Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > First Aid 2014 Rapid Review full > Flashcards

First Aid 2014 Rapid Review full Flashcards

1
Q

Abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly. Disease/Dx?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome (posthepatic venous thrombosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Achilles tendon xanthoma. Disease/Dx?

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia (dec LDL receptor signaling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC. Disease/Dx?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (meningococcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anterior “drawer sign” (+). Disease/Dx?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Arachnodactyly, lens dislocation, aortic dissection, hyperflexible joints. Disease/Dx?

A

Marfan syndrome (fibrillin defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Athlete with polycythemia. Disease/Dx?

A

2° to erythropoietin injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss. Disease/Dx?

A

Pott disease (vertebral TB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis. Disease/Dx?

A

Sarcoidosis (noncaseating granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blue sclera. Disease/Dx?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (type I collagen defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bluish line on gingiva. Disease/Dx?

A

Burton line (lead poisoning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bone pain, bone enlargement, arthritis. Disease/Dx?

A

Paget disease of bone (inc osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bounding pulses, diastolic heart murmur, head bobbing. Disease/Dx?

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Butterfly facial rash and Raynaud phenomenon in a young female. Disease/Dx?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Café-au-lait spots, Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma). Disease/Dx?

A

Neurofibromatosis type I (+ pheochromocytoma, optic gliomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Café-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, multiple endocrine abnormalities. Disease/Dx?

A

McCune-Albright syndrome (mosaic G-protein signaling mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Calf pseudohypertrophy. Disease/Dx?

A

Muscular dystrophy (most commonly Duchenne): X-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cherry-red spots on macula. Disease/Dx?

A

Tay-Sachs (ganglioside accumulation) or Niemann-Pick (sphingomyelin accumulation), central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chest pain on exertion. Disease/Dx?

A

Angina (stable: with moderate exertion; unstable: with minimal exertion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chest pain, pericardial effusion/friction rub, persistent fever following MI. Disease/Dx?

A

Dressler syndrome (autoimmune-mediated post-MI fibrinous pericarditis, 1-12 weeks after acute episode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Child uses arms to stand up from squat. Disease/Dx?

A

Gowers sign (Duchenne muscular dystrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Child with fever later develops red rash on face that spreads to body. Disease/Dx?

A

Slapped cheeks (erythema infectiosum/fifth disease: parvovirus B19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chorea, dementia, caudate degeneration. Disease/Dx?

A

Huntington disease (autosomal dominant CAG repeat expansion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chronic exercise intolerance with myalgia, fatigue, painful cramps, myoglobinuria. Disease/Dx?

A

McArdle disease (muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cold intolerance. Disease/Dx?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Conjugate lateral gaze palsy, horizontal diplopia. Disease/Dx?

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (damage to MLF; bilateral [multiple sclerosis], unilateral [stroke])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Continuous “machine-like” heart murmur. Disease/Dx?

A

PDA (close with indomethacin; open or maintain with misoprostol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cutaneous/dermal edema due to connective tissue deposition. Disease/Dx?

A

Myxedema (caused by hypothyroidism, Graves disease [pretibial])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dark purple skin/mouth nodules in a patient with AIDS. Disease/Dx?

A

Kaposi sarcoma, associated with HHV-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Deep, labored breathing/hyperventilation. Disease/Dx?

A

Kussmaul respirations (diabetic ketoacidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea. Disease/Dx?

A

Pellagra (niacin [vitamin B3] deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, alcoholism or malnutrition. Disease/Dx?

A

Wet beriberi (thiamine [vitamin B1] deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dog or cat bite resulting in infection. Disease/Dx?

A

Pasteurella multocida (cellulitis at inoculation site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis. Disease/Dx?

A

Sjögren syndrome (autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dysphagia (esophageal webs), glossitis, iron deficiency anemia. Disease/Dx?

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome (may progress to esophageal squamous cell carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Elastic skin, hypermobility of joints. Disease/Dx?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (type III collagen defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Enlarged, hard left supraclavicular node. Disease/Dx?

A

Virchow node (abdominal metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, atypical T cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma) or Sézary syndrome (mycosis fungoides + malignant T cells in blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Facial muscle spasm upon tapping. Disease/Dx?

A

Chvostek sign (hypocalcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fat, female, forty, and fertile. Disease/Dx?

A

Cholelithiasis (gallstones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic treatment for syphilis. Disease/Dx?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in toxin release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fever, cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, diffuse rash. Disease/Dx?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fever, night sweats, weight loss. Disease/Dx?

A

B symptoms (staging) of lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fibrous plaques in soft tissue of penis. Disease/Dx?

A

Peyronie disease (connective tissue disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gout, intellectual disability, self-mutilating behavior in a boy. Disease/Dx?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (HGPRT deficiency, X-linked recessive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Green-yellow rings around peripheral cornea. Disease/Dx?

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (copper accumulation from Wilson disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hamartomatous GI polyps, hyperpigmentation of mouth/feet/hands. Disease/Dx?

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (inherited, benign polyposis can cause bowel obstruction; inc cancer risk, mainly GI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, osteoporosis, neurologic symptoms. Disease/Dx?

A

Gaucher disease (glucocerebrosidase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hereditary nephritis, sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts. Disease/Dx?

A

Alport syndrome (mutation in collagen IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility. Disease/Dx?

A

Klüver-Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hyperreflexia, hypertonia, Babinski sign present. Disease/Dx?

A

UMN damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hyporeflexia, hypotonia, atrophy, fasciculations. Disease/Dx?

A

LMN damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hypoxemia, polycythemia, hypercapnia. Disease/Dx?

A

Blue bloater (chronic bronchitis: hyperplasia of mucous cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Indurated, ulcerated genital lesion. Disease/Dx?

A

Nonpainful: chancre (1° syphilis, Treponema pallidum) Painful, with exudate: chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Infant with cleft lip/palate, microcephaly or holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, cutis aplasia. Disease/Dx?

A

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Infant with failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly, and neurodegeneration. Disease/Dx?

A

Niemann-Pick disease (genetic sphingomyelinase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Infant with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, and hepatomegaly. Disease/Dx?

A

Cori disease (debranching enzyme deficiency) or Von Gierke disease (glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, more severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Infant with microcephaly, rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, and structural heart defect. Disease/Dx?

A

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Jaundice, palpable distended non-tender gallbladder. Disease/Dx?

A

Courvoisier sign (distal obstruction of biliary tree)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Large rash with bull’s-eye appearance. Disease/Dx?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans from Ixodes tick bite (Lyme disease: Borrelia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lucid interval after traumatic brain injury. Disease/Dx?

A

Epidural hematoma (middle meningeal artery rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Male child, recurrent infections, no mature B cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Bruton disease (X-linked agammaglobulinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time. Disease/Dx?

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia (defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of GpIIb/IIIa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, hypotension. Disease/Dx?

A

Beck triad of cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas/soft tissue tumors, impacted/ supernumerary teeth. Disease/Dx?

A

Gardner syndrome (subtype of FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Myopathy (infantile hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), exercise intolerance. Disease/Dx?

A

Pompe disease (lysosomal α-1,4-glucosidase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Neonate with arm paralysis following difficult birth. Disease/Dx?

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy (superior trunk [C5-C6] brachial plexus injury: “waiter’s tip”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

No lactation postpartum, absent menstruation, cold intolerance. Disease/Dx?

A

Sheehan syndrome (pituitary infarction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech, bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Disease/Dx?

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Oscillating slow/fast breathing. Disease/Dx?

A

Cheyne-Stokes respirations (central apnea in CHF or inc intracranial pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Painful blue fingers/toes, hemolytic anemia. Disease/Dx?

A

Cold agglutinin disease (autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Painful, pale, cold fingers/toes. Disease/Dx?

A

Raynaud phenomenon (vasospasm in extremities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Painful, raised red lesions on pad of fingers/toes. Disease/Dx?

A

Osler nodes (infective endocarditis, immune complex deposition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles. Disease/Dx?

A

Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis, septic emboli/ microabscesses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Painless jaundice. Disease/Dx?

A

Cancer of the pancreatic head obstructing bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Palpable purpura on buttocks/legs, joint pain, abdominal pain (child), hematuria. Disease/Dx?

A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura (IgA vasculitis affecting skin and kidneys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pancreatic, pituitary, parathyroid tumors. Disease/Dx?

A

MEN 1 (autosomal dominant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Periorbital and/or peripheral edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia. Disease/Dx?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pink complexion, dyspnea, hyperventilation. Disease/Dx?

A

Pink puffer (emphysema: centriacinar [smoking], panacinar [α1-antitrypsin deficiency])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Polyuria, renal tubular acidosis type II, growth failure, electrolyte imbalances, hypophosphatemic rickets. Disease/Dx?

A

Fanconi syndrome (proximal tubular reabsorption defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pruritic, purple, polygonal planar papules and plaques (6 P’s). Disease/Dx?

A

Lichen planus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Pupil accommodates but doesn’t react. Disease/Dx?

A

Argyll Robertson pupil (neurosyphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Rapidly progressive leg weakness that ascends following GI/upper respiratory infection. Disease/Dx?

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome (acute autoimmune inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Rash on palms and soles. Disease/Dx?

A

Coxsackie A, 2° syphilis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Recurrent colds, unusual eczema, high serum IgE. Disease/Dx?

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job syndrome: neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Red “currant jelly” sputum in alcoholic or diabetic patients. Disease/Dx?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Red “currant jelly” stools. Disease/Dx?

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia (adults), intussusception (infants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash of nipple/areola. Disease/Dx?

A

Paget disease of the breast (sign of underlying neoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Red urine in the morning, fragile RBCs. Disease/Dx?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Renal cell carcinoma (bilateral), hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, pheochromocytoma. Disease/Dx?

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease (dominant tumor suppressor gene mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Resting tremor, rigidity, akinesia, postural instability. Disease/Dx?

A

Parkinson disease (nigrostriatal dopamine depletion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers. Disease/Dx?

A

Roth spots (bacterial endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Severe jaundice in neonate. Disease/Dx?

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome (congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Severe RLQ pain with palpation of LLQ. Disease/Dx?

A

Rovsing sign (acute appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness. Disease/Dx?

A

McBurney sign (acute appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Short stature, inc incidence of tumors/leukemia, aplastic anemia. Disease/Dx?

A

Fanconi anemia (genetic loss of DNA crosslink repair; often progresses to AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, infertility. Disease/Dx?

A

Kartagener syndrome (dynein arm defect affecting cilia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Skin hyperpigmentation, hypotension, fatigue. Disease/Dx?

A

Addison disease (1° adrenocortical insufficiency causes inc ACTH and inc α-MSH production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Slow, progressive muscle weakness in boys. Disease/Dx?

A

Becker muscular dystrophy (X-linked missense mutation in dystrophin; less severe than Duchenne)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Small, irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue-white center. Disease/Dx?

A

Koplik spots (measles; rubeola virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Smooth, flat, moist, painless white lesions on genitals. Disease/Dx?

A

Condylomata lata (2° syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Splinter hemorrhages in fingernails. Disease/Dx?

A

Bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Strawberry tongue. Disease/Dx?

A

Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease, toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Streak ovaries, congenital heart disease, horseshoe kidney, cystic hygroma at birth, short stature, webbed neck, lymphedema. Disease/Dx?

A

Turner syndrome (45,XO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Sudden swollen/painful big toe joint, tophi. Disease/Dx?

A

Gout/podagra (hyperuricemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Swollen gums, mucosal bleeding, poor wound healing, petechiae. Disease/Dx?

A

Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency: can’t hydroxylate proline/lysine for collagen synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints. Disease/Dx?

A

Osteoarthritis (osteophytes on PIP [Bouchard nodes], DIP [Heberden nodes])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Systolic ejection murmur (crescendo-decrescendo). Disease/Dx?

A

Aortic valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Thyroid and parathyroid tumors, pheochromocytoma. Disease/Dx?

A

MEN 2A (autosomal dominant ret mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Thyroid tumors, pheochromocytoma, ganglioneuromatosis. Disease/Dx?

A

MEN 2B (autosomal dominant ret mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Toe extension/fanning upon plantar scrape. Disease/Dx?

A

Babinski sign (UMN lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving forehead. Disease/Dx?

A

Facial nerve (LMN CN VII palsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis in a male. Disease/Dx?

A

Reactive arthritis associated with HLA-B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Vascular birthmark (port-wine stain). Disease/Dx?

A

Hemangioma (benign, but associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Vomiting blood following gastroesophageal lacerations. Disease/Dx?

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome (alcoholic and bulimic patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy. Disease/Dx?

A

Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Worst headache of my life. Disease/Dx?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Labs: Anticentromere antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Scleroderma (CREST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Labs: Antidesmoglein (epithelial) antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris (blistering)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Labs: Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Goodpasture syndrome (glomerulonephritis and hemoptysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Labs: Antihistone antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Drug-induced SLE (hydralazine, INH, phenytoin, procainamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Labs: Anti-IgG antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (systemic inflammation, joint pannus, boutonnière deformity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Labs: Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs). Disease/Dx?

A

1° biliary cirrhosis (female, cholestasis, portal hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Labs: Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs). Disease/Dx?

A

Microscopic polyangiitis and Churg-Strauss syndrome (MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA); granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener; PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Labs: Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs: anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA). Disease/Dx?

A

SLE (type III hypersensitivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Labs: Antiplatelet antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Labs: Anti-topoisomerase antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Labs: Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin/anti-endomysial antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Celiac disease (diarrhea, distention, weight loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Labs: “Apple core” lesion on abdominal x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Colorectal cancer (usually left-sided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Labs: Azurophilic peroxidase, + granular inclusions in granulocytes and myeloblasts. Disease/Dx?

A

Auer rods (AML, especially the promyelocytic [M3] type)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Labs: Bacitracin response. Disease/Dx?

A

Sensitive: Streptococcus pyogenes (group A); resistant: Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Labs: “Bamboo spine” on x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis (chronic inflammatory arthritis: HLA-B27)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Labs: Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs. Disease/Dx?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (due to splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Labs: Basophilic stippling of RBCs. Disease/Dx?

A

Lead poisoning or sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Labs: Bloody tap on LP. Disease/Dx?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Labs: “Boot-shaped” heart on x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, RVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Labs: Branching gram-positive rods with sulfur granules. Disease/Dx?

A

Actinomyces israelii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Labs: Bronchogenic apical lung tumor on imaging. Disease/Dx?

A

Pancoast tumor (can compress sympathetic ganglion and cause Horner syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Labs: “Brown” tumor of bone. Disease/Dx?

A

Hyperparathyroidism or osteitis fibrosa cystica (deposited hemosiderin from hemorrhage gives brown color)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Labs: Cardiomegaly with apical atrophy. Disease/Dx?

A

Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Labs: Cellular crescents in Bowman capsule. Disease/Dx?

A

Rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Labs: “Chocolate cyst” of ovary. Disease/Dx?

A

Endometriosis (frequently involves both ovaries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Labs: Circular grouping of dark tumor cells surrounding pale. Disease/Dx?

A

Homer-Wright rosettes (neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, neurofibrils retinoblastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Labs: Colonies of mucoid Pseudomonas in lungs. Disease/Dx?

A

Cystic fibrosis (autosomal recessive mutation in CFTR gene –> fat-soluble vitamin deficiency and mucous plugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Labs: Decreased AFP in amniotic fluid/maternal serum. Disease/Dx?

A

Down syndrome or other chromosomal abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Labs: Degeneration of dorsal column nerves. Disease/Dx?

A

Tabes dorsalis (3° syphilis), subacute combined degeneration (dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Labs: Depigmentation of neurons in substantia nigra. Disease/Dx?

A

Parkinson disease (basal ganglia disorder: rigidity, resting tremor, bradykinesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Labs: Desquamated epithelium casts in sputum. Disease/Dx?

A

Curschmann spirals (bronchial asthma; can result in whorled mucous plugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Labs: Disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid. Disease/Dx?

A

Call-Exner bodies (granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Labs: Dysplastic squamous cervical cells with nuclear enlargement. Disease/Dx?

A

Koilocytes (HPV: predisposes to cervical cancer) and hyperchromasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Labs: Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Owl eye appearance of CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Labs: Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei. Disease/Dx?

A

Orphan Annie eyes nuclei (papillary carcinoma of the thyroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Labs: Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in liver cell. Disease/Dx?

A

Mallory body (alcoholic liver disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Labs: Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in nerve cell. Disease/Dx?

A

Lewy body (Parkinson disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Labs: Eosinophilic globule in liver. Disease/Dx?

A

Councilman body (toxic or viral hepatitis, often yellow fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Labs: Eosinophilic inclusion bodies in cytoplasm of hippocampal and cerebellar nerve cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Negri bodies of rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Labs: Extracellular amyloid deposition in gray matter of brain. Disease/Dx?

A

Senile plaques (Alzheimer disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Labs: Giant B cells with bilobed nuclei with prominent inclusions (“owl’s eye”). Disease/Dx?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (Hodgkin lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Labs: Glomerulus-like structure surrounding vessel in germ cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Schiller-Duval bodies (yolk sac tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Labs: “Hair on end” (crew-cut) appearance on x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

β-thalassemia, sickle cell anemia (marrow expansion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Labs: hCG elevated. Disease/Dx?

A

Choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform mole (occurs with and without embryo, and multiple pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Labs: Heart nodules (granulomatous). Disease/Dx?

A

Aschoff bodies (rheumatic fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Labs: Heterophile antibodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Labs: Hexagonal, double-pointed, needle-like crystals in bronchial secretions. Disease/Dx?

A

Bronchial asthma (Charcot-Leyden crystals: eosinophilic granules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Labs: High level of D-dimers. Disease/Dx?

A

DVT, PE, DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Labs: Hilar lymphadenopathy, peripheral granulomatous lesion in middle or lower lung lobes (can calcify). Disease/Dx?

A

Ghon complex (1° TB: Mycobacterium bacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Labs: “Honeycomb lung” on x-ray or CT. Disease/Dx?

A

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Labs: Hypercoagulability (leading to migrating DVTs and vasculitis). Disease/Dx?

A

Trousseau syndrome (adenocarcinoma of pancreas or lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Labs: Hypersegmented neutrophils. Disease/Dx?

A

Megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency: neurologic symptoms; folate deficiency: no neurologic symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Labs: Hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis. Disease/Dx?

A

Conn syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Labs: Hypochromic, microcytic anemia. Disease/Dx?

A

Iron deficiency anemia, lead poisoning, thalassemia (fetal hemoglobin sometimes present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Labs: Increased AFP in amniotic fluid/maternal serum. Disease/Dx?

A

Dating error, anencephaly, spina bifida (neural tube defects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Labs: Increased uric acid levels. Disease/Dx?

A

Gout, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, tumor lysis syndrome, loop and thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Labs: Intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Cowdry type A bodies (HSV or CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Labs: Iron-containing nodules in alveolar septum. Disease/Dx?

A

Ferruginous bodies (asbestosis: inc chance of mesothelioma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Labs: Keratin pearls on a skin biopsy. Disease/Dx?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Labs: Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes, immunodeficiency. Disease/Dx?

A

Chédiak-Higashi disease (congenital failure of phagolysosome formation)

177
Q

Labs: “Lead pipe” appearance of colon on barium enema x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Ulcerative colitis (loss of haustra)

178
Q

Labs: Linear appearance of IgG deposition on glomerular basement. Disease/Dx?

A

Goodpasture syndrome membrane

179
Q

Labs: Low serum ceruloplasmin. Disease/Dx?

A

Wilson disease (hepatolenticular degeneration)

180
Q

Labs: “Lumpy bumpy” appearance of glomeruli on immunofluorescence. Disease/Dx?

A

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (immune complex deposition of IgG and C3b)

181
Q

Labs: Lytic (“hole punched”) bone lesions on x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Multiple myeloma

182
Q

Labs: Mammary gland (“blue domed”) cyst. Disease/Dx?

A

Fibrocystic change of the breast

183
Q

Labs: Monoclonal antibody spike. Disease/Dx?

A
  • Multiple myeloma (usually IgG or IgA)
184
Q

Labs: Mucin-filled cell with peripheral nucleus. Disease/Dx?

A

Signet ring (gastric carcinoma)

185
Q

Labs: Narrowing of bowel lumen on barium x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

String sign (Crohn disease)

186
Q

Labs: Necrotizing vasculitis (lungs) and necrotizing glomerulonephritis. Disease/Dx?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener; PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA) and Goodpasture syndrome (anti-basement membrane antibodies)

187
Q

Labs: Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Disease/Dx?

A

Gout (monosodium urate crystals)

188
Q

Labs: Nodular hyaline deposits in glomeruli. Disease/Dx?

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (diabetic nephropathy)

189
Q

Labs: Novobiocin response. Disease/Dx?

A

Sensitive: Staphylococcus epidermidis; resistant: Staphylococcus saprophyticus

190
Q

Labs: “Nutmeg” appearance of liver. Disease/Dx?

A

Chronic passive congestion of liver due to right heart failure

191
Q

Labs: “Onion skin” periosteal reaction. Disease/Dx?

A

Ewing sarcoma (malignant round-cell tumor)

192
Q

Labs: Optochin response. Disease/Dx?

A

Sensitive: Streptococcus pneumoniae; resistant: viridans streptococci

193
Q

Labs: Periosteum raised from bone, creating triangular area. Disease/Dx?

A

Codman triangle on x-ray (osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, pyogenic osteomyelitis)

194
Q

Labs: Podocyte fusion or “effacement” on electron microscopy. Disease/Dx?

A

Minimal change disease (child with nephrotic syndrome)

195
Q

Labs: Polished, “ivory-like” appearance of bone at cartilage erosion. Disease/Dx?

A

Eburnation (osteoarthritis resulting in bony sclerosis)

196
Q

Labs: Protein aggregates in neurons from hyperphosphorylation of tau protein. Disease/Dx?

A

Neurofibrillary tangles (Alzheimer disease) and Pick bodies (Pick disease)

197
Q

Labs: Psammoma bodies. Disease/Dx?

A

Meningiomas, papillary thyroid carcinoma, mesothelioma, papillary serous carcinoma of the endometrium and ovary

198
Q

Labs: Pseudopalisading tumor cells on brain biopsy. Disease/Dx?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

199
Q

Labs: RBC casts in urine. Disease/Dx?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

200
Q

Labs: Rectangular, crystal-like, cytoplasmic inclusions in Leydig cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Reinke crystals (Leydig cell tumor)

201
Q

Labs: Renal epithelial casts in urine. Disease/Dx?

A

Acute toxic/viral renal injury

202
Q

Labs: Rhomboid crystals, positively birefringent. Disease/Dx?

A

Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals)

203
Q

Labs: Ring-enhancing brain lesion in AIDS. Disease/Dx?

A

Toxoplasma gondii, CNS lymphoma

204
Q

Labs: Sheets of medium-sized lymphoid cells with scattered pale, tingible body-laden macrophages (“starry sky” histology). Disease/Dx?

A

Burkitt lymphoma (t[8:14] c-myc activation, associated with EBV; “black sky” made up of malignant cells)

205
Q

Labs: Silver-staining spherical aggregation of tau proteins in neurons. Disease/Dx?

A

Pick bodies (Pick disease: progressive dementia, changes in personality)

206
Q

Labs: “Soap bubble” in femur or tibia on x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Giant cell tumor of bone (generally benign)

207
Q

Labs: “Spikes” on basement membrane, “dome-like” subepithelial deposits. Disease/Dx?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (may progress to nephrotic syndrome)

208
Q

Labs: Stacks of RBCs. Disease/Dx?

A

Rouleaux formation (high ESR, multiple myeloma)

209
Q

Labs: Stippled vaginal epithelial cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Clue cells (Gardnerella vaginalis)

210
Q

Labs: “Tennis racket”-shaped cytoplasmic organelles (EM) in Langerhans cells. Disease/Dx?

A

Birbeck granules (Langerhans cell histiocytosis or histiocytosis X: eosinophilic granuloma)

211
Q

Labs: Thrombi made of white/red layers. Disease/Dx?

A

Lines of Zahn (arterial thrombus, layers of platelets/RBCs)

212
Q

Labs: “Thumb sign” on lateral x-ray. Disease/Dx?

A

Epiglottitis (Haemophilus influenzae)

213
Q

Labs: Thyroid-like appearance of kidney. Disease/Dx?

A

Chronic bacterial pyelonephritis

214
Q

Labs: “Tram-track” appearance of capillary loops of glomerular basement membranes on light microscopy. Disease/Dx?

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

215
Q

Labs: Triglyceride accumulation in liver cell vacuoles. Disease/Dx?

A

Fatty liver disease (alcoholic or metabolic syndrome)

216
Q

Labs: “Waxy” casts with very low urine flow. Disease/Dx?

A

Chronic end-stage renal disease

217
Q

Labs: WBC casts in urine. Disease/Dx?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

218
Q

Labs: WBCs that look “smudged”. Disease/Dx?

A

CLL (almost always B cell)

219
Q

Labs: “Wire loop” glomerular capillary appearance on light microscopy. Disease/Dx?

A

Lupus nephropathy

220
Q

Labs: Yellowish CSF. Disease/Dx?

A

Xanthochromia (e.g., due to subarachnoid hemorrhage)

221
Q

Condition: Absence seizures. Tx?

A

Ethosuximide

222
Q

Condition: Acute gout attack. Tx?

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

223
Q

Condition: Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3). Tx?

A

All-trans retinoic acid

224
Q

Condition: ADHD. Tx?

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

225
Q

Condition: Alcohol use disorder. Tx?

A

AA + disulfiram, naltrexone, or acamprosate for patient. Al-Anon for patient’s family

226
Q

Condition: Alcohol withdrawal. Tx?

A

Benzodiazepines

227
Q

Condition: Anorexia. Tx?

A

Nutrition, psychotherapy

228
Q

Condition: Anticoagulation during pregnancy. Tx?

A

Heparin

229
Q

Condition: Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue. Tx?

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

230
Q

Condition: Benign prostatic hyperplasia. Tx?

A

Tamsulosin, finasteride

231
Q

Condition: Bipolar disorder. Tx?

A

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

232
Q

Condition: Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman. Tx?

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

233
Q

Condition: Buerger disease. Tx?

A

Smoking cessation

234
Q

Condition: Bulimia nervosa. Tx?

A

SSRIs

235
Q

Condition: Candida albicans. Tx?

A

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush), azoles (vaginitis)

236
Q

Condition: Carcinoid syndrome. Tx?

A

Octreotide

237
Q

Condition: Chlamydia trachomatis. Tx?

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

238
Q

Condition: Chronic gout. Tx?

A

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer), febuxostat

239
Q

Condition: Chronic hepatitis. Tx?

A

IFN-α

240
Q

Condition: Chronic myelogenous leukemia. Tx?

A

Imatinib

241
Q

Condition: Clostridium botulinum. Tx?

A

Antitoxin

242
Q

Condition: Clostridium difficile. Tx?

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

243
Q

Condition: Clostridium tetani. Tx?

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

244
Q

Condition: CMV. Tx?

A

Ganciclovir

245
Q

Condition: Crohn disease. Tx?

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab, methotrexate, azathioprine

246
Q

Condition: Cryptococcus neoformans. Tx?

A

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

247
Q

Condition: Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis. Tx?

A

Mesna

248
Q

Condition: Depression. Tx?

A

SSRIs (first-line)

249
Q

Condition: Diabetes insipidus. Tx?

A

DDAVP (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

250
Q

Condition: Diabetes mellitus type 1. Tx?

A

Dietary intervention (low sugar) + insulin replacement

251
Q

Condition: Diabetes mellitus type 2. Tx?

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

252
Q

Condition: Diabetic ketoacidosis. Tx?

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

253
Q

Condition: Enterococci. Tx?

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

254
Q

Condition: Erectile dysfunction. Tx?

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

255
Q

Condition: ER+ breast cancer. Tx?

A

Tamoxifen

256
Q

Condition: Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication. Tx?

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

257
Q

Condition: Haemophilus influenzae (B). Tx?

A

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

258
Q

Condition: Generalized anxiety disorder. Tx?

A

Buspirone

259
Q

Condition: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener). Tx?

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

260
Q

Condition: Heparin toxicity (acute). Tx?

A

Protamine sulfate

261
Q

Condition: HER2/neu+ breast cancer. Tx?

A

Trastuzumab

262
Q

Condition: Hyperaldosteronism. Tx?

A

Spironolactone

263
Q

Condition: Hypercholesterolemia. Tx?

A

Statin (first-line)

264
Q

Condition: Hypertriglyceridemia. Tx?

A

Fibrate

265
Q

Condition: Immediate anticoagulation. Tx?

A

Heparin

266
Q

Condition: Infertility. Tx?

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

267
Q

Condition: Influenza. Tx?

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

268
Q

Condition: Legionella pneumophila. Tx?

A

Erythromycin

269
Q

Condition: Long-term anticoagulation. Tx?

A

Warfarin

270
Q

Condition: Malaria. Tx?

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

271
Q

Condition: Malignant hyperthermia. Tx?

A

Dantrolene

272
Q

Condition: Medical abortion. Tx?

A

Mifepristone

273
Q

Condition: Migraine. Tx?

A

Sumatriptan

274
Q

Condition: MRSA. Tx?

A

Vancomycin

275
Q

Condition: Multiple sclerosis. Tx?

A

β-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

276
Q

Condition: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tx?

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

277
Q

Condition: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Tx?

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

278
Q

Condition: Neisseria meningitidis. Tx?

A

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

279
Q

Condition: Osteomalacia/rickets. Tx?

A

Vitamin D supplementation

280
Q

Condition: Osteoporosis. Tx?

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

281
Q

Condition: Patent ductus arteriosus. Tx?

A

Indomethacin

282
Q

Condition: Pheochromocytoma. Tx?

A

α-antagonists (e.g., phenoxybenzamine)

283
Q

Condition: Pneumocystis jirovecii. Tx?

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patient)

284
Q

Condition: Prolactinoma. Tx?

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

285
Q

Condition: Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids. Tx?

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

286
Q

Condition: Prostate carcinoma. Tx?

A

Flutamide

287
Q

Condition: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Tx?

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

288
Q

Condition: Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic). Tx?

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

289
Q

Condition: Rickettsia rickettsii. Tx?

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (associated with aplastic anemia)

290
Q

Condition: Ringworm infections. Tx?

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

291
Q

Condition: Schizophrenia (negative symptoms). Tx?

A

5-HT2A antagonists (e.g., 2nd-generation antipsychotics)

292
Q

Condition: Schizophrenia (positive symptoms). Tx?

A

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., 1st- and 2nd-generation antipsychotics)

293
Q

Condition: SIADH. Tx?

A

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

294
Q

Condition: Sickle cell anemia. Tx?

A

Hydroxyurea (inc fetal hemoglobin)

295
Q

Condition: Sporothrix schenckii. Tx?

A

Oral potassium iodide

296
Q

Condition: Stable angina. Tx?

A

Sublingual nitroglycerin

297
Q

Condition: Staphylococcus aureus. Tx?

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

298
Q

Condition: Streptococcus bovis. Tx?

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

299
Q

Condition: Streptococcus pneumoniae. Tx?

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

300
Q

Condition: Streptococcus pyogenes. Tx?

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

301
Q

Condition: Temporal arteritis. Tx?

A

High-dose steroids

302
Q

Condition: Tonic-clonic seizures. Tx?

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

303
Q

Condition: Toxoplasma gondii. Tx?

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

304
Q

Condition: Treponema pallidum. Tx?

A

Penicillin

305
Q

Condition: Trichomonas vaginalis. Tx?

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

306
Q

Condition: Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux). Tx?

A

Carbamazepine

307
Q

Condition: Ulcerative colitis. Tx?

A

5-ASA, infliximab, colectomy

308
Q

Condition: UTI prophylaxis. Tx?

A

TMP-SMX

309
Q

Condition: Warfarin toxicity. Tx?

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

310
Q

Actinic (solar) keratosis. Association?

A

Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

311
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with CNS injury. Association?

A

Cushing ulcer (inc intracranial pressure stimulates vagal gastric secretion)

312
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns. Association?

A

Curling ulcer (greatly reduced plasma volume results in sloughing of gastric mucosa)

313
Q

Alternating areas of transmural inflammation and normal colon. Association?

A

Skip lesions (Crohn disease)

314
Q

Aneurysm, dissecting. Association?

A

Hypertension

315
Q

Aortic aneurysm, abdominal and descending aorta. Association?

A

Atherosclerosis

316
Q

Aortic aneurysm, arch. Association?

A

3° syphilis (syphilitic aortitis), vasa vasorum destruction

317
Q

Aortic aneurysm, ascending. Association?

A

Marfan syndrome (idiopathic cystic medial degeneration)

318
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies. Association?

A

Wernicke encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency causing ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion)

319
Q

Autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage). Association?

A

Sickle cell anemia (hemoglobin S)

320
Q

Bacteria associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer. Association?

A

H. pylori

321
Q

Bacterial meningitis (adults and elderly). Association?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

322
Q

Bacterial meningitis (newborns and kids). Association?

A

Group B streptococcus/E.coli (newborns), S. pneumoniae/ Neisseria meningitidis (kids)

323
Q

Benign melanocytic nevus. Association?

A

Spitz nevus (most common in 1st two decades)

324
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency. Association?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome (defect in platelet adhesion to von Willebrand factor)

325
Q

Brain tumor (adults). Association?

A

Supratentorial: metastasis > astrocytoma (including glioblastoma multiforme) > meningioma > schwannoma

326
Q

Brain tumor (kids). Association?

A

Infratentorial: medulloblastoma (cerebellum) or supratentorial: craniopharyngioma

327
Q

Breast cancer. Association?

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

328
Q

Breast mass. Association?

A

Fibrocystic change, carcinoma (in postmenopausal women)

329
Q

Breast tumor (benign). Association?

A

Fibroadenoma

330
Q

Cardiac 1° tumor (kids). Association?

A

Rhabdomyoma, often seen in tuberous sclerosis

331
Q

Cardiac manifestation of lupus. Association?

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis (nonbacterial, affecting both sides of mitral valve)

332
Q

Cardiac tumor (adults). Association?

A

Metastasis, 1° myxoma (4:1 left to right atrium; “ball and valve”)

333
Q

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation. Association?

A

Chiari II malformation

334
Q

Chronic arrhythmia. Association?

A

Atrial fibrillation (associated with high risk of emboli)

335
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis (autoimmune). Association?

A

Predisposition to gastric carcinoma (can also cause pernicious anemia)

336
Q

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Association?

A

DES exposure in utero

337
Q

Compression fracture. Association?

A

Osteoporosis (type I: postmenopausal woman; type II: elderly man or woman)

338
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypotension. Association?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

339
Q

Congenital cardiac anomaly. Association?

A

VSD

340
Q

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (black liver). Association?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (inability of hepatocytes to secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile)

341
Q

Constrictive pericarditis. Association?

A

TB (developing world); SLE (developed world)

342
Q

Coronary artery involved in thrombosis. Association?

A

LAD > RCA > LCA

343
Q

Cretinism. Association?

A

Iodine deficit/hypothyroidism

344
Q

Cushing syndrome. Association?

A
  • Iatrogenic Cushing (from corticosteroid therapy)
345
Q

Cyanosis (early; less common). Association?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of great vessels, truncus arteriosus

346
Q

Cyanosis (late; more common). Association?

A

VSD, ASD, PDA

347
Q

Death in CML. Association?

A

Blast crisis

348
Q

Death in SLE. Association?

A

Lupus nephropathy

349
Q

Dementia. Association?

A

Alzheimer disease, multiple infarcts

350
Q

Demyelinating disease in young women. Association?

A

Multiple sclerosis

351
Q

DIC. Association?

A

Severe sepsis, obstetric complications, cancer, burns, trauma, major surgery

352
Q

Dietary deficit. Association?

A

Iron

353
Q

Diverticulum in pharynx. Association?

A

Zenker diverticulum (diagnosed by barium swallow)

354
Q

Ejection click. Association?

A

Aortic/pulmonic stenosis

355
Q

Esophageal cancer. Association?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (worldwide); adenocarcinoma (U.S.)

356
Q

Food poisoning (exotoxin mediated). Association?

A

S. aureus, B. cereus

357
Q

Glomerulonephritis (adults). Association?

A

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

358
Q

Gynecologic malignancy. Association?

A

Endometrial carcinoma (most common in U.S.); cervical carcinoma (most common worldwide)

359
Q

Heart murmur, congenital. Association?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

360
Q

Heart valve in bacterial endocarditis. Association?

A

Mitral > aortic (rheumatic fever), tricuspid (IV drug abuse)

361
Q

Helminth infection (U.S.). Association?

A

Enterobius vermicularis, Ascaris lumbricoides

362
Q

Hematoma—epidural. Association?

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery (trauma; lentiform shaped)

363
Q

Hematoma—subdural. Association?

A

Rupture of bridging veins (crescent shaped)

364
Q

Hemochromatosis. Association?

A

Multiple blood transfusions or hereditary HFE mutation (can result in CHF, “bronze diabetes,” and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)

365
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma. Association?

A

Cirrhotic liver (associated with hepatitis B and C and with alcoholism)

366
Q

Hereditary bleeding disorder. Association?

A

von Willebrand disease

367
Q

Hereditary harmless jaundice. Association?

A

Gilbert syndrome (benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

368
Q

HLA-B27. Association?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, psoriatic arthritis

369
Q

HLA-DR3 or -DR4. Association?

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE

370
Q

Holosystolic murmur. Association?

A

VSD, tricuspid regurgitation, mitral regurgitation

371
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, blood stasis. Association?

A

Virchow triad (results in venous thrombosis)

372
Q

Hypertension, 2°. Association?

A

Renal disease

373
Q

Hypoparathyroidism. Association?

A

Accidental excision during thyroidectomy

374
Q

Hypopituitarism. Association?

A

Pituitary adenoma (usually benign tumor)

375
Q

Infection 2° to blood transfusion. Association?

A

Hepatitis C

376
Q

Infections in chronic granulomatous disease. Association?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus (catalase+)

377
Q

Intellectual disability. Association?

A

Down syndrome, fragile X syndrome

378
Q

Kidney stones. Association?

A

Calcium = radiopaque

379
Q

Late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected left to right becomes right to left). Association?

A

Eisenmenger syndrome (caused by ASD, VSD, PDA; results in pulmonary hypertension/polycythemia)

380
Q

Liver disease. Association?

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

381
Q

Lysosomal storage disease. Association?

A

Gaucher disease

382
Q

Male cancer. Association?

A

Prostatic carcinoma

383
Q

Malignancy associated with noninfectious fever. Association?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

384
Q

Malignancy (kids). Association?

A

ALL, medulloblastoma (cerebellum)

385
Q

Metastases to bone. Association?

A

Prostate, breast > lung > thyroid

386
Q

Metastases to brain. Association?

A

Lung > breast > genitourinary > melanoma > GI

387
Q

Metastases to liver. Association?

A

Colon&raquo_space; stomach, pancreas

388
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance. Association?

A

Disease occurs in both males and females, inherited through females only

389
Q

Mitral valve stenosis. Association?

A

Rheumatic heart disease

390
Q

Mixed (UMN and LMN) motor neuron disease. Association?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

391
Q

Myocarditis. Association?

A

Coxsackie B

392
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (adults). Association?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

393
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (kids). Association?

A

Minimal change disease

394
Q

Neuron migration failure. Association?

A

Kallmann syndrome (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia)

395
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia. Association?

A

Klebsiella, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

396
Q

Obstruction of male urinary tract. Association?

A

BPH

397
Q

Opportunistic infection in AIDS. Association?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

398
Q

Osteomyelitis. Association?

A

S. aureus

399
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease. Association?

A

Salmonella

400
Q

Osteomyelitis with IV drug use. Association?

A

Pseudomonas, S. aureus

401
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric carcinoma or breast cancer. Association?

A

Krukenberg tumor (mucin-secreting signet-ring cells)

402
Q

Ovarian tumor (benign, bilateral). Association?

A

Serous cystadenoma

403
Q

Ovarian tumor (malignant). Association?

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

404
Q

Pancreatitis (acute). Association?

A

Gallstones, alcohol

405
Q

Pancreatitis (chronic). Association?

A

Alcohol (adults), cystic fibrosis (kids)

406
Q

Patient with ALL/CLL/AML/CML (ages). Association?

A

ALL: child, CLL: adult > 60, AML: adult ~65, CML: adult 30-60

407
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease. Association?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae

408
Q

Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) (bcr-abl). Association?

A

CML (may sometimes be associated with ALL/AML)

409
Q

Pituitary tumor. Association?

A

Prolactinoma, somatotropic “acidophilic” adenoma

410
Q

1° amenorrhea. Association?

A

Turner syndrome (45,XO)

411
Q

1° bone tumor (adults). Association?

A

Multiple myeloma

412
Q

1° hyperaldosteronism. Association?

A

Adenoma of adrenal cortex

413
Q

1° hyperparathyroidism. Association?

A

Adenomas, hyperplasia, carcinoma

414
Q

1° liver cancer. Association?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, hemochromatosis, α1-antitrypsin deficiency)

415
Q

Pulmonary hypertension. Association?

A

COPD

416
Q

Recurrent inflammation/thrombosis of small/medium vessels. Association?

A

Buerger disease (strongly associated with tobacco) in extremities

417
Q

Renal tumor. Association?

A

Renal cell carcinoma: associated with von Hippel-Lindau and cigarette smoking; paraneoplastic syndromes (EPO, renin, PTH, ACTH)

418
Q

Right heart failure due to a pulmonary cause. Association?

A

Cor pulmonale

419
Q

S3 (protodiastolic gallop). Association?

A

inc ventricular filling (left-to-right shunt, mitral regurgitation, LV failure [CHF])

420
Q

S4 (presystolic gallop). Association?

A

Stiff/hypertrophic ventricle (aortic stenosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy)

421
Q

2° hyperparathyroidism. Association?

A

Hypocalcemia of chronic kidney disease

422
Q

Sexually transmitted disease. Association?

A

Chlamydia (usually coinfected with gonorrhea)

423
Q

SIADH. Association?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

424
Q

Site of diverticula. Association?

A

Sigmoid colon

425
Q

Sites of atherosclerosis. Association?

A

Abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery > carotid artery

426
Q

Stomach cancer. Association?

A

Adenocarcinoma

427
Q

Stomach ulcerations and high gastrin levels. Association?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma of duodenum or pancreas)

428
Q

Temporal arteritis. Association?

A

Risk of ipsilateral blindness due to thrombosis of ophthalmic artery; polymyalgia rheumatica

429
Q

Testicular tumor. Association?

A

Seminoma (malignant, radiosensitive)

430
Q

Thyroid cancer. Association?

A

Papillary carcinoma

431
Q

Tumor in women. Association?

A

Leiomyoma (estrogen dependent, not precancerous)

432
Q

Tumor of infancy. Association?

A

Hemangioma (usually regresses spontaneously by childhood)

433
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (adults). Association?

A

Pheochromocytoma (usually benign)

434
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids). Association?

A

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

435
Q

Type of Hodgkin. Association?

A

Nodular sclerosis (vs. mixed cellularity, lymphocytic predominance, lymphocytic depletion)

436
Q

Type of non-Hodgkin. Association?

A

Diffuse large cell

437
Q

UTI. Association?

A

E. coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus (young women)

438
Q

Viral encephalitis affecting temporal lobe. Association?

A

HSV-1

439
Q

Vitamin deficiency (U.S.). Association?

A

Folate (pregnant women are at high risk; body stores only 3- to 4-month supply; prevents neural tube defects)

Pathology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions