Auto Flight Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by DUAL, INDEPENDENT, and SINGLE FMGS modes?

A

Dual: normal
Independent: each FMGC being controlled (crosstalk fails) by its associated MCDU.
Single FMGS: using one FMGC only.

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2
Q

You are in managed mach at high altitude, how do you change to selected speed?

A

SPD/MACH push-button, set SPD – PULL then press the p/b because it can’t be changed in the manage mode.

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3
Q

How is the metric altitude displayed? Exactly what information is displayed?

A
  • METRIC ALT p/b
  • Display the FCU altitude target in meters on the ECAM, or the correct altitude and FCU/FM altitude target in meters on the PFD.
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4
Q

What happens if you push the V/S knob?

A

Immediate level-off by engaging the v/s or FPA mode with a target of zero.

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5
Q

What information does the yaw bar give (ground roll guidance command bar)? And when is it displayed?

A

In green indicates the FD yaw orders, to maintain the aircraft on the TWY centreline, it displays when on the ground <30’ RA, provided that a LOC signal is available.

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6
Q

When is the autopilot first available for use?

A

Airborne for at least 5sec, pass 100’RA.

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7
Q

When can both autopilots be selected at the same time?

A

When the localizer/glideslope or rollout or go-around mode is armed or engaged.

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8
Q

Why should the autopilot NOT be switched off on the FCU?

A

The visual and audio warnings are continual.

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9
Q

The visual and audio warnings are continual.

What happens to the IAS bug if FD’s & AP’s are switched OFF?

A

ATHR reverts to selected SPEED mode except in APPR phase.

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10
Q

The descent profile should lead to what IAS at 1000’ above the runway?

A

Vapp

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11
Q

What is signified by the MANAGED SPD RANGE bug in a managed descent?

A

Defines acceptable speed variations around the nominal descent speed target. +20 or +5 (depends on constraints) speed target.

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12
Q

A managed descent in a holding pattern gives what ROD?

A

-1000’/min

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13
Q

What do the FMAs read if a lower attitude selected, and the ALT knob on the FCU is pulled?

A

Open descent

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14
Q

When will ALT CRZ appear on the FMA?

A

Level flight at the FCU selected altitude.

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15
Q

In a managed descent the heading knob is pulled: what will be displayed in the vertical column of the FMA? What happens to the constraints? And in a managed CLB?

A
  • V/S

- Speed and altitude constraints are disregarded, but speed limit is retained.

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16
Q

Climbing to FL250 (on FCU): at FL225, FCU is now set to FL220. What happens? (Similar happens in descent).

A

A mode reversion occurs and v/s or FPA engages on current v/s or FPA.

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17
Q

What does SRS stand for and what does it do?

A
  • Speed Reference System

- Controls pitch to steer the aircraft along a path in the vertical plan at a speed defined by the STS guidance law.

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18
Q

What is G/A TRK exactly?

A

Guides the aircraft along the current track at go-around initiation.

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19
Q

With the ATHR active, actual thrust will be limited to what?

A

Not greater than the thrust commanded by the position of the thrust lever.

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20
Q

In the armed mode, the actual thrust is equal to what?

A

Thrust Lever Position (TLA).

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21
Q

What happens to ATHR if the thrust levers are moved to idle?

A

The ATHR disconnects but, if crew engage the ATHR again, it activates the autothrust. Due to the lever position, IDLE thrust will be maintained. (A re-engage at idle position).

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22
Q

If the ATHR is switched OFF on the instinctive buttons, what happened to the thrust?

A

Thrust is immediately set to corresponding TLA.

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23
Q

In the CLB detent, with ATHR switched ON, what happens if the Thrust Levers are moved forward of the CLB detent? (TLA)

A

ATHR reverts from active to armed. ATHR turns to blue on the FMA and the thrust levers control thrust directly. FMA shows MAN THR in white. The thrust levers provide the flight crew with an immediate increase of thrust when both thrust levers are pushed above the CLB detent (2 ENG) or the active thrust lever above MCT (1 ENG).

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24
Q

At what RA is “RETARD” heard: on an autoland? And on a manual landing?

A

Autoland: 10’RA
Manual: 20’RA

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25
Q

What is the Minimum Speed Possible with ATHR on?

A

VLS

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26
Q

What is G/S Mini?

A

To prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. Maintains a G/S rather than IAS in managed mode (increase in Head Wind = increases in Vapp).

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27
Q

What does a temporary white box indicate on an FMA?

A
  • 10sec around each new annunciation.

- May increase to 15sec in some mode reversion cases associated with an aural triple click.

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28
Q

When does “LAND” appear on the FMA?

A

In green, LAND mode is engaged < 400’RA

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29
Q

How can you get out of “LAND” mode? (Bearing in mind this is a sub mode of ILS APPR mode).

A
  • Upon engagement of the go-around mode
  • If the flight crew presses the APPR p/b, when the aircraft has been on the ground for at least 10sec with AP off.
  • When both AP/FDs are disengaged.
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30
Q

The message DECELERATE on the FMA is due to?

A

If the thrust is not reduced when passing the top of descent and the aircraft is above the descent profile.

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31
Q

The message MORE DRAG on the FMA is due to?

A
  • Above the vertical profile and the predicated intercept point of the vertical profile is at less than 2NM from the next ALT CSTR, or
  • In auto speed control and the aircraft enters a speed brake decelerating segment.
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32
Q

When will “SPEED SPEED SPEED” be heard? What does it mean?

A
  • Low energy warning, repeated every 5sec, warns the pilot that the aircraft’s energy level is going below a threshold under which he has to increase thrust, in order to regain a positive flight path angle through pitch control.
  • In config 2-FULL, aircraft config horizontal decal rate flight path angle.
  • 100’ - 2000’RA.
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33
Q

What triggers ALPHA FLOOR? Must the ATHR be on first?

A
  • When the aircraft reaches a very high-angle of attack.
  • The flight augmentation computer (FAC) generates the signal to set TOGA thrust.
  • No
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34
Q

When is windshear protection available? When it is triggered and what do you see and hear?

A
  • T/O: 3sec after lift-off til 1300’RA
  • LDG: 1300’RA to 50’RA with at least config1 selected.
  • Predicated energy level falls below threshold.
  • “WINDSHEAR” red message on both PFDs for a minimum of 15sec, aural voice “WINDSHEAR” 3 times.
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35
Q

When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

A
  • Alpha > a predetermined threshold that is a function.
  • In config 3 + FULL, this threshold decreases.
  • From lift-off until the aircraft reaches 100’RA in app.
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36
Q

What causes the memo “SPEED BRK” flashing (amber) to appear?

A
  • When extended in flight phases 2-5 (Engine start – 1500’) flashes in amber.
  • When extended in flight phases 6-7 (1500’ – touchdown) in green. Flashes in amber, after 50sec, if at least 1 engine is above idle.
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37
Q

What happens on the PFD altitude tape when the aircraft descends below MDA?

A

Altitude numbers change from green to amber when < MDA.

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38
Q

What is displayed in the top centre of the ND?

A
  • ILS APP message (green)
  • When select an ILS app on the MCDU
  • FMS flight phase is DES, APP or GA, or the FMS phase is CRZ and the along track distance to destination is less than 250NM.
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39
Q

What happens if you press the ILS button on the EFIS control panel?

A
  • ILS information (magenta)
    o Ident, frequency, DME distance.
  • ILS course pointer (magenta) on PFD/ND.
  • ILS p/b illuminates green on EFIS panel.
40
Q

How is the TO WPT easily identified?

A
  • In white, every 2nd line in FLT PLAN.
  • Top right corner on ND showing: WPT ident (white), track to go (green), distance to go (green) and ETA (green) with correct groundspeed, flying directly from present position.
41
Q

What does a triangle symbol mean after a waypoint?

A

Flyover waypoint, pilot cannot cancel the overfly program if you do not want to fly over, you have to use DIR TO or heading mode.

42
Q

A CSTR of +690 means what exactly?

A

Must be AT or ABOVE 690 degree by that point.

43
Q

When on profile, extending the speedbrake in a managed descent does what?

A

Thrust increases to waste more fuel.

44
Q

What happens if you fly over a Magenta D [in a circle] when in managed NAV?

A

Indicates the point at which the aircraft is predicated to decelerate for approach and thus switch to the approach phase.

45
Q

What is the effect of activating the approach phase on the MCDU?

A
  • Slow the aircraft to green dot speed.

- If the speed is managed (magenta) it will got to the speed associated with the current flap setting.

46
Q

After a G/A, another what is then “strung” on the F-Plan page?

A

When the GO-AROUND phase is engaged, the previously flown approach is auto strung back into the flight plan at the end of the missed approach procedure.

47
Q

After a G/A, how can you now follow the G/A Procedure? (G/A TRK will be the LAT guidance until you do something).

A

Pull HDG knob to select a heading, or Push HDG knob to engage NAV mode.

48
Q

What happens to the RA indication during a CAT3 Approach with DH 50’?

A

The RA ALT indication changes every 10’ down to 50’, then every 5’ to 10’, then every foot.

49
Q

On reaching the planned cruise altitude ALT CRZ engages and A/THR maintains the speed/mach target. Two minutes after ALT CRZ engages if the mach mode is operative SOFT ALT mode engages. This allows the aircraft to deviate +/- 50 feet from the target altitude thereby minimizing thrust variations and reducing fuel comsumption.

A

How does the soft altitude mode work?

50
Q

At takeoff 3 seconds after liftoff up to 1300ft RA at landing from 1300ft RA to 50ft RA with at least CONF 1 selected.

A

When is the windshear detection function of the FAC active?

51
Q

The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in takeoff and approach phase.

A

Which computer provides the windshear detection function?

52
Q

Yaw damping stabilizes the aircraft in yaw and coordinates its turns. In automatic flight (AP engaged) during takeoff and go around it assists rudder application after an engine failure (short-term yaw compensation).

A

What is the purpose of the yaw damping function?

53
Q

The aircraft is guided along the preplanned route vertical lateral and speed/mach profile. This type of preplanned guidance is called Managed. Predicted targets are computed by the FMGS.

A

How does the managed guidance work?

54
Q

When descending in V/S mode engaged: If the selected V/S value is excessive (with regards to thrust and speed) the FMGS maintains the V/S target but the airspeed increases. When reaching VMAX (VMO or VLE in clean or VFE+4 knots) the AP temporarily abandons the V/S target and automatically decreases the vertical speed to maintain VMAX. The same applies if FPA mode is used with an excessive FPA target.

A

How does the automatic speed protection in V/S or FPA mode work?

55
Q

Both APs OFF below 200ft RA excessive deviation in LOC or GLIDE (scales flash on PFD) loss of LOC signal above 15ft or loss of GLIDE signal above 100ft and the difference between both radio altimeter is greater than 15ft.

A

The following situations when occurring below 200 feet RA with the aircraft in LAND mode trigger the flashing AUTOLAND red warning and a triple click aural warning:

56
Q

The A/THR is active.

A

The FMA annunciation ‘A/THR in white’ means?

57
Q

The energy circle represents the required distance to land from the aircraft position down to airport elevation at VAPP speed considering all speed constraints of the vertical profile.

A

What is the energy circle?

58
Q

Flight Director (FD), Autopilot (AP) and Autothrust (A/THR).

A

The Flight Guidance (FG) part of the FMGS controls the …

59
Q

The CI is the ratio of flight time cost (CT) to fuel cost (CF). CI=0 corresponds to minimum fuel consumption (max. range). CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.

A

What is the definition of the Cost Index (CI)?

60
Q

Speed brakes are extended and engines are not on idle.

A

What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

61
Q

The OPEN DECENT mode is a selected mode and maintains a SPD/MACH (selected or managed) with the AP/FD pitch mode while autothrust (if active) maintains IDLE thrust.

A

How does the OPEN DECENT mode work?

62
Q

Each FMGC receives a position from each of the three IRS’s and computes a mean-weighted average called the ‘MIX IRS’ position.

A

What is the MIX IRS position?

63
Q

Navigation flight planning management of the displays performance optimization and flight predictions

A

Which elements are included in the flight management part of the FMGC?

64
Q

The alpha floor protection.

A

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

65
Q

The A/THR is armed.

A

The FMA annunciation ‘A/THR in blue’ means…

66
Q

No when the AP is engaged the rudder trim knob is inoperative and the master FMGC sends rudder orders to the FAC.

A

Can you trim the rudder during the AP engagement?

67
Q

This function limits rudder deflection as a function of speed in order to avoid high structural loads.

A

What is the function of the rudder travel limitation?

68
Q

The aircraft is guided to the selected target modified by the pilot. Targets are selected on the flight control unit located on the pilots glareshield. The decision to engage a selected or managed guidance is always under control of the pilot. Selected guidance has priority over managed guidance.

A

How does the selected guidance work?

69
Q

Both FD’s are removed when the aircraft pitch exceeds 25° up or 13° down or bank angle exceeds 45°

A

When will the Flight Director (FD) automatically disappear?

70
Q

Position computation evaluation of position accuracy radio navigation tuning and alignment of the IRS.

A

What are the essential navigation functions of the FMGC?

71
Q

On the FUEL PRED page.

A

On which page can you enter the ZFW on the MCDU when the engines are running?

72
Q

The FAC controls rudder rudder trim and yaw damper inputs computes data for the flight envelope and speed functions and provides warning for low-energy and windshear detection.

A

What is the function of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)?

73
Q

Two Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) two (third is an option) Multipurpose Control and Display Units (MCDU) one Flight Control Unit (FCU) and two Flight Augmentation Computer.

A

The Flight Management Guidance System (FMGS) contains the following units:

74
Q

Three dual mode (the normal mode) independent mode (each FMGC is controlled by its associated MCDU) and single mode (using one FMGC only).

A

How many modes of operation does the FMGS have?

75
Q
  • By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (when a FLEX temp inserted in the MCDU)- At least one FD must be ON for the A/THR to arm during takeoff
A

On the ground, how do you arm the A/THR?

76
Q
  • A warning will be generated- Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and execute a max thrust takeoff
A

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur?

77
Q

No, only during an ILS approach

A

Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?

78
Q

Below 200’ RA: - Excessive deviation (LOC or G/S) - Loss of both autopilots - Loss of LOC or G/S signals - Difference of 15 feet between the RAs

A

What does the red AUTO LAND light indicate?

79
Q

Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA

A

How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?

80
Q
  • Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 Engines)- Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 Engine)
A

What is the active range of the A/THR?

81
Q

The CL detent

A

What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is active?

82
Q

The position detent of the thrust lever

A

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

83
Q
  • A/THR pushbutton- Instinctive Disconnect buttons- Thrust Levers to IDLE
A

What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?

84
Q

Set the thrust levers to match the TLA to the existing N1 and disconnect using the instinctive disconnect pushbutton

A

What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?

85
Q

Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 seconds

A

How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?

86
Q

No

A

Will you be able to restore A/THR?

87
Q
  • Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent- Press the Instinctive Disconnect button- Return Thrust Levers to CL detent- Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR
A

How do you then regain normal A/THR?

88
Q
  • Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or- A/THR disconnects due to a failure
A

When would Thrust Lock occur?

89
Q

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed

A

What is Alpha Lock?

90
Q
  • Thrust: TOGA- FMA: A.FLOOR
A

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?

91
Q

FMA changes to TOGA LK

A

What occurs during Alpha Floor protection after speed increases above Vls?

92
Q

From lift-off through 100’ RA on approach

A

When is Alpha Floor Protection active?

93
Q

No, managed speed only

A

Is this protection (Ground Speed Mini) available in selected speed?

94
Q

It illuminates in from of the pilot losing authority

A

What does the red arrow in the SIDESTICK PRIORITY light mean?

95
Q
  • The last pilot to press the pushbutton on the side stick will have authority- An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will sound
A

How would you regain control?