Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > DIT Rapid Fire Facts > Flashcards

DIT Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common cause of congenital malformatins in the US

A

Alcohol use during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common cause of congenital mental retardation in the US

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation

A

Marfan Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead

A

Bell’s Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ptosis, miosis, & anhidrosis

A

Horner’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amyloid deposits in gray matter of brain

A

Senile plaques (Alzheimer’s Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drooling farmer

A

Organophosphates (Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inability to breastfeed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance

A

Sheehan Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Infertility, galactorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia, low libido, amenorrhea

A

Prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal

A

Adrenal Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (adults)

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal Adenoma (hyperplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pheochromocytoma, Medullary thyroid cancer, & hyperParathyroidism

A

MEN-2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pheochromocytoma, Medullary thyroid cancer, & Mucosal neuromas

A

MEN-2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Adrenal disease associated with skin hyperpigmentation

A

Addison disease (Primary Adrenal Insufficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HTN, Hypokalemia, & Metabolic alkalosis

A

Hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most comon thyroid cancer

A

Papillary Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cold intolerance

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei

A

Orphan Annie eyes seen in Papillary Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common infections seen in chronic granulomatous disease

A

Catalase + organisms (Staph. aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus, Klebsiella, & Candida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Eczema, recurrent URI, high serum IgE

A

Job’s Syndrome/Hyper-IgE Syndrome (can also describe Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome, but more likely truncal eczema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Protease inhibitors (“Navir (never) tease a protease”)

A

Lopinavir, Atazanavir, Darunavir, Fosamprenavir, Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Indinavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Protease inhibitors class side effects:

A

GI intolerance, Inhibit CYP450, Hyperlipidemia/ hypertriglyceridemia, Lipodystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ASE: Pancreatitis

A

Ritonavir side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ASE: Nephrolithiasis

A

Ritonavir side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ASE: Hyperbilirubinemia, prolonged PR interval, jaundice

A

Atazanavir side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NRTIs (“Have you dined (vudine) with my nuclear (nucleosides) family?”):

A

Emtricitabine (FTC), Lamivudine (3TC), Zidovudine (ZDV, AZT), Didanosine (ddI), Stavudine (d4T), Abacavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

NRTIs must be activated by

A

Phosphorylation by thymidine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

NRTI class side effects

A

Lactic acidosis (except Abacavir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ASE: Pancreatitis, Peripheral neuropathy, Hepatic Steatosis

A

Didanosine (esp. for pancreatitis & peripheral neuropathy), Stavuidine, Zalcitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ASE: Bone marrow suppression, Megaloblastic anemia

A

Zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Given to pregnant women w/ HIV

A

Used to be Zidovudine (now HAART)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Regimen for occupational HIV exposures

A

Zidovudine + Lamivudine (and maybe a 3rd med too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NtRTI:

A

Tenofovir (TDF) - doesn’t require activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NNRTIs (non-competitive) (-virine, -virapine, and -virenz, -virdine):

A

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delaviridine, Etravirine, Rilpivirine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

NNRTI class side effects (& Abacavir)

A

Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ASE: Neuropsychiatric symptoms (nightmares, vivid dreams, worsening depression), False-positive marijuana (cannabinoid) drug test), Teratogenic

A

Efavirenz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Integrase inhibitors:

A

Raltegravir, Elvategravir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Integrase inhibitors class side effects:

A

Hypercholesterolemia, Hyperlipidemia, Pancreatitis, Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drugs that interfere with HIV envelope proteins:

A

gp41 - Enfuviritide (fusion inhibitor); gp120 - Maraviroc (blocks CCR-5 receptor on macrophages & T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dysphagia, glossitis, and iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hematemesis with vomiting

A

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Specialized columnar epithelium/goblet cells on biopsy from distal esophagus

A

Barrett’s esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bx of pt. with esophagitis shows large pink intranuclear inclusions & host cell chromatin that is pushed to edge of the nucleus

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bx of pt. with esophagitis shows enlarged cells, intranuclear & cytoplasmic inclusions, and a clear perinuclear halo

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Esophageal bx reveals lack of ganglion cells between inner and outer muscular layers

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bx of mass in parotid gland reveals double layer of columnar epithelial cells resting on dense lymphoid stroma

A

Warthin’s tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Protrusion of mucosa in the upper esophagus

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Outpouching of all layers of esophagus just above the LES

A

Epiphrenic diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Basal cell hyperplasia, eosinophilia, and elongation of lamina propria papilla seen in biopsy of esophagus

A

Chronic reflux esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A PAS stain on bx obtained from pt. with esophagitis reveals hyphate organisms

A

Candida esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Esophageal pouch found in upper esophagus

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Painless jaundice

A

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma (esp. at head of pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones & Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Standard treatment for DKA

A

I.V. fluids, I.V. insulin, and K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Standard treatment for Type 1 DM

A

Insulin and low-sugar diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Standard treatment for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Weight reduction (exercise), low sugar diet, oral hypoglycemic drugs (Metformin), possibly insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, lymphadenopathy, and hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/ anti-gliadin/ anti-endomysial antibodies

A

Celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects

A

Folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Total or subtotal atrophy of small bowel villi, plasma cells & lymphocyte infiltration into the lamina propria and epithelium, and hyperplasia/elongation of crypts

A

Celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

Fatty Liver Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate

A

Crigler-Najjar Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Treatment for chronic hepatitis

A

Interferon-alpha (IFN-a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy

A

Heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A boy with self-mutilating behavior, mental retardation, and gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome = HGPRT deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Elevated uric acid levels

A

Gout, Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome, Tumor-lysis syndrome, Loop or thiazide diuretics, Cyclosporine, Pyrazinamide, Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Bluish-colored lines on the gingivae

A

Burton’s lines in Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency, Thalassemias, Lead poisoning, Sideroblastic anemia (defect in heme synthesis), beginning of Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic Anemia from B12 or folate deficiency or orotic aciduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Skull x-ray shows a “hair-on-end” appearance

A

Beta-Thalassemia Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Painful cyanosis of fingers and toes, w/ hemolytic anemia

A

Cold Agglutinins (IgM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Red urine in the morning, and fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hematuria (PNH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly Bodies (seen after splenectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Autosplenectomy

A

Sickle Cell Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Drug used to treat Sickle Cell Disease

A

Hydroxyurea (↑ production of HbF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Antiplatelet antibodies

A

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Bleeding disorder with GP Ib deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Cancer most commonly associated with a noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Punched out lytic bone lesions

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Sheets of lymphoid cells, with a “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins

A

Rouleaux formation seen in Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike

A

MGUS, Multiple Myeloma, or Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

Auer rods of Myeloperoxidase seen in APL, a form of AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Large B cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent “owl’s eye inclusions”

A

Reed-Sternberg cells in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Treatment of choice for rickets or osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on the skin

A

Scurvy = vitamin C/ascorbic acid deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Most common vitamin deficiency in US

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic Anemia due to B12 or folate deficiency or orotic aciduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, and polyneuropathy

A

Beri-Beri, thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Most common cancer of the appendix

A

Carcinoid Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Most common surgical emergency

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of the mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness

A

McBurney’s sign (Appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Apple core lesion on barium enema

A

Colorectal Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Most common site of colonic diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

String sign on contrast X-ray

A

Crohn’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Lead pipe appearance of colon on contrast x-ray

A

Ulcerative Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

Staph. aureus, Bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Osteomyelitis in Sickle Cell Disease

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Diarrhea caused by Gram negative nonmotile organism that does not ferment lactose

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Diarrhea caused by an S-shaped organism

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Diarrhea transmitted by pet feces

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Diarrhea caused by Gram negative motile organism that does not ferment lactose

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Most common cause of “traveler’s diarrhea”

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Diarrhea after a course of antibiotics

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Diarrhea caused by Gram negative lactose-fermenting bacteria, no fever

A

E. coli (esp. ETEC, EPEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Diarrhea caused by Gram negative comma-shaped organism, no fever

A

Vibrio cholerae (rice-water stools)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Diarrhea + recent ingestion of water from a stream

A

Giardia lamblia or Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Food poisoning from undercooked hamburger meat

A

EHEC O157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Ring-enhancing brain lesion in HIV patient

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole for pt. and partner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Most common helminth infection in the US

A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

2nd most common helminth infection in the US

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Sensitivity

A

People with disease + positive test/ Everyone with the disease = TP/ TP+FN

132
Q

Specificity

A

(People without disease + negative test)/ (Everyone without the disease) = TN/ (TN+FP)

133
Q

Positive Predictive Value

A

Probability that a positive test is correct = TP/ TP+FP. Increases with increased prevalence

134
Q

Negative Predictive Value

A

Probability that a negative test is correct = TN/ TN + FN. Decreases with increased prevalence e.g. during flu season, if someone tests negative for the flu, you may not trust that negative test - it has a low predictive value.

135
Q

Relative Risk

A

[A/(A+B)] / [C/(C+D)]

136
Q

Odds Ratio

A

(A/B) / (C/D)

137
Q

Attributable Risk

A

[A/(A+B)] - [C/(C+D)]

138
Q

Attributable Risk Reduction

A

[C/(C+D)] - [A/(A+B)]

139
Q

Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

A

1 / ARR

140
Q

Chronic sinusitis, infertility, and situs inversus

A

Kartagener Syndrome (dynein arm defect

141
Q

Elevated D-dimers

A

Pulmonary embolism, DVT, DIC

142
Q

Hypercoagulability, Endothelial damage, & Stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s Triad

143
Q

Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

Sarcoidosis

144
Q

Vasculitits and glomerulonephritis

A

Wegener’s Polyangitis

145
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s

146
Q

Honeycomb lung on X-ray

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

147
Q

Tennis-racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules (Langerhan’s Histiocytosis

148
Q

Most common bacteria implicated in exotoxin-mediated food poisonings

A

Staph. aureus, Bacillus cereus

149
Q

Branching gram-positive rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

150
Q

Calcified granuloma in the lung, plus hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex

151
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, and weight loss

A

Pott’s Disease (TB in the vertebrae)

152
Q

Standard treatment regimen for TB

A

RIPE + B6 = Rifampin, Isoniazid (+ B6 to prevent neurotoxicity), Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

153
Q

Standard treatment for T. pallidum

A

Penicillin G (IV form) or Doxycycline if allergic

154
Q

Cellulitis from a dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

155
Q

A non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Primary chancre seen in Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

156
Q

Moist, smooth, flat white genital lesion

A

Condyloma lata, Secondary Syphilis

157
Q

Large bull’s eye rash

A

Erythema chronica migrans - presenting symptom of Lyme Disease from Borrelia burgdorferi

158
Q

Diseases with Belle’s Palsy as a Complication:

A

Lovely Belle Had An STD: Lyme, Herpes zoster, AIDS, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes

159
Q

Continuous machinery-like heart murmur

A

PDA

160
Q

Boot-shaped heart

A

RVH due to Tetralogy of Fallot (in kid) or due to Pulm. HTN/COPD (in adult)

161
Q

Rib notching

A

Coarctation of aorta

162
Q

Most common congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

163
Q

Most common congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

164
Q

Bounding pulses, head bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

Aortic Regurgitation

165
Q

Most common congenital heart murmur

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

166
Q

Chest pain, pericardial friction rub, persistent fever several weeks after MI

A

Dressler Syndrome

167
Q

Splinter hemorrhages in nailbed

A

Infective Endocarditis

168
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth’s spots

169
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral Valve

170
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in an I.V. drug user with bacterial endocarditis

A

Tricuspid Valve

171
Q

Granulomatous nodules in the heart

A

Aschoff bodies of Rheumatic Heart Disease

172
Q

Most common cardiac tumor in adults

A

Metastases but Left Atrial Myxoma is the most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

173
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

174
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

Lupus in US, TB in developing countries

175
Q

Weak pulses in upper extremities

A

Takayasu Arteritis

176
Q

Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangitis i.e. Wegener’s

177
Q

Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels

A

Polyarteritis nodosa, which spares lungs

178
Q

Young male smokers

A

Buerger Disease

179
Q

Young Asian women

A

Takayasu Arteritis

180
Q

Infants and young children; involved coronary arteries

A

Kawasaki disease

181
Q

Most common vasculitis

A

Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis

182
Q

Associated with hepatitis B infection

A

Polyarteritis nodosa (spares lungs)

183
Q

Occlusion of ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness

A

Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis

184
Q

Perforation of nasal septum

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangitis i.e. Wegener’s

185
Q

Unilateral headache, jaw claudication

A

Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis

186
Q

Benign, raised, red lesion about the size of a mole in older patients

A

Cherry hemangioma

187
Q

Raised, red area present at birth, increases in size initially then regresses over months to years

A

Strawberry hemangioma

188
Q

Lesion caused by lymphoangiogenic growth factors in an infected HIV pt.

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

189
Q

Polypoid red lesion found in pregnancy or after trauma

A

Pyogenic granuloma

190
Q

Benign, painful, red-blue tumor under fingernails

A

Glomus tumor

191
Q

Cavernous lymphangioma a/w Turner Syndrome

A

Cystic hygroma

192
Q

Skin papule in AIDS pt. caused by Bartonella

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

193
Q

Cold, painful digits

A

Raynaud’s Phenomenon

194
Q

c-ANCA

A

PR3 - Wegener’s

195
Q

p-ANCA

A

MPO - Microscopic Polyangitis & Churg-Strauss

196
Q

Treatment for Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

197
Q

Treatment for temporal arteritis

A

High-dose corticosteroids

198
Q

Worst headache of my life

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

199
Q

Lucid interval following head trauma

A

Epidural hematoma

200
Q

Bloody CSF on Lumbar Puncture

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

201
Q

Most common cause of subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of bridging veins

202
Q

Most common cause of epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery.

203
Q

Toe extension upon stimulating the sole of the foot with a blunt instrument

A

Positive Babinski sign

204
Q

Hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, and positive Babinski sign

A

UMN Lesion

205
Q

Hyporeflexia, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy

A

LMN Lesion

206
Q

Depigmentation of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s Disease

207
Q

Chorea, dementia, and atrophy of the caudate and putamen

A

Huntington’s Disease

208
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of neurons

A

Lewy bodies

209
Q

Conjugate lateral gaze palsy, with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

Intranuclear Ophthalmoplegia i.e. MLF Syndrome

210
Q

Degeneration of the dorsal columns

A

Tabes dorsalis

211
Q

Demyelinating disease in a young woman

A

Multiple Sclerosis

212
Q

Mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

213
Q

Newborn with arm paralysis following a difficult labor

A

Erb-Duchenne Palsy

214
Q

Bone enlargement, bone pain, and arthritis

A

Paget Disease of Bone

215
Q

Vertebral compression fractures

A

Osteoporosis

216
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

217
Q

Most common cause of Primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

218
Q

Most common cause of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure (hypocalcemia)

219
Q

Most common cause of Hypoparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy

220
Q

Facial muscle spasm when tapping on the cheek

A

Chvostek’s sign, a sign of hypocalcemia

221
Q

Parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary tumors

A

MEN 1 Syndrome

222
Q

Positive Anterior Drawer Sign

A

ACL Injury

223
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

Gout

224
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis

225
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

226
Q

Arthritis, dry mouth, dry eyes

A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

227
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals seen in Pseudogout

228
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Monosodium urate crystals seen in Gout

229
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone underneath

A

Eburnation seen in Osteoarthritis

230
Q

Bamboo spine on X-ray

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

231
Q

HLA-B27

A

Seronegative Arthritis = Psoriatic Arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD-associated arthritis, Reactive (Reiter’s) Arthritis

232
Q

Anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

Lupus

233
Q

Anti-histone antibodies

A

Drug-induced Lupus from SHIPP - Sulfonamides, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Phenytoin

234
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

CREST Syndrome

235
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies (Anti-Scl70)

A

Systemic Scleroderma

236
Q

Facial rash & Raynaud phenomenon in a young woman

A

SLE (Lupus)

237
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE

A

Lupus Nephritis

238
Q

Most common cardiac manifestation in SLE

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

239
Q

Keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

240
Q

Most common malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

241
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV infection

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

242
Q

Prophylaxis for Cryptococus in AIDS patients

A

Fluconazole

243
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDS patients

A

TMP-SMX when CD4+ count <200

244
Q

Treatment for Sporothrix schenckii

A

Potassium iodide, Itraconazole

245
Q

Treatment for oral candidiasis

A

Nystatin, Fluconazole

246
Q

Treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

247
Q

Pupil that accommodates but does not react to light

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil in tertiary Syphilis

248
Q

Most common medication for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) or Dextroamphetamine (Adderall) –> increase presynaptic release of Norepinephrine

249
Q

Most common medication for bulimia nervosa

A

Fluoxetine (SNRI)

250
Q

Medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

251
Q

Most effective treatment for alcohol abuse

A

Alcoholics Anonymous

252
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

253
Q

Treatment for absence seizures

A

Ethosuxamide

254
Q

Treatment for Tonic-Clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, Valproic acid, Carbamazepine

255
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

Desmopressin

256
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

Hydrochlorothiazide, Indomethacin, Amiloride

257
Q

Treatment for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

A

Amiloride, a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks the ENaC channel through which Lithium enters the principal cell

258
Q

Nodular hyaline deposits in the glomeruli

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules in Diabetic Nephropathy

259
Q

Glomerulonephritis plus pulmonary vasculitis

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangitis i.e. Wegener’s or Goodpasture’s Syndrome - Both cause Rapidly Progressive Crescentic Glomerulonephritis

260
Q

Red cell casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

261
Q

Waxy casts

A

Chronic Renal Failure

262
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of kidney

A

Chronic Pyelonephritis

263
Q

Most common renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

264
Q

Most common type of renal stone

A

Calcium

265
Q

Type of renal stone associated with Proteus vulgaris/mirabilis

A

Renal staghorn calculi - urease in bacteria causes ammonium magnesium phosphate stones/ struvite

266
Q

Most common tumor of urinary tract

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

267
Q

Most common renal malignancy of early childhood

A

Wilms Tumor

268
Q

Fever + rash + hematuria + eosinophilia

A

Acute Interstitial Nephritis, drug-induced

269
Q

Cancer associated with Schistosoma haematobium, where it’s found, how to treat

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder, found in Egypt, treat with Praziquantel (1 dose annually)

270
Q

Most common medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

271
Q

Most common bacteria in pt. with struvite kidney stones

A

Proteus/Staph/Klebsiella

272
Q

Dark purple nodules seen in an HIV pt.

A

Kaposi Sarcoma from HHV-8

273
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1 encephalitis

274
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions in monocytes

A

CMV

275
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

Cowdry A inclusions seen in HSV, VZV, and CMV

276
Q

Aplastic anemia in a Sickle Cell pt.

A

Parvovirus B-19

277
Q

Child with a fever and “slapped cheek” rash on the face that spreads to the body

A

Parvovirus B-19

278
Q

Fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, and diffuse rash

A

Measles - Rubeola, a paramyxovirus

279
Q

Small irregular blue-gray spots on the buccal mucosa, surrounded by a base of red

A

Koplik Spots seen in Rubeola Measles

280
Q

Most common etiology of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Staphylcoccus, Klebsiella

281
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in neonates

A

GBS, E. coli, Listeria

282
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in children

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis

283
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis

284
Q

Osteomyelitis in IV drug user

A

Pseudomonas (more commonly it’s Staph. aureus)

285
Q

Osteomyelitis in Sickle Cell Disease

A

Salmonella

286
Q

Most common reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

287
Q

Non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Syphilis chancre

288
Q

Painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion with exudate

A

Chancroid from Haemophilus ducreyi or possibly HSV-2

289
Q

Stippled vaginal epithelial cells on a wet prep of vaginal discharge

A

Clue cells in Bacterial Vaginosis

290
Q

Common treatment for syphilis

A

Penicillin G (IV form) or Doxycycline if allergic

291
Q

Common treatment for Trichomonas

A

Metronidazole for pt. and partner

292
Q

Common treatment for Chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

293
Q

Common treatment for Gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

294
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate adenocarcinoma

295
Q

Most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

296
Q

Most common treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil

297
Q

Dysplastic cervical cells, with enlarged, dark nuclei

A

Koilocytes, indicate HPV infection

298
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero

A

Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma of vagina

299
Q

Most common tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

300
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy in US

A

Endometrial carcinoma

301
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy worldwide

A

Cervical cancer

302
Q

Chocolate cyst on the ovary

A

Endometriosis

303
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

304
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

305
Q

Disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-Exner bodies in Granulosa cell tumor

306
Q

Produces AFP

A

Yolk Sac tumor i.e. Endodermal sinus tumor

307
Q

Estrogen-secreting, leading to precocious puberty

A

Granulosa-theca cell tumor

308
Q

Intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

309
Q

Testosterone-secreting, leading to virilization

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

310
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

311
Q

Multiple different tissue types

A

Teratoma

312
Q

Lined with fallopian tube-like epithelium

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

313
Q

Ovarian tumor + ascites + hydrothorax

A

Meigs syndrome seen in Ovarian Fibroma

314
Q

Call-Exner bodies

A

Granulosa-theca cell tumor

315
Q

Resembles bladder epithelium

A

Brenner tumor

316
Q

Elevated B-hCG

A

Choriocarcinoma, Dysgerminoma, and Hydatidiform mole

317
Q

Increased AFP on amniocentesis

A

Neural tube defect, Anencephaly, Incorrect dating of pregnancy

318
Q

Most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Down Syndrome

319
Q

2nd most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Fragile X Syndrome

320
Q

Horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, and cystic hygroma

A

Turner Syndrome (XO)

321
Q

Rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, micrognathia w/ prominent occiput & small jaw

A

Trisomy 18 - Edward Syndrome

322
Q

Most common cancer in women in the US

A

Breast cancer

323
Q

Most common benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

324
Q

Most common malignant breast tumor

A

Infiltrative Ductal Adenocarcinoma

325
Q

Blue dome cyst in the breast

A

Fibrocystic change

326
Q

Treatment for ER+ breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

327
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash on the areola and nipple

A

Paget Disease of Breast

Pathology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions