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S1 - Selected Review > First Aid > Flashcards

First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is typically caused by a defect in what collagen type?

What about the vascular subtype?

A

V; III

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2
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome is caused by a _____-activating mutation.

A

McCune-Albright syndrome is caused by a G<strong>s</strong>-activating mutation.

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3
Q

A patient goes into anaphylaxis following a blood transfusion. What do you suspect?

A

IgA deficiency

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4
Q

Job syndrome (hyper-____ syndrome) is characterized by cold abscesses, eczema, eosinophilia, and defects in ____________ chemotaxis.

A

Job syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome) is characterized by cold abscesses, eczema, eosinophilia, and defects in neutrophil chemotaxis.

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5
Q

A patient presents with chest pain, ST depressions, and elevated troponins. What is the diagnosis?

A

NSTEMI

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6
Q

A patient presents with chest pain, ST depressions, and no increase in troponins. What is the diagnosis?

A

Angina

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7
Q

Osler nodes are caused by ____________, and Janeway lesions are caused by ____________.

A

Osler nodes are caused by immune complexes, and Janeway lesions are caused by septic emboli.

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8
Q

Painless jaundice is associated with what?

A

Pancreatic malignancy

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9
Q

A patient presents with jaundice and a palpable / distended / non-tender gallbladder.

What do you suspect?

A

Distal malignant obstruction (e.g., gallbladder adenocarcinoma)

(Courvoisier sign)

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10
Q

A patient presents with arthralgias, adenopathy, cardiac and neurological symptoms, and diarrhea.

What do you suspect?

A

Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei)

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11
Q

Severe jaundice in a neonate is likely the result of what?

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

(congenital, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

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12
Q

A patient presents with short stature, café-au-lait spots, and thumb/radial defects.

The patient is now presenting with S/Sy of leukemia.

What do you suspect?

A

Fanconi anemia

(genetic loss of DNA crosslink repair; often progresses to AML)

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13
Q

What is the name of a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma characterized by microabscesses and skin patches with atypical T cells?

A

Mycosis fungoides

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14
Q

What syndrome is characterized by mycosis fungoides plus malignant T cells in the blood?

A

Sézary syndrome

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15
Q

What are the S/Sy of Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

A

Hyperphagia

Hypersexuality

Hyperorality

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16
Q

What is the name of the benign vascular mark that is sometimes associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Nevus flammeus

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17
Q

What are the S/Sy of Meniere disease?

A

Episodic vertigo

Tinnitus

Hearing loss

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18
Q

A patient presents with polyuria, renal tubular acidosis (type II), growth failure, and hypophosphatemic ricketts.

What do you suspect?

A

Fanconi syndrome

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19
Q

Describe the differences between renal tubular acidoses types I, II, and IV.

A
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20
Q

Which congenital immunodeficiency is characterized by large granules in phagocytes?

A

Chédiak-Higashi disease

(impaired phagolysosome formation)

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21
Q

Where are Negri bodies found in patients with rabies?

A

The cytoplasm of hippocampal and cerebellar neurons

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22
Q

Which tumors are associated with psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinomas

Papillary serous carcinomas of the endometrium or ovary

Meningiomas

Mesotheliomas

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23
Q

What disease can result from granulomatous heart infections?

A

Rheumatic fever

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24
Q

A patient presents with alternating amplitude on ECG (electrical alternans).

What do you suspect?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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25
Q

Wilson disease is associated with _____ serum ceruloplasmin.

A

Wilson disease is associated with low serum ceruloplasmin.

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26
Q

What is the key factor causing idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Antiplatelet antibodies

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27
Q

Which diseases are associated with MPO-ANCA / p-ANCA?

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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28
Q

Which diseases are associated with PR3-ANCA / c-ANCA?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

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29
Q

What is the typical outcome/etiology of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance?

A

Consequence of aging

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30
Q

‘Smudged’ white blood cells in an older individual are an indication of what?

A

CLL

(typically B cell)

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31
Q

A ‘soap bubble’ lesion seen in an X-ray of the tibia or femur might be an indication of what?

A

A giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)

(typically benign)

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32
Q

An ‘onion skin’ periosteal reaction might be an indication of what?

A

Ewing sarcoma

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33
Q

Pseudogout calcium pyrophosphate crystals are _______ birefringent and _________-shaped.

A

Pseudogout calcium pyrophosphate crystals are positively birefringent and rhomboid-shaped.

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34
Q

Which antibodies are indicators of SLE?

A

Antinuclear antibodies

(anti-Smith, anti-dsDNA)

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35
Q

Which antibodies are indicators of drug-induced SLE?

A

Anti-histone

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36
Q

What mnemonic is useful in remembering the drugs associated with drug-induced SLE?

A

It isn’t HIPP to do drugs.

Hydralazine, isoniazid, phenytoin, procainamide

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37
Q

Which antibodies are indicators of diffuse scleroderma?

A

Anti-topoisomerase

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38
Q

What nephropathy appears as ‘tram-track’ lesions on light microscopy?

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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39
Q

What nephropathy appears as ‘wire loop’ lesions on light microscopy?

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

(lupus)

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40
Q

What tumor type is a glomerulus-like structure with vessels and germ cells?

A

Yolk sac tumor (Schiller-Duval bodies)

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41
Q

What medication type is used for treating both hepatitis B and C?

A

IFN-alpha

42
Q

Homer-Wright rosettes (circular grouping of dark cells around pale neurofibrils) are seen in what malignancies?

A

Neuroblastomas

Medulloblastomas

43
Q

What medications are used in treating hepatitis C?

A

Ribavirin

Simeprevir

Sofosbuvir

(-vir-)

44
Q

How are Toxoplasma gondii infections treated?

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

45
Q

What drugs are used to treat influenza?

A

Oseltamivir; zanamivir

(neuraminidase inhibitors)

46
Q

What is the best medication category for treating isolated hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Fibrates

47
Q

How is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus managed?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Indomethacin

Amiloride

48
Q

How is SIADH managed?

A

Water restriction

IV hypertonic saline

Demeclocycline

Tolvaptan, conivaptan

49
Q

How is diabetic ketoacidosis managed?

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

50
Q

Is mesalamine (5-ASA preparation) used to treat ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease?

A

Ulcerative colitis

51
Q

How are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia managed?

And the negative symptoms?

A

Typical or atypical antipsychotics

Atypical antipsychotics

52
Q

What medications are used to treat idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Bosentan

Sildenafil

Epoprostenol

53
Q

What is the most common helminthic infection in the U.S.?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

54
Q

Name two exotoxin-mediated etiologies of food poisoning.

A
  • S. aureus*
  • B. cereus*
55
Q

What is the most common etiology of osteomyelitis in a patient with sickle cell anemia?

A

Salmonella

56
Q

True/False.

Patients with C. trachomitis are typically coinfected with N. gonorrhoeae.

A

True.

57
Q

Name three causes of holosystolic murmurs.

A

VSD

TR

MR

58
Q

Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic aneurysms in what aortic section?

A

Thoracic

59
Q

Which are the culture-negative causes of endocarditis?

A

Coxiella, Bartonella, HACEK

60
Q

What are the most common sources of metastases to the brain?

A

Lung > breast > melanoma/colon/kidney

61
Q

What are the most common sources of metastases to the liver?

A

Colon >> stomach > pancreas

62
Q

What are the most common sources of metastases to the bone?

A

Prostate/breast > kidney/thyroid/lung

63
Q

Are neuroblastomas typically benign or malignant?

Are pheochromocytomas typically benign or malignant?

A

Malignant

Benign

64
Q

What is the most common cause of esophageal cancer worldwide?

And in the U.S.?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

65
Q

What is a Cushing ulcer?

A

Acute gastric ulcer associated with CNS injury

(Increased ICP –> Increased vagal stimulation)

66
Q

What is a Curling ulcer?

A

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

(Greatly reduced plasma volume –> gastric mucosal sloughing)

67
Q

What diseases are associated with autosplenectomy (with spleen fibrosis and atrophy)?

A

Sickle cell disease

68
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis in children?

A

Cystic fibrosis

69
Q

What is the cause of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

GpIb deficiency

70
Q

Which has a normal platelet count, Glanzmann thrombasthenia or Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

71
Q

Burkitt lymphoma (t;___,___) is associated with _____ production.

A

Burkitt lymphoma (t;8,14) is associated with c-Myc production.

72
Q

What is the typical cause of death in patients with CML?

A

Blast crisis

73
Q

What is the typical cause of death in patients with SLE?

A

Lupus nephropathy

74
Q

What are the most common primary brain tumors in adults?

A

Astrocytomas (e.g., GM)

Meningiomas

Schwannomas

75
Q

What are the most common primary brain tumors in children?

A

If infratentorial: Medulloblastomas (cerebellum)

If supratentorial: Craniopharyingiomas

76
Q

What are the characteristics of ALS?

A

Mixed UMN-LMN degeneration

(no sensory component)

77
Q

What is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea?

A

Turner syndrome

78
Q

A patient has hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia.

What do you suspect?

A

Kallman syndrome

79
Q

True/False.

Placental alkaline phosphatase is often elevated in patients with testicular tumors (e.g., seminomas).

A

True.

80
Q

Which urinary stones are radiopaque?

A

Calcium, struvite, cysteine (faintly)

81
Q

Which urinary stones are radiolucent?

A

Uric acid

82
Q

Name some medications used for migraine prophylaxis.

A

Beta blockers, topiramate, CCBs, amitriptyline

83
Q

Name some medications used for migraine treatment.

A

Sumatriptan, NSAIDs

84
Q

Name some medications used for treating alcoholism.

A

Disulfiram, acamprosate, naltrexone

85
Q

Which alpha-2 agonists are indicated for ADHD treatment?

A

Guanfacine, clonidine

86
Q

Name some medications used for managing tonic-clonic seizures.

L-PVC

(Use ‘el PVC’ to fix the leaky brain!)

A

Levetiracetam, phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

87
Q

What is febuxostat?

A

A xanthine oxidase inhibitor (like allopurinol)

88
Q

Are probenecid and pegloticase used for treating acute gout or chronic gout?

A

Chronic

89
Q

How is volume of distribution calculated?

A

Total drug in body / plasma [drug]

90
Q

How is half-life calculated?

A

0.7 * volume of distribution / clearance rate

91
Q

How is drug clearance calculated?

A

Rateelimination * plasma [drug]

92
Q

How is loading dose calculated?

A

Target steady-state [drug] * volumedistribution / bioavailability

Cp * Vd / F

93
Q

How is maintenance dose calculated?

A

Target steady-state [drug] * clearance * half-life / bioavailability

Cp * CL * t / F

94
Q

What is attributable risk?

What is absolute risk reduction?

What is relative risk reduction?

A

a/a+b - c/c+d

c/c+d - a/a+b

1 - RR

95
Q

How is renal blood flow calculated?

A

RBF = RPF / (1 - hematocrit)

96
Q

What does Paco minus peco over paco tell us (multiply by tidal volume)?

A

Dead space

97
Q

What is the alveolar gas equation?

A

Pao2 = Pio2 - Paco2 / R

98
Q

What is Winter’s formula?

A

PCO2 = 1.5[HCO3-] + 8 +or- 2

99
Q

How is an anion gap calculated?

A

Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-)

100
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation (used for calculating the extracellular pH)?

A

pH = 6.1 + log [HCO3-] / 0.03 * PCO2

S1 - Selected Review (14 decks)

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