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Finals Study Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is a species?

A

A group of organisms that have the same structure and can reproduce with one another

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of living things?

A

-Are made of cells
-Need energy,
-Grow and develop
-Reproduce
-Have adaptations that suit them for the
environment in which they live

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3
Q

What is biological diversity?

A

All the different types of organisms on Earth

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4
Q

Explain how ecosystem works

A

living (biotic) things interact with other living and nonliving (abiotic) things in a shared environment

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5
Q

What is a population?

A

When members of a species live in a specific area and share the same resources

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6
Q

What is a community?

A

When populations of different species live in the same area

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7
Q

What is genetic diversity?

A

Variations between members of a population

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8
Q

What are variations in species caused by?

A

Subtle variations in the cells of the organisms

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9
Q

Which area on the planet has the most species?

A

Places near the equator and tropical regions

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10
Q

Who developed a naming system for classifying organisms?

A

Carolus Linnaeus

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11
Q

What are the 2 words to name each living thing?

A

Genus, species

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12
Q

What did Linnaeus base his naming system on?

A

Physical structure rather than habitat

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13
Q

Why do scientists use Latin to describe organisms?

A

Because Latin is a dead language and will never change

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14
Q

What are the five kingdoms of classification?

A 
Animalia
Plantae
Fungi
Protista
Monera
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15
Q

Explain Animalia

A

Animals

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16
Q

Explain Plantae

A

Plants

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17
Q

Explain Fungi

A

Yeasts, molds, and mushrooms

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18
Q

Explain Protista

A

mostly single-celled organisms

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19
Q

Explain Monera

A

Bacteria

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20
Q

What are the 7 categories of animal classifications?

A 
Kingdom
Phyla
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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21
Q

What have coral reefs been refered to as?

A

Amazons of the ocean

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22
Q

What is interdependence?

A

When each species is dependent on other organisms

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23
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

A type of interdependence where species impact each other

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24
Q

What is commensalism?

A

When one organism benefits but the other it not harmed

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25
Q

What is mutualism?

A

When both species benefit

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26
Q

What is parasitism?

A

When one species benefits and the other is harmed

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27
Q

What is interspecies competition?

A

When to or more resources need the same resource

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28
Q

What is a niche?

A

The role of an organism within an ecosystem

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29
Q

What is resource partitioning?

A

When different species divide up resources

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30
Q

How does variability connect to survival?

A

When the species has a great deal of variation among its individuals, it is more likely that some of the individuals will survive environmental changes.

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31
Q

How could variability help to be more resistant to disease?

A

The animals that are more resistant to bacteria will survive while the one that isn’t will die and can’t reproduce

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32
Q

What is natural selection?

A

Natural selection occurs when the environment “selects” which individuals will survive long enough to reproduce.

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33
Q

What are heritable characteristics?

A

Heritable characteristics are passed on from generation to generation.

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34
Q

What are non-heritable characteristics?

A

Non-heritable characteristics are acquired

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35
Q

What is discrete variation?

A

Discrete variation refers to differences in characteristics that have a defined form. Either you have it our you don’t.

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36
Q

What is continuous variation?

A

Continuous variation refers to differences in characteristics that have a range of forms. There are a wide range of forms

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37
Q

Explain asexual reproduction

A
  • Involves only one parent

- All the offspring that result from asexual reproduction are identical to that parent

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38
Q

What are the different forms of asexual reproduction?

A

Binary fission
Budding
Spore production
Vegetative reproduction

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39
Q

Explain how Binary Fission works

A
  • Only involves single-celled organisms

- During binary fission, a cell splits exactly in two, producing two identical individuals.

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40
Q

Explain how budding works

A
  • The parent produces a small bud or a smaller version of itself
  • the bud eventually detaches and becomes a new individual identical to its parent
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41
Q

Explain how spore production works

A

-Spores are similar to seeds but are produced by the division of cells of the parent

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42
Q

Explain how vegetative reproduction works

A
  • You can take a cutting from another plant and place it in water it will grow
  • Many plants grow runners that grow new plants along them
  • Some trees grow suckers. If a sucker becomes separated from a tree it will form a new tree
  • Tubers on potatoes are also a form
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43
Q

Explain some details of sexual reproduction

A
  • Usually, involves two individuals
  • Most species of animals and flowering plants reproduce sexually.
  • offspring will have a mix of the characteristics of both individuals
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44
Q

What are gametes?

A

Specialized sex cells

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45
Q

What are the 2 gametes called?

A

Eggs

Sperm

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46
Q

What is fertilization?

A

The union of the sperm cell with the egg cell

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47
Q

What is a zygote?

A

The cell created by the joining of the two gametes

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48
Q

What happens after a zygote forms?

A

They divide into 2 cells in a process called cleavage

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49
Q

What is it called after a zygote splits into many cells?

A

An embryo

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50
Q

What is the female part of a plant called?

A

Pistil

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51
Q

What is the make part of the plant called?

A

Stamen

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52
Q

What is the stigma?

A

The top sticky part of the style in the middle of a flower

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53
Q

What is the style?

A

The tall part in the middle of a flower

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54
Q

What are the ovary and ovules?

A

The part of a flower just below the style that a pollen grows into.

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55
Q

What is included in the female part of a plant?

A

The stigma, style, ovary, ovule

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56
Q

What is included in the male part of a plant?

A

The filament and anther

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57
Q

Where is the anther on a plant?

A

The part on top of the filament that produces pollen

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58
Q

Where is the filament on a plant?

A

Underneath the anther that holds it up

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59
Q

What is pollination?

A

When pollen is transferred from the anther of the

stamen to the stigma of the pistil

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60
Q

What is cross-pollination?

A

when the pollen of one plant is carried to the stigma of another by the wind, water, or animals, such as bees or butterflies

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61
Q

What is cross-fertilization?

A

Cross-fertilization occurs when a grain of this pollen produces a long tube that eventually grows down the style into the ovary that contains the ovules.

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62
Q

What are the advantages of asexual reproduction?

A

-Does not require any specialized cells or a way of
bringing gametes together
-can produce lots of individuals very quickly.

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63
Q

What are the dis-advantages of asexual reproduction?

A

If conditions become unfavorable, the entire population may be wiped out.

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64
Q

What are the advantages of sexual reproduction?

A

lots of variation, which helps species survive environmental change.

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65
Q

What are the dis-advantages of sexual reproduction?

A

The main disadvantage of sexual reproduction is that it takes a lot of energy

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66
Q

What did Oswald Avery discover?

A

DNA

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67
Q

What is DNA short for?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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68
Q

What is DNA

A

The inherited material responsible for variation

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69
Q

Where in the cell is DNA found?

A

In the nucleus

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70
Q

What did James Watson and Francis Crick discover?

A

The genetic code

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71
Q

What four chemicals are the genetic code composed of?

A

Guanine
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine

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72
Q

How does DNA arrange itself?

A

In packages called chromosomes

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73
Q

How many chromosomes does a human body contain?

A

46

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74
Q

What is a gene?

A

An uninterrupted segment of DNA, which contains coded instructions

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75
Q

What are the characteristics of genes?

A
  • Genes are located on the chromosomes.
  • Each chromosome contains numerous gene locations.
  • Like chromosomes, genes come in pairs.
  • Both genes in a pair carry DNA instructions for the same thing.
  • The DNA code may not be exactly the same in both locations.
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76
Q

What are alleles?

A

Genes that exist in an array of possible forms that differ as to their exact DNA sequence

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77
Q

What is Mitosis?

A

Mitosis occurs in the body cells of multicellular organisms and is responsible for the growth and cellular repair of a multicellular organism.

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78
Q

What is Meiosis?

A
  • Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces cells with only half the DNA of a normal cell.
  • Because each gamete has only half the DNA of a normal cell, when the male and female gametes unite, the zygote has a complete set of DNA.
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79
Q

Explain the process of mitosis?

A
  • Chromosomes duplicate themselves

- Then the cell splits equally in half

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80
Q

Explain the process of meiosis?

A
  • The chromosomes duplicates
  • Then they exchange information
  • Then the cell splits in half leaving it with double the DNA it needs
  • Then it each cell splits in half again leaving four cells with half the DNA
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81
Q

What are traits?

A

A characteristic of an organism

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82
Q

What is a purebred?

A

Referring to a plant or animal that has ancestors all with the same form of a trait

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83
Q

What does hybrid mean?

A

An organism produced by crossing two individuals purebred for different forms of a trait

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84
Q

What is a dominant trait?

A

The outward form observed when two opposite-acting alleles are inherited

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85
Q

What is a recessive trait?

A

The outward form observed only when two same-acting, non-dominant alleles are inherited

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86
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

A pattern of inheritance seen when two different alleles are present at the same gene location, but neither is dominant

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87
Q

What is extinction?

A

The disappearance of every individual of a species from the entire planet

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88
Q

What is extirpation?

A

A local extinction, or the disappearance of a species from a particular area.

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89
Q

What does endangered mean?

A

Endangered species are ones that are in immediate danger of extinction or extirpation.

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90
Q

What does threatened mean?

A

Threatened species are likely to become endangered if their current declines are not reversed.

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91
Q

What are species of special concern?

A

Species that are of special concern are ones that are particularly vulnerable to natural events or human activities.

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92
Q

What are the natural causes of extinction or extirpation?

A
  • catastrophic events such as volcanic eruptions, floods, or fires
  • lack of food due to overpopulation
  • disease
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93
Q

What is overspecialization?

A

When organisms have adaptations that suit them to only a narrow set of environmental conditions

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94
Q

Why does overspecialization happen?

A

This probably happens because the environment that the organism inhabits remains unchanged for a very long time.

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95
Q

What are the human causes of extinction and extirpation?

A

Habitat destruction
Introduction of a non-native species
Over-hunting

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96
Q

What are the effects of extinction and extirpation?

A
  • Reduced biological diversity

- Reduced number of species on the planet

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97
Q

What is Artificial selection?

A

The process of selecting and breeding individuals with desirable traits to produce offspring that have these desired traits

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98
Q

What is the simplest way to clone a plant?

A

By taking a cutting from a plant and growing an identical plant from the cutting.

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99
Q

What is a drawback to cloning?

A

The drawback is that this ideal plant has only so many leaves that can be cut off to use as cuttings.

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100
Q

What is the way scientists create clones?

A
  • Cells are removed from an individual plant that has certain traits.
  • These cells are placed on a Petri dish or bottle containing nutrients and hormones the cells need.
  • Once these cells have developed into seedlings, they can be transplanted into the soil.
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101
Q

What does Artificial reproductive technology mean?

A

Refers to any artificial method of joining a male and female gamete.

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102
Q

Explain how artificial insemination works

A

Sperm are harvested from a bull with desired characteristics and are inserted into many female cows

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103
Q

Explain how in vitro fertilization works

A
  • Sperm from a bull and eggs from a prize cow are harvested from the animals.
  • In a laboratory, the eggs and sperm are placed in a Petri dish, and the eggs are fertilized.
  • This produces many embryos
  • Each embryo is implanted into a different cow
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104
Q

What does genetic engineering mean?

A

Refers to any technology that directly alters the DNA of an organism.

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105
Q

Explain how genetic engineering works?

A

Many of the genetic engineering techniques involve inserting a gene from one species into another species.

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106
Q

What is In-situ conservation?

A

Refers to the maintenance of populations of wild organisms in their functioning ecosystems

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107
Q

What is a positive to In-situ conservation?

A

It allows the ecological processes of an area to continue undisturbed.

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108
Q

What is Ex-situ conservation?

A

Refers to the conservation of components of

biological diversity outside of a natural habitat.

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109
Q

What does a yellow triangle mean?

A

Caution?

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110
Q

What does an orange diamond mean?

A

Warning

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111
Q

What does a red octagon mean?

A

Danger

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112
Q

What does WHMIS stand for?

A

Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

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113
Q

What are the states of matter?

A

Solid
Liquid
Gas

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114
Q

What is melting?

A

A change from a solid to a liquid

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115
Q

What is evaporation or vaporization?

A

A change from a liquid to a gas

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116
Q

What is condensation?

A

A change from a gas to a liquid

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117
Q

What is freezing?

A

A change from liquid to a solid

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118
Q

What is sublimation?

A

A change from solid to gas

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119
Q

What is deposition?

A

A change from gas to solid

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120
Q

What are properties?

A

Characteristics that can be used to describe a substance

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121
Q

What are the 2 types of properties that all matter has?

A

Physical and chemical

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122
Q

What are some physical properties of matter?

A
  • colour
  • lustre
  • melting point
  • boiling point
  • hardness
  • malleability
  • ductility
  • crystal shape
  • solubility
  • density
  • conductivity
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123
Q

What is melting point?

A

The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which it changes from a solid to a liquid.

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124
Q

What is boiling point?

A

The boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which its liquid phase changes to the gas phase.

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125
Q

What is hardness?

A

Hardness is a substance’s ability to resist being scratched.

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126
Q

What is hardness measured in?

A

Hardness is usually measured on the Mohs’ hardness scale from 1 to 10.

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127
Q

What is malleability?

A

A substance that can be pounded or rolled into sheets

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128
Q

What is ductility?

A

Any solid that can be stretched into a long wire

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129
Q

What is crystal shape?

A

The shape of a substance’s crystals

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130
Q

What is solubility?

A

The ability of a substance to be dissolved in another

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131
Q

What is density?

A

The amount of mass in a given volume of a substance

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132
Q

What is conductivity?

A

The ability of a substance to conduct electricity or heat

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133
Q

What does a chemical property describe?

A

How a substance interacts with other substances such as acids

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134
Q

What does a chemical change always result in?

A

The formation of a different substance or substances.

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135
Q

What is a pure substance?

A

Made of only one kind of matter and has a unique set of properties that sets it apart from any other kind of matter

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136
Q

What can a pure substance be?

A

Either an element or a compound (2 or more elements put together)

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137
Q

What is an element?

A

A material that cannot be broken down into any simpler substance.

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138
Q

What is a compound?

A

When two or more elements combine chemically—that is, in specific, fixed proportions

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139
Q

What is a mixture?

A

A combination of pure substances

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140
Q

What are the 4 different types of mixtures?

A

Mechanical mixture

Solutions

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141
Q

What is a mechanical mixture?

A

The different substances that make up the mixture are visible

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142
Q

What is a solution?

A

the different substances that make it up are not separately visible. One substance is dissolved in another

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143
Q

What is a suspension?

A
  • A suspension is a cloudy mixture in which tiny particles of one substance are held within another
  • These particles can be separated out when the mixture is poure through filter paper
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144
Q

What is a colloid?

A

•a cloudy mixture, but the particles of the suspended substance are so small that they cannot be easily separated out from the other substance.

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145
Q

What are some evidences of chemical change?

A

Change in odour
Change in Colur
Formation of solid or gas
Release or absortion of heat energy

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146
Q

What is a physical change?

A

A physical change is one in which a material change from one state to another

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147
Q

What is a chemical change?

A

when two or more materials react and create new materials.

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148
Q

How does freeze drying work?

A
  • The food is frozen to convert water to ice

- Then put into a pressure chamber to sublime the ice

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149
Q

When was the stone age?

A

8000 B.C.

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150
Q

What happened in the stone age?

A
  • Humans used only simple stone tools at the time.
  • Metals had not been discovered.
  • Used fire to their advantage
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151
Q

What happened in 6000 B.C. and 1000 B.C.?

A

Early chemists investigated only materials that had a high value to humans.

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152
Q

Why was Gold very highly valued?

A

It had attractive color and luster, and it didn’t tarnish. Its softness made it easy to shape into detailed designs

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153
Q

What was a downside to gold?

A

Because it is so soft, however, gold could not be used for tools or weapons.

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154
Q

Why was copper valuable?

A

Because it could be used to make pots, coins, tools, and jewellery

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155
Q

What was surprising about copper?

A
  • A piece of natural, untreated copper is brittle—that is, it breaks easily.
  • When copper is heated, it becomes very useful because it can be rolled into sheets or stretched into long wires
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156
Q

What is bronze?

A

A hard, strong material created when copper and tin are heated and mixed together

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157
Q

How did the Iron age begin?

A

Around 1200 B.C. Hittites discovered how to extract iron from rocks and turn it into a useful material

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158
Q

How was steel created?

A

Mixing iron and carbon

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159
Q

Where does the word chemistry come from?

A

The Greek word Khemia meaning juice of the plant

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160
Q

Who coined the word Atomos?

A

Democritus

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161
Q

What did Aristotle believe about matter?

A

He stated that everything was made of earth, air, fire, and water

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162
Q

What is alchemy?

A

An activity that is not a real science because it includes the use of magic

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163
Q

Who created a naming system for chemicals?

A

French scientist Antoine Laurent Lavoisier

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164
Q

What did John dalton believe about atoms?

A

In John Dalton’s theory, atoms are like solid billiard balls. The atoms of each element have a different mass than atoms in other elements.

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165
Q

What is a sub-atomic particle?

A

A particle that is smaller than an atom

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166
Q

Who proposed the raisin bun model? (Atoms)

A

J.J. Thomson

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167
Q

Describe the Raisin Bun Model (atoms)

A

A positively charged ball with negatively charged electrons embedded in it

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168
Q

Who created the solar system model? (atoms)

A

Hantaro Nagaoka

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169
Q

Describe the solar system model? (Atoms)

A

At the center was a large positively charged ball with electrons orbiting in a ring around it

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170
Q

What was the James Bohr model? (atoms)

A

A positively charged atom in the middle and electrons move in circular orbits around the shell

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171
Q

What does the nucleus of the atom contain?

A

Protons and Atoms

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172
Q

What is the difference between protons and neutrons?

A

Protons are positively charged while neutrons are neutral and are the same mass of protons

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173
Q

What is the quantum mechanics model of an atom?

A

Describes electrons as existing in a charged cloud around the nucleus

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174
Q

How did early chemists organize the elements?

A

Symbols of the Sun and planets to represent the seven metallic elements known at the time

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175
Q

Elements are organized by what?

A

Atomic Mass

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176
Q

What is Atomic mass measured in?

A

Atomic Mass units

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177
Q

What is the law of octaves?

A

Properties of elements seemed to repeat through this list at regular intervals

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178
Q

What is each horizontal row on the periodic table called?

A

A period

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179
Q

What is each vertical column on the periodic table called?

A

A group or family

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180
Q

Where is the atomic number on an element box?

A

Top left corner

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181
Q

Where is the symbol located on an element box?

A

In the center

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182
Q

Where is the atomic mass located on element box?

A

On the bottom

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183
Q

Where is the ion charge on an element box?

A

Top right corner

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184
Q

Where does the abbreviation for an element name come from?

A

Latin and some are named after the discoverer

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185
Q

What does the atomic number show?

A

How many protons are in the nucleus of one atom of the element.

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186
Q

What number is always equal to the number of protons?

A

Electrons

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187
Q

What does the atomic mass tell you?

A

The total mass of all the protons and neutrons in an atom

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188
Q

What is the mass number?

A

It represents the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in an atom rounded

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189
Q

How would you find the number of neutrons if you have the mass number and protons?

A

Mass number - Protons = neutrons

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190
Q

What are al the elements on the left side of the staircase of the periodic tables classified as?

A

Metals

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191
Q

What are al the elements on the right side of the staircase of the periodic tables classified as?

A

Non-metals

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192
Q

What are the characteristics of metals?

A

Shiny, malleable, and ductile. They also conduct electricity.

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193
Q

What are the characteristics of non-metals?

A

Non-metals can be a solid or a gas. Solid nonmetals are dull, brittle elements. Non-metals, except carbon, do not conduct electricity

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194
Q

What is the staircase of the periodic table called?

A

metalloids

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195
Q

What are the characteristics of mettaloids?

A

Have both metallic and non-metallic properties.

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196
Q

What group is the most reactive of the metals?

A

Alkali metals, they react when exposed to air or water

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197
Q

What is the second most reactive of the metals?

A

Alkaline-earth metals. They react when exposed to air and water as well, but their reactivity is not as strong as that of the alkali metals.

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198
Q

What is the most reactive of the non-metals?

A

Halogens

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199
Q

What are the characteristics noble gasses?

A

they are the most stable and unreactive

elements

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200
Q

What is the first group or family in the periodic table called?

A

Alkali metals

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201
Q

What is the second group or family in the periodic table called?

A

Alkaline earth metals

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202
Q

What is biggest group in the periodic table called?

A

Transition metals

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203
Q

What is the 18 family or group on the periodic table called?

A

Noble gases

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204
Q

What is the 17th family or group in the periodic table called?

A

Halogens

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205
Q

What does the chemical formula identify?

A

The formula identifies which elements, and how much of each, are in the compound

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206
Q

Who created a naming system for compounds?

A

Guyton de Morveau

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207
Q

What are some rules that Guyton de Morveau created?

A
  • Use the chemical name for each element in the compound,

- Always putting the metal element first.

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208
Q

Who is now responsible for agreeing on an appropriate name for every chemical compound?

A

The International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)

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209
Q

What does each chemical compound always end with?

A

-ide

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210
Q

What is the subscript?

A

The little number that goes below an atom name in a chemical compound

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211
Q

How do you indicate the physical state of a compound?

A

make a subscript with an “s”, “l” or “g”

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212
Q

What 2 things are always in a chemical compound?

A

A metal and a non-metal

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213
Q

What is an ionic Compound?

A

Ionic compounds are pure substances formed as a result of the attraction between particles of opposite charges, called ions

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214
Q

What state are ionic compounds at room temperature?

A

Solid

215
Q

What are the properties of Ionic compounds?

A
  • Solid at room temperature

- Conduct electricity

216
Q

What is an ion?

A

An ion is an atom or a group of atoms that has become electrically charged through the loss or gain of electrons

217
Q

What indicates the charge of an atom?

A

A superscript with a plus or minus sign on the right

218
Q

What is a polyatomic ion?

A

Polyatomic ions are a group of atoms acting as one.

219
Q

What if an ion has more than 1 charge?

A

Then you can use Roman numerals to describe which one it is

220
Q

What are the steps to writing Ion charges?

A
  1. Print the name with its ion charges (metal then non-metal)
  2. Balance the charges, Write the formula and indicate how many you need for each side
221
Q

In an ionic compound will the metal always be positive or negative?

A

Positive

222
Q

What is a molecular compound?

A

When non-metals combine and a pure substance is made

223
Q

What are the characteristics of molecular compounds?

A

They can be solids, liquids, or gases at room temperature.
They tend to be insulators
They also have relatively low melting and boiling points .

224
Q

In what type of compounds are common names used for naming compounds containing hydrogen?

A

Molecular

225
Q

How do you indicate tamount of atoms in a molecular compound?

A 
Using 
1 mono
2 di
3 tri
4 tetra
5 penta
226
Q

How do you name ionic compounds?

A
  1. The first element uses its name if there is more than 1 then you uses the prefixes
  2. The second element has the suffix ide
227
Q

What is a chemical reaction?

A

A chemical reaction takes place when two or more substances combine to form new substances

228
Q

What are reactants?

A

The materials at the start of a reaction

229
Q

What are products?

A

The new materials produced by a reaction

230
Q

How would you write out a chemical formula?

A

Use plus signs to separate reactants for reactants or products from products and use an arrow to separate reactants from products.

231
Q

What is an exothermic reaction?

A

A chemical reaction that releases heat energy

232
Q

How will an exothermic reaction feel?

A

Hot

233
Q

What is an endothermic reaction?

A

A chemical reaction that absorbs heat energy

234
Q

What are the chemical changes involving oxygen?

A

Combustion
Corrosion
Cellular Respiration

235
Q

What is combustion?

A

Combustion is a chemical reaction that occurs when oxygen reacts with a substance to form a new substance and give off energy.

236
Q

What is corrosion?

A

Corrosion is the slow chemical change that occurs when oxygen in the air reacts with a metal.

237
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

Cellular respiration is a chemical reaction that takes place in the cells in your body.

238
Q

What happens in cellular respiration?

A

Food (glucose) reacts with oxygen to produce energy, water, and carbon dioxide

239
Q

What is the law of conservation of mass?

A

It states that matter is not created or destroyed in a chemical reaction

240
Q

What is an open system?

A

When a chemical reaction takes place in a place that is not closed

241
Q

What are the 4 factors that can affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

A
  • the presence of a catalyst
  • the concentration of the reactants
  • the temperature of the reactants
  • the surface area of the reactants
242
Q

What is a catalyst?

A

Catalysts are substances that help a reaction proceed faster.

243
Q

What is a type of catalyst in the body?

A

Enzymes

244
Q

How does concentration affect chemical reactions?

A

The greater the concentration of the reactants, the faster the reaction. The increased concentration of the reactants means that there are more atoms of each reactant available to react

245
Q

How does temperature affect a chemical reaction?

A

The more heat added to the reactants, the faster the reaction. The added heat causes the atoms of each reactant to move faster, which increases the chances of their colliding with each other.

246
Q

How does surface are affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

A

The greater surface area of the reactants means that more area is available for reaction

247
Q

What is the condition that plants can use nitrogen in?

A

Plants can use nitrogen only when it is combined with other elements, such as hydrogen and oxygen.

248
Q

What percentage of air is nitrogen?

A

78%

249
Q

What is nitrogen fixation?

A

Nitrogen fixation is the process of changing free nitrogen so that the nitrogen atoms can combine with other elements to form compounds that organisms can use.

250
Q

Where does most of the nitrogen fixation take place?

A

Certain types of bacteria do most of the nitrogen fixation in the soil.

251
Q

Where is the bacteria that does most of the nitrogen fixation located?

A

In the root nodules of specific types of plants, such as beans, clover, and alfalfa

252
Q

How does bacteria fix nitrogen?

A

The bacteria in these nodules are able to separate the two nitrogen atoms that form nitrogen gas (free nitrogen). Once separated, the nitrogen atoms can form compounds with other elements, such as hydrogen and oxygen.

253
Q

What are the steps in the nitrogen cycle?

A
  1. Plants use nitrogen
  2. Animals eat nitrogen rich plans
  3. The animal poops it out
  4. Repeat
254
Q

What is pollution?

A

Pollution is any change in the environment that produces a condition that is harmful to living things.

255
Q

What is fertilizer?

A

A substance that enriches soil so that plants will grow better

256
Q

What do the 4 numbers on fertilizer state?

A

Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Potassium
Sulfur

257
Q

What are pesticides?

A

Chemicals used to kill pests.

258
Q

What is a pest?

A

An organism that harms people, crops, or structures.

259
Q

Whar do herbicides do?

A

Herbicides kill or control weeds

260
Q

What do insecticides do?

A

Insecticides kill or control insects.

261
Q

What do fungicides do?

A

Fungicides kill fungi

262
Q

What is a problem with pesticides?

A

They are not selective

263
Q

What is solid waste?

A

the garbage that is collected from households, industrial plants, commercial buildings, institutions, and construction and demolition sites

264
Q

How do sanitary landfills protect the earth?

A

Sanitary landfills use plastic liners and compacted clay to prevent these solutions from entering the soil and the groundwater.

265
Q

What is sewage?

A

Wastewater containing dissolved and undissolved materials from your kitchen, bathroom, and laundry is called sewage

266
Q

What is a septic tank?

A

an underground container where bacteria break down the organic materials before they are moved out to the soil

267
Q

What does a sewage treatment plant do?

A

Treats wastes from homes, businesses, industries, and institutions.

268
Q

What is effluent?

A

Treated wastewater

269
Q

What are the 3 types of fossil fuels?

A

Coal, oil, and natural gas

270
Q

Why is it called fossil fuels?

A

Because they formed from dead plants and animals

271
Q

What is the formula for the burning of fossil fuels?

A

hydrocarbon + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy

272
Q

What is sour gas?

A

Natural gas that contains hydrogen sulfide

273
Q

What is an acid?

A

A compound that dissolves in water to form a solution with a pH lower than 7

274
Q

What is a base?

A

A compound that dissolves in water to form a solution with a pH higher than 7

275
Q

What is considered acidic?

A

1-7 on the ph scale

276
Q

What is considered basic on the ph scale?

A

7-14

277
Q

What color does litmus paper turn in an acid?

A

Red

278
Q

What color does litmus paper turn in a base?

A

Blue

279
Q

What does neutralization create?

A

Water and salt

280
Q

How is acid water in lakes treated?

A

Lime (calcium hydroxide) to neutralize it.

281
Q

What are the most common elements in living things?

A

Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen

282
Q

What are organic compounds?

A

Compounds that contain carbon

283
Q

What are inorganic compounds?

A

substances that do not contain carbon

284
Q

What are nutrients?

A

Elements and compounds that organisms need for living, growing and reproducing

285
Q

What are the 9 nutrients needed in relatively large amounts?

A

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen from air and water, nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium, calcium,
and sulfur

286
Q

What are macronutrients?

A

nutrients needed in relatively large amounts

287
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

Nutrients needed in very small amounts such as selenium

288
Q

Why is nitrogen important in plants?

A
  • Composition of proteins and chlorophyll

* Leaf and stem growth

289
Q

Why is phosphorus important in plants?

A
  • Root and flower growth

* Cellular respiration and photosynthesis

290
Q

Why is potassium important in plants?

A
  • Stimulation of early growth
  • Starch and protein production and sugar movement
  • Disease resistance
  • Chlorophyll production and tuber formation
291
Q

Why is magnesium important in plants?

A
  • Composition of chlorophyll structure

* Photosynthesis

292
Q

Why is calcium important in plants?

A
  • Cell wall structure

* Cell division

293
Q

Why is sulfur important in plants?

A

• Production of fruits and grains

294
Q

Why is nitrogen important in humans?

A
  • Composition of proteins and nucleic acids found in all cells
  • Growth and repair of tissues
295
Q

Why is phosphorus important in humans?

A
  • Composition of bones, teeth, and DNA

* Many metabolic reactions

296
Q

Why is potassium important in humans?

A

• Muscle contraction and nerve impulses

297
Q

Why is magnesium important in humans?

A
  • Composition of bones and teeth

* Absorption of calcium and potassium

298
Q

Why is calcium important in humans?

A
  • Composition of bones and teeth
  • Blood clotting
  • Muscle and nerve function
299
Q

Why is sulfur important in humans?

A
  • Protein synthesis
  • Enzyme activation
  • Detoxification
300
Q

What do optimum amounts mean?

A

The optimum amount of a substance is the amount that provides an organism with the best health

301
Q

What are the 4 types of organic compounds?

A

Carbohydrates
Lipids
Proteins and amino acids
Nucleic acids

302
Q

Explain carbohydrates

A

-Can be sugars such as starch, cellulose, and glycogen.

303
Q

What does a glucose molecule look like?

A

A hexagon with CHO in the vertices

304
Q

What are lipids?

A

Fats, oils, and waxes

305
Q

What does a lipid molecule?

A

Long chains of CHO

306
Q

What are proteins and amino acids used for?

A

Growth and repair, and as a source of energy. They are the main component of enzymes

307
Q

What is the structure of amino acids?

A

Almost like a cross with lines coming out of it

308
Q

What are the largest and most complicated things found in living things?

A

Nucleic acids

309
Q

What are the 2 nucleic acids?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)

310
Q

What does it mean when a plant takes up nutrients passively?

A

It does not require energy

311
Q

How does a plant take in nutrients passively?

A

By diffusion- the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration

312
Q

What is osmosis?

A

When water moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

313
Q

What is active transport?

A

When plants use their energy and cells to keep concentration of nutrients high in the cells of the plant by moving in the direction opposite of the diffusion

314
Q

What is ingestion?

A

The process of taking food into our bodies

315
Q

What is hydrolysis?

A

The breakdown or digestion of large organic molecules by water

316
Q

What is a substrate?

A

The material on which an organism moves or lives

317
Q

How does alage affect water?

A
  • Makes it cloudy

- Reduces oxygen content

318
Q

What is the first organism to dies when dissolved oxygen decreases?

A

Trout

319
Q

What are the 5 categories of water use?

A
  • human drinking water
  • recreation such as swimming
  • livestock drinking water
  • irrigation
  • protection of aquatic life
320
Q

What are microbiological indicators?

A

Microscopic organisms such as bacteria that can be used to monitor water quality

321
Q

How do aquatic invertebrates show water quality?

A

The presence or absence can show scientists the Ph level of water

322
Q

What is mostly monitored when testing water quality?

A
  • dissolved oxygen
  • plant nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus
  • acidity
  • pesticides
  • heavy metals
  • salts such as sodium chloride and magnesium sulfate
323
Q

What is the concentration of chemicals in the environment usually measured in?

A

Parts per million (ppm) or milligrams per litre (mg/L)

324
Q

What does the level of dissolved oxygen depend on?

A
  • temperature
  • turbulence due to the wind or the speed of moving water
  • the amount of photosynthesis by plants and algae in the water
  • the number of organisms using up the oxygen
325
Q

How many zeros are in 1 million?

A

6

326
Q

How do phosphorus and nitrogen affect water?

A

They can increase algae growth which can lessen the dissolved oxygen of an area because of the more that algae grow the more bacteria that eat it and the more bacteria that use up the oxygen.

327
Q

When is precipitation considered acidic?

A

Having a Ph lower than 6

328
Q

What acidity do most fish die in?

A

4.5

329
Q

What is Spring acid shock?

A

When acid snow falls and melts into a river or stream causing it to be really acidic

330
Q

What are the risks with pesticides?

A

Pests can become resistant to them

331
Q

What are toxins?

A

Substances that produce serious health problems or death when introduced into an organism

332
Q

What is LD50?

A

The amount of a substance that causes 50% of a group of test animals to die if they are given a specified dose of the substance all at once.

333
Q

What are the effects of mercury poisoning?

A

Numbness of arms and legs, involuntary movements, nerve damage, and brain damage.

334
Q

What are heavy metals?

A

Metals that have a density of 5 g/cm3 or more.

335
Q

What are the 2 ways air quality can be measured?

A
  • by measuring the levels of pollutants in the air

* by estimating the amount of emissions from pollution sources

336
Q

What is sulfur dioxide?

A

A major air pollutant that forms both smog and acid rain. It can affect your respiratory system (throat and lungs) and irritate your eyes

337
Q

What are the major sources of sulfur dioxide?

A

Industrial processes such as the oil and gas industry

338
Q

What is used to reduce sulfur dioxide emissions?

A

Use devices called “scrubbers” to reduce sulfur dioxide emissions by up to 99%.

339
Q

How do scrubbers work?

A

Scrubbers use limestone (calcium carbonate) to convert sulfur dioxide to a useful product. The sulfur dioxide reacts with the calcium carbonate to produce gypsum (calcium sulfate). The gypsum is recovered and can be used in manufacturing.

340
Q

What are nitrogen oxides?

A

Major air pollutants that form both smog and acid rain. They affect the respiratory system and eyes.

341
Q

How do nitrogen oxides form?

A

Mainly from combustion in vehicles. They also form by combustion in generating plants and some industrial processes

342
Q

How does carbon monoxide form?

A

Carbon monoxide (CO(g)) forms if there is not enough oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO2(g)).

343
Q

What are the effects of carbon monoxide?

A

If inhaled, carbon monoxide reduces the amount of oxygen carried by the blood. As a result, it can cause headaches, sleepiness, chest pains, brain damage, and death.

344
Q

What is ozone like at ground level?

A

A pollutant and colorless, odorless gas made up of 3 oxygen atoms

345
Q

What does ozone form?

A

It forms from reactions between oxygen, nitrogen oxides, and compounds called volatile organic compounds (VOCs), in the presence of heat and sunlight.

346
Q

Why is carbon dioxide not considered a pollutant?

A

Because it is naturally present in the air.

347
Q

What are greenhouse gasses?

A

The atmospheric gases that trap heat

348
Q

What is the enhanced greenhouse gas affect?

A

The enhanced greenhouse effect results from the greater concentration of gases trapping even more heat. In turn, this increases overall temperatures on Earth.

349
Q

Why is the amount of carbon a concern?

A

Because it can add to the enhanced greenhouse effect and then to global warming.

350
Q

What is the role of ozone in the sky?

A

ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation (UV) from the Sun. By absorbing this radiation, the ozone layer protects organisms on Earth from damaging UV rays.

351
Q

What are chlorofluorocarbons?

A

They are a gas that can cause holes in the ozone layer as they are broken down by UV radiaton and converted into chlorine.

352
Q

What are the three stages of transport of substances in the air?

A
  1. Release of the chemical at the source
  2. Dispersion of the chemical in the atmosphere
  3. Deposition of the chemical in soil or water
353
Q

What is ground water?

A

The water that fills all the interconnected spaces in the soil

354
Q

What is the top of the groundwater zone called?

A

The water table

355
Q

What is a factor that can affect the movement of water in the soil?

A

Pores sometimes the soil grains are so tightly packed

that the pores are not connected. In that case, water cannot move easily through the soil.

356
Q

What is a permeable soil?

A

A permeable soil is one with interconnected pores.

357
Q

What does the water landing on a farmers field do?

A
  • some evaporates
  • some soaks into the soil and is taken up by plants
  • some runs onto the street or into a stream
  • some soaks through the soil and moves downward.
358
Q

How can the concentration of pollutants be changed?

A

Dispersion, dilution, biodegradation, phytoremediation, and photolysis

359
Q

What is dispersion?

A

The scattering of a substance away from its source

360
Q

What is dilution?

A

reducing the concentration of a pollutant by mixing the polluting substance with large quantities of air or water.

361
Q

What is biodegradation?

A

The breaking down using living things

362
Q

What is aerobic?

A

When bacteria need air to survive

363
Q

What is anaerobic?

A

When bacteria don’t need air to survive

364
Q

What are bioreactors?

A

Bioreactors are designed to speed up the decomposition of organic wastes such as food and paper in municipal landfills

365
Q

What is Phytoremediation?

A

Using plants to help reduce the concentration of harmful chemicals in soil or groundwater.

366
Q

What is photolysis?

A

The breakdown (lysis) of compounds by sunlight (photo).

367
Q

Biomagnification

A

Is the increase in concentration of a chemical or element as it moves up the food chain.

368
Q

What is MSDS?

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

369
Q

What does MSDS state?

A

The MSDS gives a detailed description of the product—its composition, physical appearance, and chemical characteristics. The MSDS also describes the precautions that should be taken when handling, using, transporting, and disposing of the product.

370
Q

What does neutral mean?

A

When an atom has an equal amount of positive and negative charge

371
Q

What is charge seperation?

A

When a charged object is brought close to a neutral object and it causes the neutral object to repel and the eventually produce static

372
Q

What is charge separation?

A

When a charged object releases extra electrons.

373
Q

What are the laws of electrical charge?

A
  • Opposite charges attract each other.

* Like charges repel each other.

374
Q

What is a Van de graff generator?

A

They produce static build-up by using friction.

375
Q

What is electrical current?

A

The steady flow of charged particles

376
Q

What are amperes?

A

The rate at which electrical current flows

377
Q

What is a circuit?

A

A path that controls the flow of electricity

378
Q

What is a load of a circuit?

A

A device to convert electrical energy to another form of energy

379
Q

What is electrical energy?

A

The energy carried by charged particles

380
Q

What is voltage?

A

A measure of how much electrical energy each charged particle carries

381
Q

What is the other name for voltage?

A

Potential energy

382
Q

What does a circuit usually include?

A

A conductor, an energy source, and a load

383
Q

What is the unit of voltage?

A

Volt

384
Q

What do you measure voltage with?

A

With the voltage

385
Q

What is a millivolt?

A

1/1000 volt

386
Q

What is a short circuit?

A

Any unintended path of electricity

387
Q

Which is more important if a person gets electrically shocked?

A

Amps

388
Q

When would you feel an electric shock?

A

Current in the range of 0.015 A to 0.020 A will cause a painful shock, and loss of muscle control. Current as low as 0.1 A can be fatal.

389
Q

What is special about a 3 prong plug?

A

The third prong connects to a ground wire in case of short circuit

390
Q

What is a fuse?

A

Fuses contain a thin piece of metal that is specially designed to melt if too much current passes through it. Not reusable

391
Q

What is a circuit breaker?

A

Circuit breakers also have a special wire that heats up if there is too much current. The hot wire triggers a spring mechanism that turns off the switch inside the circuit breaker

392
Q

What is a lightning rod?

A

A rod on the top of a house so that when lightning strikes it will send it straight to the ground.

393
Q

What is an electrochemical cell?

A

A package of chemicals designed to produce small amounts of electricity. The electricity the cell produces comes from chemical reactions.

394
Q

What are dry cells?

A

Electricity-producing cells that are in a paste form.

395
Q

How do dry cells work?

A
  • A chemical reaction produces free electrons

- The electrons travel from the negative terminal to the positive terminal through the device.

396
Q

What is an electrolyte?

A

A paste or liquid that conducts electricity because it contains chemicals that form ions

397
Q

How does an electrolyte react with electrodes?

A

One electrode becomes positively charged, and the other becomes negatively charged.

398
Q

What is wet cell?

A

A cell that uses a liquid electrolyte.

399
Q

How does a wet cell work?

A

The electrolyte gradually eats away at the electrode causing it to release free electrons.
-Electrons then travel along the wire and to the other electrode.

400
Q

What are primary cells?

A

Primary cells produce electricity from chemical reactions that cannot be reversed

401
Q

How can energy in a rechargeable be reversed?

A

By using an external electrical source to run electricity back through the cell

402
Q

What are the secondary cells?

A

Cells where the chemical reactions can be reversed.

403
Q

What is electrolysis?

A

Running electricity through atoms to split it into its elements

404
Q

What is electroplating?

A

Coating a cheaper metal with a thin layer of silver or gold.

405
Q

What is anodizing?

A

Coat aluminum parts with a layer of aluminum oxide

406
Q

What do atoms look like in an insulator?

A

The electrons (–) are bound tightly to the nuclei (+) so they resist movement

407
Q

What do atoms conductor with no voltage applied to look like?

A

The electrons are not as tightly bound to the nuclei. They can drift away from the nuclei but do not flow in any one direction

408
Q

What does a conductor with the voltage applied look like?

A

The electrons flow toward the positive terminal of the voltage source.

409
Q

What is a superconductor?

A

Perfect conductors, they have no resistance to electron flow

410
Q

How does mercury become a superconductor?

A

They cool it down to absolute zero

411
Q

What is resistance measured in?

A

Ohms

412
Q

How does a lie detector work?

A

It measures the resistance in sweat.

413
Q

What is a variable resistor or rheostat?

A

A resistor that gradually reduces or increases the flow of energy.

414
Q

What does ohm’s law state?

A

Ohm’s law states that as long as temperature stays the same:
• the resistance of a conductor stays constant, and
• the current is directly proportional to the voltage applied.

415
Q

What is the formula for voltage, resistance, and current?

A

V/I x R

416
Q

What is used to measure volts?

A

Voltmeter

417
Q

What is used to measure current?

A

Ammeter

418
Q

What is used to measure small currents?

A

Galvanometers

419
Q

What are drawings of circuit often called?

A

A schematic diagram

420
Q

What are the parts of a circuit?

A
  • A source provides energy and a supply of electrons for the circuit.
  • A conductor provides a path for current.
  • A switching mechanism controls current flow, turning it on and off, or directing it to different parts of the circuit.
  • A load converts electrical energy into some other form of energy.
421
Q

what is a series circuit?

A

There is only one pathway for the current

422
Q

What is a negative to series circuit?

A

Adding components increases the total resistance of the circuit. This decreases the current

423
Q

What is a parrallel circuit?

A

they have a separate current path for each section of the circuit

424
Q

What are positives to a parallel circuit?

A
  • An interruption or break in one pathway does not affect the rest of the parallel in the circuit.
  • Adding a new pathway with more resistors does not affect the resistance in any of the other pathways
425
Q

What is energy?

A

The ability to do work.

426
Q

What are the 4 common forms of energy?

A

Chemical
Electrical
Mechanical
Thermal

427
Q

What is chemical energy?

A

The energy stored in chemicals. This is a form of potential or stored energy. This energy is released when chemicals react.

428
Q

What is electrical energy?

A

The energy of charged particles. Electrons are negatively charged. Electrical energy is transferred when electrons travel from place to place

429
Q

What is mechanical energy?

A

The energy possessed by an object because of its motion or its potential to move.

430
Q

What is thermal energy?

A

The total kinetic energy of all the particles in a substance. The faster a particle moves, the more kinetic energy it has.

431
Q

What is a common chemical found in food?

A

Glucose

432
Q

What is a thermocouple?

A

A device that can convert thermal energy to electrical energy.

433
Q

How does a thermocouple work?

A

It consists of 2 different metals that conduct at different rates
This difference in conduction results in electricity flowing from one metal to the other.

434
Q

What is the positive to thermocouple?

A

They are very useful for measuring temperatures in areas that are difficult to access or that are too hot for a liquid-filled glass thermometer.

435
Q

How can a strong electromagnet be made?

A

By wrapping a current carrying wire around a piece of metal

436
Q

What do commutator and brushes do on an electric motor?

A

They reverse the flow of electricity to keep the armature turning

437
Q

What is the round circular part of an electric motor?

A

The split ring commutator

438
Q

What is the long line in the middle of an electric motor?

A

The armature

439
Q

What is direct current?

A

“Direct” current electricity flows in only one direction.

440
Q

What is alternating current?

A

“Alternating” flows back and forth 60 times per second.

441
Q

What are transformers?

A

They change the amount of voltage with hardly any energy loss.

442
Q

How do Transformers work?

A

The current-carrying wire is wrapped around one side of an iron ring called a core.
A secondary coil is wrapped around the other side of the core.
TheAC current flowing through the primary coil creates an alternating magnetic field.
If the number of loops in the two coils is different, the voltage is transformed down

443
Q

What is electomagnetic induction?

A

When electrical current could be generated by moving a conducting wire through a magnetic field.

444
Q

What is the difference between an AC and a DC motor?

A

The central axle of an AC generator has a loop of wire that is attached to two slip rings.

445
Q

What is power?

A

The rate at which a device converts energy

446
Q

What is the unit for power?

A

Watt

447
Q

What is the formula to find power?

A

Volts (V) x Current (I) = power

448
Q

What is the formula for energy?

A

Power x time (in seconds)

449
Q

What is the formula for kilowatt hours?

A

KW x Hrs

450
Q

How many watts are in a kilowatt?

A

1000

451
Q

What is the law of conservation of energy?

A

Energy does not just appear or disappear—it can only be transformed from one form to another

452
Q

What is efficiency?

A

The ratio of the useful energy that comes out of a device to the total energy that went in

453
Q

What is the unit for energy?

A

Joules

454
Q

What is the formula for efficiency?

A

Output Joules/input Joules x 100

455
Q

What is most efficiency lost to?

A

Heat from friction

456
Q

Why are fossil fuels called fossil fuels?

A

Because they formed from the decomposition of prehistoric plants and animals.

457
Q

How do nuclear factories create energy?

A

They split atoms into parts which release lots of energy to power turbines

458
Q

What is geothermal energy?

A

Heat from the earths core used to create electricity

459
Q

What is biomass?

A

Energy derived from burning fossil fuels

460
Q

What is fly ash?

A

when coal burns, it leaves behind a powdery ash. Some of this ash is carried up the smokestack of the power plant and escapes into the atmosphere.

461
Q

What is a solstice?

A

The longest day and the shortest day of the year?

462
Q

When do the solstices occur?

A

The summer solstice occurs near June 21. The winter solstice occurs near December 21

463
Q

What does Stonehenge mark?

A

The summer and winter solstices

464
Q

What are the equinoxes?

A

When night and day are equal

465
Q

When did the equinoxes occur?

A

One in the spring (about March 21) and one in the fall (about September 22)

466
Q

What was the geocentric model of the solar system?

A

Earth-centred, model to explain planetary motion. In the model, he showed Earth at the centre, surrounded by a series of concentric spheres that represented the paths of the Sun, Moon, and five planets known at the time.

467
Q

What was the heliocentric model solar system?

A

the Sun was at the centre and Earth and the other planets revolved in orbits around it.

468
Q

What is odd about the orbits of the planets?

A

They orbited in ellipses

469
Q

What are sundials used for?

A

To measure the passage of time

470
Q

What was a merkhet used for?

A

Chart astronomical positions and predict the movement of stars.

471
Q

What does a quadrant do?

A

Measure a star’s height above the horizon.

472
Q

What does an astrolabe do?

A

To make accurate charts of star positions.

473
Q

What is an astronomical unit?

A

used for measuring “local” distances, those inside our solar system.
One AU is equal to the average distance from the centre of Earth to the centre of the Sun

474
Q

What are light years used to measure?

A

Vast distances beyond the solar system, out to stars and galaxies,

475
Q

What are light years equal to?

A

It equals the distance that light travels in one year.

476
Q

What is a star?

A

A hot, glowing ball of gas (mainly hydrogen) that gives off tremendous light energy.

477
Q

What is the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram”?

A

A diagram that relates the luminosity of stars to their heat

478
Q

What does every star start off as?

A

A Nebula

479
Q

What are the steps to becoming a protostar?

A

The nebula starts collapsing on itself due to gravity. An becomes a small rotating cloud of dust

480
Q

What is the main sequence for sun-like stars?

A

Sun-like stars - Red giant - White dwarf - Black dwarf

481
Q

What is the main sequence for massive stars?

A

Massive stars - Red supergiant - Supernova - Black hole

482
Q

What stage do stars spend most of their lives in?

A

Sun-like stars or massive stars

483
Q

What are constellations?

A

Official groupings of stars

484
Q

What are asterisms?

A

Unofficial star groupings

485
Q

What is a galaxy?

A

a grouping of millions or billions of stars, gas, and dust. It is held together by gravity.

486
Q

What are the 3 different types of galaxy’s?

A

Spiral
Elliptical
Irregular

487
Q

Where does light come from in spiral galaxy’s?

A

Young stars provide most of the light in the arms. Older stars provide most of the light in the central region

488
Q

What type of light is in elliptical galaxy’s?

A

It is made up mostly of old stars

489
Q

What is the protoplanet hypothesis?

A
  1. A cloud of gas and dust in space begins swirling.
  2. Most of the material (more than 90%) accumulates in the centre, forming the Sun.
  3. The remaining material accumulates in smaller clumps circling the centre. These form the planets
490
Q

What is solar wind?

A

charged particles that flow out in every direction out of the sun.

491
Q

What are the 4 inner planets also called?

A

Terrestrial planets

492
Q

What are the 4 out planets also called?

A

Jovian

493
Q

What are the similarities between the 4 terrestrial planets?

A

The terrestrial planets tend to be smaller, rockier in composition, and closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets.

494
Q

What are the similarities between the Jovian planets?

A

he Jovian planets are large and gaseous and are located great distances from the Sun.

495
Q

What is the order of the planets?

A 
Mercury
Venus
Earth
Mars
Jupiter
Saturn
Neptune
Pluto
496
Q

What are asteroids?

A

Rocky or metallic bodies travelling in space.

497
Q

What are comets?

A

Objects made up of dust and ice that travel through space. Their long tails and bright glow only appear when they get close to the Sun.

498
Q

What are meteoroids?

A

Small pieces of rocks flying through space with no particular path a

499
Q

What is a meteor?

A

When small piece of rock flies into earths atmosphere

500
Q

What is a meteorite?

A

When a small piece of rock lands on earth

501
Q

What is a solar eclipse?

A

When the moon passes inn between the sun and the earth

502
Q

What is a lunar eclipse?

A

When the earth passes in between the sun and the moon

503
Q

What is the Azimuth?

A

The compass direction of where to look when you are locating something

504
Q

What is the altitude?

A

The height of an object

505
Q

What is the Zenith ?

A

The highest point overhead

506
Q

Where does the word planet come from?

A

The Greek Word wanderer

507
Q

What is the celestial sphere?

A

the name given to the very large imaginary “sphere of sky” surrounding Earth

508
Q

What was the first country to release a satellite?

A

Russia satellite called sputnik

509
Q

What principle is rocketry based upon?

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

510
Q

What are the 3 basic parts of a rocket?

A

The structural and mechanical elements, the fuel, and the payload.

511
Q

Explain the structural and mechanical parts of a rocket

A

• The structural and mechanical elements are everything from the rocket itself to engines, storage tanks, and the fins on the outside.

512
Q

Explain the fuel component of a rocket

A

• The fuel can be any number of materials, including liquid oxygen, gasoline, and liquid hydrogen. The mixture is ignited in a combustion chamber, causing the gases to expand and leave as exhaust.

513
Q

Explain the payload component of a rocket

A

• The payload refers to the materials needed for the flight, including crew cabins, food, water, air, and people

514
Q

What are ion drives?

A

Engines that use xenon gas instead of chemical fuels.

515
Q

How do ion drives work?

A

The xenon is electrically charged, accelerated, and then emitted as exhaust. This action pushes the spacecraft in the direction opposite to the emission

516
Q

What are the downsides to ion drives?

A

thrust generated by an ion drive is 10 000 times weaker than the thrust achieved by today’s chemically fuelled rocket engines.

517
Q

What is the upside to ion drives?

A

Thrust from an ion drive lasts an extremely long time

518
Q

How do solar sails work?

A

Solar sails use the Sun’s light. The Sun emits electromagnetic energy in the form of photons. Solar sails are made of carbon fibre. When the photons hit the sail, the energy transmitted causes the spacecraft to move.

519
Q

What are the 3 main types of spacecraft in use?

A

Shuttles
Space Probes
Space station

520
Q

What do space probes do?

A

They contain instrumentation for carrying out robotic exploration of space.

521
Q

What do shuttles do?

A

Shuttles transport personnel and equipment to orbiting spacecraft.

522
Q

What are space stations?

A

Orbiting spacecraft that have living quarters, work areas, and all the support systems needed to allow people to live and work in space for extended periods

523
Q

What are some environmental hazards of space?

A

Damaging effects of cosmic rays and solar radiation and the risk of being hit by meteoroids.

524
Q

What is microgravity?

A

Microgravity is the condition in which the gravitational forces that act on mass are greatly reduced

525
Q

What happens to bones in space?

A

Bones have much less pressure on them than normal and so they expand.

526
Q

What happens to the heart inn space?

A

The heart does not have to pump as hard to circulate blood.

527
Q

What happens to muscles in space?

A

Muscles used for walking and lifting do not get used as much, and therefore weaken

528
Q

Why does the international space station recycle water?

A

Because storage is scarce

529
Q

How do they produce oxygen in the space station?

A

They use electrolysis to split atoms of water

530
Q

What is a satellite?

A

Any small body that orbits a larger body

531
Q

what do communication satellites do?

A

They help us to communicate without bulky wires and connections

532
Q

What does GPS stand for?

A

Global positioning systems

533
Q

How many GPS satellites are above you at any given time?

A

3

1. Science 9 (20 decks)

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