green “=” is the speed where protection is activated. Nose down trim inhibited Autopilot disengages Limited acceleration even with pilot full down input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the priority protection in Normal Law?

A

Angle of Attack protection. Flight Control computers will override the pilot inputs to prevent a stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Vls?

A

Minimum airspeed FDs will allow. IF autothrust is engaged, they will not allow the aircraft to reduce speed below VLS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens at Alpha Prot?

A

Nose up trim inhibited Autopilot disengaged Logic changes from Load Factor Commands to Angle of Attack Commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens at Alpha Max?

A

Computers will ignore back stick commands preventing a stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is alpha floor available?

A

After TO Entire flight Descent Down to 100AGL in config 1 or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Alpha Floor and when will it engage?

A

TOGA power automatically engaged when: Excessive AoA Windshear Excessive nose up attitudes combine with specific sidestick inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When encountering turbulence during a turn, will autoflight return to commanded bank angle?

A

NO, you only control roll rate not bank angle. You must counter any roll change from external factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the max roll rate in Normal Law?

A

15 degrees / second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bank Angle Hold activates to what roll limit?

A

33 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Positive Spiral Stability?

A

During bank angles 33-67, releasing the sidestick will return to 33 degrees bank. NOTE: beyond 33 degrees, you will require back pressure like a normal aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the bank angle limit?

A

67 degrees bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What computers are involved in turn coordination?

A

ELAC and FAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What flight control has a cable driven backup?

A

Rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the landing memo displayed on the E/WD panel?

A

2000 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When does FLARE MODE activate?

A

50 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens at 30 AGL?

A

slight forward pressure to simulate a conventional aircraft landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the only protection offered in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Maneuver (G loading) High Speed and Alpha are replaced by high and low speed stabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is Speed stability (ALT LAW) different than Speed Protection?

A

Speed Stability attempts to pitch up (down) during overspeed however this can be overridden by the pilot. Protection, ignores pilot inputs to prevent an overspeed or stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How are sidestick inputs different in ALT Law?

A

Pitch is the same Load Factor Demand as NORMAL Roll is now DIRECT like a conventional aircraft. Roll rate doubles to 30/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens with Rudder Limits in ALT LAW?

A

They maintain last position before failure. When Slats extend, max rudder deflection is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When would DIRECT LAW be active?

A

In ALT LAW with landing gear down. This allows for full flare mode during touchdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is special about SEC 3?

A

It can only control spoilers and can not replace pitch functions of SEC 1&2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Abnormal Attitude Law and what protections are available?

A

When in an outside normal attitude caused by external forces. Maneuver protection is all that remains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the modes of teh FC servos?

A

Active Damping Centering Only one servo can be active at a given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If both ELAC fails, how is roll now controlled?

A

Roll spoilers only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In the GROUND MODE (normal law) Flight Controls movement is proportional to what?

A

Sidestick input (>70kts elevator limited)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is inhibited at more than 33degrees bank?

A

Pitch trim stops working.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is demanded by a Pitch / Roll Input on the sidestick in flight?

A

Pitch = Load factor (constant G)Roll = Roll Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to the flight path angle of the aircraft if the sidestick is put at neutral?

A

With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains 1g in pitch, and there is no need for the pilot to trim by changing speed or configuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the G (Load Factor) Protection Limits?

A

Clean: +2.5g / -1gOthers: +2g / -0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Descending through 30’RA on the approach, what happens to Pitch Control?

A

The system begins to reduce the pitch attitude, reducing it to 2 degrees nose down over a period of 8 seconds. This means that it takes nose-up action by the pilot to flare the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the pitch attitude limits?

A

Config 0-3: 30 degrees nose up, 25 degrees at low speed.Config FULL: 25 degrees nose up, 20 degrees at low speed.Max 15 degrees nose down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the protections available?

A
  • Load factor limitations- Pitch attitude protection- High AoA protection- High speed protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the Lowest Speed achievable with “Hands Off”?

A
  • The AP disengages at Alpha Prot. +1- With A/THR will be VLS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the lowest speed achievable with sidestick fully back? In Alpha Prot., what does sidestick movement command?

A
  • Alpha Max, even with fully backpressure.- In the Alpha Prot. Range, from Alpha Prot. To Alpha Max, the sidestick commands Alpha directly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens if, at Alpha Max, the sidestick is released to Neutral?

A

The angle of attack returns to Alpha Prot. And stays there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens to the Thrust when Alpha Floor is annunciated?

A

Alpha Floor automatically sets go-around thrust (TOGA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When does HI SPD Protection activate?

A

HI SPD protection is activated at or above (+6) VMO / MMO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What happens to the pitch if HI SPD protection is activated?

A

When it is activated, the THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircrafts entry into this protection and 11 degrees nose-up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What speed will the aircraft return to following HI SPD protection with NO Sidestick inputs?

A

High-speed protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happens if, in HI SPD protection, the sidestick is pushed forward?

A

As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the Max Angle of Bank?

A

67 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens to the FD / FMA if more than 45 degrees bank is applied?

A

Autopilot disconnects and the FD bars + FMA disappear: the FD bars return when the bank angle decreases to less than 40 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the Maximum Bank Angle for a Level Turn with “Hands off”?

A

33 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the Maximum Bank Angle in Hi SPD Protection and Alpha Protection?

A

HI SPD: 40 degreesAlpha Protection: 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Control laws and their characteristics

A

• Normal law- Pitch: Vertical load factor- Bank: Roll rate• Alternate law- Pitch: Vertical load factor- Bank: Roll rate in ALTN1 / Direct control of ailerons in ALTN2• Direct law, direct relationship between stick and flight control surfaces• Ground law (before lift-off and after touch-down), same as Direct law• Flare law (allow conventional flare):- Pitch: Stick orders a pitch attitude increment to a reference attitude- Bank: Direct control of ailerons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Protections in normal law

A

• Load factor protection• High speed protection• High angle-of-attack protection• Pitch attitude protection• Bank angle protection• Low energy warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Protections in alternate law

A

• Load factor protection• Bank angle protection (ALTN1 only)• Low speed stability:- VSW replaces αPROT and αMAX- If speed reduces to VSW, AP disconnect and a nose down pitch input is introduced• High speed stability:- Amber dashes replace the Green dashes on speed scale- If speed increases to VMO, AP disconnect and a nose up pitch input is introduced• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Protections in Alternate law without stability

A

• Load factor protection• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Load factor protection

A

• Load factor limitation:+ 2.5 g, -1 g in clean configuration+ 2 g, 0 g when slats are extended• Rapid pull-up to 2.5 g is immediately possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

High speed protection

A

• VMO + 4 kt / MMO+ 0.006,Overspeed Ecam warning• VMO +6 kt / MMO + 0.01, Automatic pitch up applied • VMO + 16 kt / MMO +0.04,Maximum stabilized speed stick maintained nose down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

High angle-of-attack protection

A

• VLS: Minimum allowed speed, A/THR in speed mode will not allow speed to drop below VLS even if lower speed is selected• Vα Prot: AP disengages, Auto Pitch trim stops• Vα Floor: TOGA thrust is set automatically• Vα Max: Speed is maintained with full aft stick, speed brake retract if previously extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Pitch attitude protection

A

• Nose-down, 15°• Nose-up,- 30° in conf 0 to 3 reduced to 25° at low speed- 25° in conf FULL reduced to 20° at low speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Bank angle protection

A

• Bank angle limited to 67°• Above 33°:- Stick released, aircraft rolls back to 33°- Stick maintained, bank angle maintained• In high speed protection:- Spiral stability is introduced regardless of angle- bank angle is limited to 40°• In high angle-of-attack protection, bank angle is limited to 45°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Low energy warning Available between 100 ft and 2000 ft RA in Conf 2, 3 and Full

A

• Aural warning, “SPEED SPEED SPEED”• To stop the warning, increase Thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Protections in Direct law

A

• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Are stabilities (aural, callouts, visuals etc.) always available?

A

No. Depends on the failures, as protections, load factor limitation is always available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How do pitch & roll control compare with normal law?

A

Pitch: only load factor limitation availableRoll: direct law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What happens to Turn Co-ordination?

A

No turn coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What happens when the Gear is extended?

A

Activates direct law except if alternate law is activated from abnormal attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What happens to pitch and roll protection?

A
  • No pitch attitude protection. Amber Xs replace the green double bars = on PFD.- Roll direct law.
98
Q

Alpha Prot. Is lost. What replaces it? And what is the Top of the Barber Pole now showing?

A
  • Artificial low speed stability replaces the normal Alpha Protection.- Available for all flap / slats config. Actives when 5-10kts above VSW. gentle nose-down.- VSW
99
Q

What happens at VSW?

A

Audio stall warning (crickets + “STALL”) is activated at an appropriate margin from the stall condition.

100
Q

How does HI SPD stability work? Can it be overridden?

A
  • Above VMO or MMO, a nose-up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. The pilot can over ride this demand.- Aural overspeed warning VMO +4 or MMO +0.006.
101
Q

Can you stall the A/C?

A

Yes

102
Q

Is Alpha Floor Available?

A

No.

103
Q

Control deflection is proportional to what?

A

Direct stick-to-elevator relationship elevator deflection is proportional to stick deflection.

104
Q

Are there any protections or stabilities?

A

No protections overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.

105
Q

What is indicated (amber) on the FMA’s?

A

What is indicated (amber) on the FMA’s?“Use man pitch trim”

106
Q

What happens if a sidestick priority button is pressed and held down?

A

Deactivate the other stick and take full control.

107
Q

What happens if a sidestick priority button is held down for more than 40 sec?

A

Latching the priority condition. (Locks the priority).

108
Q

What happens if both sidesticks are moved at the same time?

A
  • The system adds the signals of both pilots algebraically. The total is limited to the signal that would result from the max deflection of a single sidestick.- Two green lights “sidestick priority”- “Dual input” voice message is activated.
109
Q

What happens if both pilots press their press their priority buttons at the same time?

A

Last pilot who press the button has the priority.

110
Q

How is a de-activated sidestick re-activated?

A

Pressing the takeover push button on either stick.

111
Q

What illuminates a steady green light on the sidestick priority indicator?

A

Green Capt. and F/O lights, both lights flash when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.

112
Q

How many SFCC are there? How many channels in each?

A
  • 2 SFCC- 1 slat channel and 1 flap channel
113
Q

What happens if both channels of an SFCC fail?

A

If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate at ½ speed.

114
Q

What causes a Wing Tip Brake to activate? How is it reset to normal?

A
  • Activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway, uncommanded movement of the surfaces.- On the ground, by engineer.
115
Q

Do flaps and slats have separate W.T.Bs?

A

Yes

116
Q

How does Automatic Flap Retraction work?

A

When in config 1+F, the flaps retract to 0 automatically at 210kts before reaching VFE.

117
Q

Is there any automatic slat retraction?

A

No

118
Q

What is the resulting Flap/Slat config. When Config 1 is selected?

A

On the ground: 1+F (slats + flaps)In the air: only slats

119
Q

What does A-LOCK (blue) indication on the EWD?

A

“A-LOCK” pulses in cyan when the slat alpha/speed lock function is activated. If alpha >8.5 degrees or airspeed <148kts, retraction from 1 to 0 (slats) is inhibited.

120
Q

What is the effect on the sidestick / rudder pedals with the autopilot engaged?

A

Increases the brake out force on the side stick controllers and the rudder pedals.

121
Q

What is VFE next? How is it represented?

A

VFE next = max speed to select the next stage of flap.

122
Q

What are the FLAP limiting speeds and maximum altitude for extension?

A

FLAP 1 1+F 2 3 FULLSPEED 230 215 200 185 177Maximum altitude to use flaps: 20,000’

123
Q

What protection do you have in Normal Law?

A
  • Load Factor Limitation (+2.5/-1)- Pitch Attitude (30 degrees UP/15 degrees DN)- Bank Angle (67 degrees)- High Speed- High AOA (AOA Alpha Protection)
124
Q

How does the High Speed Protection operate?

A

If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed

125
Q

Can the pilot override this pitch-up?

A

No

126
Q

What is Alpha Max?

A

The maximum AOA allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale

127
Q

How does High AOA Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, pitch trim ceases and AOA is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed alpha max even with full aft sidestick deflection.

128
Q

What protection do you have in Alternate Law?

A
  • Load Factor Stability- High speed stability (Nose up command)- Low speed stability (Nose down command)
129
Q

Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate Law?

A

Yes

130
Q

What protections do you have in Direct Law?

A

None

131
Q

If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll be?

A

Direct Law

132
Q

When the landing gear is extended, what happens to Pitch Alternate Law?

A

Degrades to Pitch Direct Law

133
Q

When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?

A
  • When in Direct Law- When below 100’
134
Q

How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law?

A

By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits

135
Q

Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law?

A

Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft CAN be stalled in other laws

136
Q

What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law?

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

137
Q

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in?

A

Abnormal Attitude Law

138
Q

Will Abnormal Law revert to Direct Law on landing gear extension?

A

No

139
Q

What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?

A
  • Green: for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits- Amber/Black (alpha prot) airspeed tape
140
Q

What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber Xs?

A

You are not in Normal Law

141
Q

What would cause you to revert to another law?

A

Multiple failures of redundant systems

142
Q

What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?

A

Normal Law, Ground Mode

143
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?

A

Yes, in Mechanical Backup

144
Q

How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?

A
  • PITCH: Trim Wheel (horizontal stabilizer)- YAW: Rudder Pedals (Rudder)- SPEED: Thrust Levers
145
Q

What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM?

A

You are in Direct Law

146
Q

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?

A
  • Primary - Aileron control (roll)- Standby - Elevator/Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control (backs up ELAC 2)- Provides 5 degree aileron droop
147
Q

Under Normal Law, what do the FACs provide? (YAWL)

A
  • Yaw Control (Damping & Turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)- Airspeed protection computation (Alpha Prot, High/low limits, manoeuvring speed, PFD speed scale)- Windshear protection- Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)
148
Q

How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?

A
  • Amber “X’s” at the pitch (30 degrees up/15 degrees down) and Bank (67 degrees) limits- Only Vls and Vsw is displayed on the airspeed scale
149
Q

What do flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?

A

Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority

150
Q

What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks?

A
  • The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits- An aural “Dual Input” will sound- Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
151
Q

Which spoilers are acting as ground spoilers?

A

Spoilers 1 to 4 act as ground spoilers. When the ground spoiler surface on one wing fails the symmetric ground spoiler surface on the other wing is inhibited.

152
Q

What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank in normal law?

A

The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.

153
Q

How does the elevator actuation work?

A

Two electrically controlled hydraulic servojacks drive each elevator. Each servojack has three control modes (active damping centering). In normal operation is one jack active the other jack is in the damping mode. Some maneuvers cause the second jack to become active.

154
Q

The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?

A

A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

155
Q

Can the crew make a flight control input that will overstress the airplane in direct law?

A

Yes there are no protections provided in direct law.

156
Q

What are the lift devices on each wing?

A

Each wing has two flaps and five slat surfaces.

157
Q

Is there a mechanical control for the THS available?

A

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time if either the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.

158
Q

Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

A

20,000ft

159
Q

What are the levels of reconfiguration with failures in the flight control system?

A

Alternate law (two levels: with and without reduced protections) direct law and mechanical backup.

160
Q

The speedbrakes are actually spoilers …

A

2 3 and 4.

161
Q

Which hydraulic system drives the flaps and slats?

A

A power control unit (PCU) with two independent hydraulic motors and a differential gear box for the flaps (with green and yellow hydraulic power) and the slats (with green and blue hydraulic power).

162
Q

What kind of flight control computers exist in the A320 family?

A

2 ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computer) 3 SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computer) and 2 FACs (Flight Augmentation Computer) and in addition two Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC).

163
Q

What is the maximum elevator deflection?

A

The maximum elevator deflection is 30° nose up and 17° nose down.

164
Q

How many flight control computers are available?

A

Seven flight control computers process pilot and autopilot inputs according to normal alternate or direct flight control laws.

165
Q

Which computer controls the ailerons in normal operation?

A

The ELAC 1 controls the ailerons in normal operation. If the ELAC 1 fails the system automatically transfers aileron control to ELAC 2.

166
Q

What control surfaces do the FADEC’s control?

A

The rudder.

167
Q

What is the function of the Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC)?

A

The Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) aquire data from the ELACs and SECs and send it to the electronic instrument system (EIS) and the centralized fault display system (CFDS).

168
Q

What happens if one SFCC fails?

A

The slats and flaps are operating with half speed.

169
Q

What is the maximum aileron deflection?

A

The maximum deflection of the ailerons is 25°. The ailerons extend 5° down when the flaps are extended (aileron droop).

170
Q

Are there any control surfaces in the mechanical backup mode?

A

Yes, the THS and the rudder.

171
Q

If both FAC’s fail what happens to the rudder limiter?

A

Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.

172
Q

How many spoilers are available?

A

5 spoilers each side.

173
Q

How does the mechanical control of the THS work?

A

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time if either the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning. Mechanical control from the pitch trim wheel has priority over electrical control.

174
Q

Which computer controls the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer in normal operation?

A

In normal operations the ELAC 2 controls the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer. The green and yellow hydraulic jacks drive the left and right elevator surfaces respectively.

175
Q

What is the backup for ELAC 2?

A

1st ELAC 1 than SEC 2.

176
Q

What kind of protections are available in normal law?

A

Load factor limitation pitch attitude protection high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection and high speed protection.

177
Q

Is a full rudder deflection possible in all flight phases?

A

No, rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed.

178
Q

Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?

A

No.

179
Q

Do you have a side stick indication on the PFD on the ground and in flight?

A

On the ground after the first engine start sidestick position indication appear white on both PFDs. The indications disappear when the aircraft goes from ground into flight.

180
Q

What happens in the event of a single ELAC fault?

A

The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

181
Q

What is the maximum THS deflection?

A

The maximum THS deflection is 13.5° nose up and 4° nose down.

182
Q

When does the ground spoilers extend during the rejected takeoff phase?

A

If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are in idle the ground spoilers will automatically extend and as soon as both main landing gears have touched down. If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72kts the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as the reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains in idle)

183
Q

RUD TRIM Rotary Switch (RUD TRIM Panel)

A

Controls the rudder trim actuator, which moves the neutral point of the artificial feel by the equivalent of one degree of rudder travel per second.Note: The rudder trim rotary switch has no effect, when the autopilot is engaged.

184
Q

RESET Pushbutton (RUD TRIM Panel)

A

By pushing the RESET pushbutton, the zero trim position is ordered at 1.5° / second.Note: The RESET pb is not active, when the autopilot is engaged.

185
Q

SIDE STICK PRIORITY LT (Glareshield) - Red arrow light - Green CAPT and F/O lights

A

Red arrow light:- Comes on in front of the pilot losing authority.- Goes out when he has recovered his authority.Green CAPT and F/O lights:- Both lights flash when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.- When a pilot has taken priority by pressing the takeover pb and the other pilot’s sidestick is not at neutral, the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up. It goes out when the other pilot returns his stick to the neutral position.

186
Q

ELAC 1(2) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

A

ON:ELAC 1(2) performs the following functions:- Normal pitch and roll- Alternate pitch- Direct pitch and roll- Abnormal attitude- Aileron droop- Acquisition of autopilot orders.OFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF, then ON, resets the computer.FAULT:With an ECAM caution:- When a failure is detected- During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds).

187
Q

SEC 1(2)(3) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

A

ON:SEC 1(2)(3) performs the following functions:- Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)- Speedbrakes and ground spoilers- Alternate pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)- Direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)- Direct roll- Abnormal attitude.OFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF, then on, resetsthe computer.FAULT:With an ECAM caution, when a failure is detected. The FAULT light goes off, when the pilot selects OFF.

188
Q

FAC 1(2) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

A

ON:Both FACs perform the following functions:- Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)- Rudder trim- Rudder travel limit- Alternate yawOFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF and then ON resets the computer.FAULT:Lights up in amber, along with a caution on ECAM, when a failure is detected. The FAULT light goes out when the pilot selects OFF.

189
Q

When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend?

A
  • PARTIAL: When revers thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut is compressed- FULL: At touchdown of both main gear, or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when BOTH thrust levers at IDLE (if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at IDLE (if the ground spoilers are NOT armed)
190
Q

At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?

A

Partially. Full extension is limited until both main gear struts are compressed.

191
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoiler automatically retracts

192
Q

How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?

A
  • Electrically Controlled- Hydraulically Actuated
193
Q

When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?

A

Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch

194
Q

What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

195
Q

What is the RUD TRIM button used for?

A

To reset the rudder trim to 0 degrees

196
Q

How is the THS normally operated in flight?

A

The flight control computers control trim functions automatically

197
Q

If a complete flight control computer failure occurs, can the THS be positioned?

A

Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim wheel.

198
Q

Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?

A

Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect

199
Q

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

The trim automatically resets to zero

200
Q

What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?

A

You are in mechanical Backup

201
Q

What are the functions of the FACs?

A
  • Normal roll (Turn coordination & Yaw)- Rudder trim- Rudder travel limit- Alternate yaw
202
Q

What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?

A

ELAC 2 –> ELAC 1 –> SEC 2 –> SEC 1

203
Q

When is automatic pitch trim available?

A

In flight under Normal Law with bank angle less than 33 degrees with or without the autopilot engaged

204
Q

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?

A
  • Primary - Elevator/Stabilizer (Pitch)- Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
205
Q

Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control?

A
  • Primary - Spoiler control (roll)- Standby - Elevator/Stabilzer control (SEC 1 & SEC 2 back up the ELACs)
206
Q

Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?

A

No

207
Q

Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

A

No

208
Q

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released

209
Q

Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?

A

No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed

210
Q

If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?

A

Yes, after slat extension.

211
Q

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

A

Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots

212
Q

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A

Flaps FULL

213
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A
  • Thrust levers at idle and speed brake lever is down- When at least one thrust is advanced above IDLE
214
Q

When is speedbrake extension inhibited?

A

SAFET- SEC 1 and 3 have failed- AOA protection is active- Flaps FULL- Elevator (L or R) fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)- Thrust levers above the MCT position

215
Q

What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?

A

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

216
Q

What functions are performed by the SECs?

A
  • Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)- Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)- Alternate pitch (Sec 1 & 2 only)- Direct pitch (Sec 1 & 2)- Direct Roll- Abnormal attitude
217
Q

What are the functions of the ELAC?

A
  • Normal elevator and stabilizer control- Normal aileron control-Normal pitch and roll- Alternate pitch- Direct pitch and roll- Abnormal attitude- Aileron droop- Acquisition of autopilot orders
218
Q

What causes the WTBs to activate?

A

ROAM- Runaway (Move handle to 1, all go to 3)- Overspeed (Flap jack screw breaks)- Asymmetry (Both on one side move farther)- Movement (Never touch handle, ALL just move)

219
Q

If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?

A

Yes, only flap operation is inhibited

220
Q

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

A

The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed

221
Q

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

A
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + Flaps- CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
222
Q

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

223
Q

When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what is indicated?

A

Flaps/slats in transit

224
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop 5 degrees

225
Q

What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

A

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing

226
Q

When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?

A

To avoid nuisance warning when landing with flaps less than 3

227
Q

What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?

A

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a landing with less than flaps 3

228
Q

How is roll control normally achieved?

A

1 Aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing

229
Q

With spoilers NOT armed, will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?

A

Yes, when at least one engine is in reverse.

230
Q

What does ELAC stand for?

A

Elevator Aileron Computer

231
Q

What is the computer and priority for Ailerons?

A

ELAC 1 –> ELAC 2

232
Q

How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?

A

Two

233
Q

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A
  • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared- Display will reappear when the slats are extended
234
Q

How many ELACs are installed?

A

Two

235
Q

What backs up ELAC 2?

A

ELAC 1 –> SEC 2 –> SEC 1

236
Q

How man SECs are installed?

A

Three

237
Q

What is teh sole purpose of SEC 3?

A

Spoiler Control

238
Q

What does FAC stand for?

A

Flight Augmentation Computer

239
Q

How many FACs are installed?

A

Two

240
Q

If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs?

A

Control is transferred to the other actuator.