Final SA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes anthrax?

A

bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If individuals who develop inhalation anthrax are not treated promptly, what is the likely outcome of this disease?

A

shock and ultimately death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Briefly outline how spores travel from the lung to the mediastinal (draining) lymph nodes, what happens to them when they get there, and how the organs subsequently disseminates. What virulence factors allow this organism to (i) avoid phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, and (ii) cause the outcome in (b), above

A

Spores in lung taken up by phagocytic cells, and transported to the mediastinal draining lymph nodes.
Spores germinate, vegetative bacteria encapsulated (resist innate immune response), initiate bacteremia, produce exotoxins that cause shock, death.
The virulence factor that allows this organism to avoid phagocytosis is its polypeptide capsule.
It’s exotoxins are what cause shock and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two characteristics that distinguish virulent strains of Vibrio vulnificus from strains of this organism that do not cause primary septicemia?

A

encapsulated, fast growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain how a lack of either, or both, of the virulence factors identified in (a) might render V. vulnificus unable to cause primary septicemia.

A

Encapsulated protects bacteria from phagocytosis and complement mediated killing.
The concentration of stuff in the blood is more when the bacterium is fast growing. Concentraiton of endotoxin in the blood is more.
A lack of either of these would allow the innate immune system to gain control of the bacteria and shut down the infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Outline the stages of the host–pathogen interaction that occur when a person develops primary septicemia after eating raw shellfish contaminated with V. vulnificus.

A

1) entry into host
2) adherence to GI epithelium
3) extracellular growth
4) invasion of local tissues in GI tract
5) disseminates extracellularly in blood causing endotoxemia
6) immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What critical piece of information uncovered in patient history led the physicians to suspect malaria?

A

travel history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two characteristics of Plasmodium species would the physical need to consider when designing a treatment regimen for this patient?

A

drug resistance

latent or active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Briefly outline the roles played by the sporozoite and merozoite forms of the malaria parasites during infection of a naïve human host, and explain how they cause the signs and symptoms of malaria.

A
  • Infection begins when the sporozites are introduced into the blood stream by the mosquito. The sporozoite form is the form produced in mosquitos.
  • The target organ is the liver. Once they reach the liver they mature into merozoites.
  • Eventually heptocytes break open and release merozites into blood. Then they infect RBCs
  • RBCs lyse and release more merozites
  • The lysis of RBC results in anemia; RBC debris triggers cytokines production.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of microorganism is G. lamblia?

A

protozoan parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are two eukaryotic microbes that cause disease upon localized infection of the human GI tract?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum and cyclospora cayetanensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What clinical signs and symptoms are commonly associated with localized infections of the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain/cramps, diarrhea (watery, or bloody), may or may not be accompanied by fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the context of food borne illness, what is meant by direct intoxication?

A

Exotoxins are made by bacteria that grow in food prior to its consumption. Disease caused directly by exotoxin in food, NOT by infection with bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of outbreak, or epidemic, would be associated with disease caused by
this mechanism?

A

common source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give three, named examples of pathogens that can cause foodborne illness by direct intoxication, and for each one indicate whether or not it can also cause disease upon localized infection of the GI tract.

A

Clostridium Botulinum - Can cause disease upon localized infection of the GI tract in infants (infant botulism)
Staphylococcal food poisoning (Staphylococcus Aureus) cannot cause disease upon localized infection of GI tract.
Bacillus cereus food poisoning (Emetic form) can cause disease upon localized infection of the GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the reservoir for L. monocytogenes?

A

Environment, animals, humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On which class of major histocompatibility complex with L. monocytogenes antigens be presented by macrophages?

A

MHC 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Briefly outline the sequence of events in the adaptive immune response that begins after L. monocytogenes is first detected in the tissues and which culminates in the clearance of the infection.

A

1) Dendritic cells in the tissues take up the L. monocytogenes antigen and migrate to the local draining lymph node, and activate naïve CD8+ T-cells, which undergo clonal expansion and differentiate into cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
2) The cytotoxic T-lymphocytes are released into the blood circulation and move to sites of infection.
3) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes recognize infected host cells via pathogen-specific antigen presented on MHC I and kill them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are N. meningitidis infections acquired?

A

Enter the respiratory tract via infected or colonized humans

20
Q

What are the principle virulence factors of N. meningitides?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

Endotoxin

21
Q

Briefly outline the sequence of events in the host–pathogen interaction that occurs between entry of N. meningitidis bacteria into the body, and the onset of meningitis in an affected person.

A
  1. Enters through aerosol droplets
  2. Adheres to respiratory tract cell wall
  3. N. meningitidis enters cell through transcytosis
  4. Inflammatory response
  5. Localized infection results due to inability of innate immune system to eliminate the infection cause of virulence factors (poly capsule)
  6. Infection disseminates through blood as adaptive immune system tries to fight it. Don’t need to go through draining lymph node.
22
Q

To what family of bacteria does Y. pestsis belong?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

23
Q

How is Y. pestis transmitted to humans from reservoir animals?

A

Transmitted among reservoir animals and to humans (most commonly) by infected fleas.

24
Q

Briefly outline what happens to the bacteria after they enter a naïve human host by the route identified in part (b), how they travel to the draining lymph node and what happens when they get there, and how subsequently pneumonic plague can develop in the infected person.

A

1) Flea bite
2) Dendritic cells in the body take up the bacteria.
The bacteria that is phagocytosed blocks phagolysosome fusion.
3) Dendritic cells migrates to draining lymph node.
4) The bacteria grow in vacuole, express antiphagocytic factors (capsule, injectable toxins), released into lymph node. (When released it’s in a different form)
5) Endotoxic shock can result from rapid growth in the blood.
6) Travels to the alveoli in the lungs

25
Q

What is the reservoir of rabies virus?

A

animals and terrestrials mammals, bats

26
Q

By what means is rabies virus most commonly transmitted from the reservoir to humans?

A

animal bites

27
Q

What is rabies PEP, and how, specifically does it prevent neurological rabies from developing in a person who has been exposed to rabies virus?

A

The rabies virus specifically traverses the muscle cell gap to get into the nerve cells through the neuromuscular junction. The antibody (immunoglobulin) binds to the virus and and neutralizes (prevents from binding to the target cell) it to protect us right away. The injection of the inactivated virus is used to stimulate the adaptive immune response so that we may generate our own antibodies for protection. Because the virus is neutralized, and antibody fills in the place of the neuromuscular gap, the virus can no longer bind to the receptor site on the nerve cells.

28
Q

What is meant by the term ‘endemic’ as it relates to a pathogen?

A

The pathogen is a naturally occurring pathogen

29
Q

What is a dimorphic fungus?

A

Fungi which can exist in two forms.

30
Q

Briefly outline the host–pathogen interactions that lead to a systemic mycosis, and identify the similarities and differences that apply to Histoplasma capsulatum and Blastomyces dermatitidis.

A

1) entry to host through inhalation of spores
2) Adheres to respiratory tract cell wall
3) Enters host cell (Histoplasma capsulatum). Blastomyces dermatitidis (extracellular growth)
4) Cell and tissue damage
5) Immune Response
6) Dissimination by Trojan Horse (Histoplasma).
7) Histoplasma infect liver, spleen. Blastomyces infects skin and bones

31
Q

Give two examples of sexually-transmitted pathogens for which routine immunization is available in the United States.

A

Hep B virus and HPV

32
Q

Sexual transmission is an example of a horizontal transmission route. What, in contrast, is meant by vertical transmission?

A

Transmission of pathogen from parent to offspring

33
Q

For pathogens that are horizontally transmitted by sexual activity, list the potential routes by which vertical transmission might occur, and give one, named example of such a pathogen for each route

A
  1. placental-fetal= (Treponema Pallidum)
  2. Maternal parturition= (Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria goorrhoeae, herpes simplex virus)
  3. Maternal- neonatal= Hep B virus, HIV
34
Q

What organism is most likely to cause severe influenza?

A

Influenza A virus (H1N1, H3N2)

35
Q

What are the two different types of vaccine used in the U.S. for routine immunization against influenza?

A

IIV - inactivated influenza vaccine

LAIV - live attenuated influenza vaccine

36
Q

Give examples of four characteristic clinical signs or symptoms of influenza, for each one indicate whether it is, or is not, a constitutional symptom

A
  • fever/chills - constitutional
  • myalgia - constitutional
  • non-productive cough - not a constitutional symptom
  • loss of appetite - constitutional
37
Q

What is the name of the disease caused by C. psittaci?

A

Psittacosis - Parrot Fever

38
Q

Why is penicillin (and related antibiotics) ineffective in treating C. psittaci infections?

A

lack of peptidoglycan in cell wall.

39
Q

Briefly outline the stages in the interaction between C. psittaci and host cells that leads to the release of newly replicated bacteria.

A

1) Tissue tropism determed by cell-specific receptors.
2) EB endocytosed into vesicle (fusion with lysosomes blocked)
3) EB changes into metabolically active intracellular form, reticulate body (RB)
4) RBs grow inside vesicle, change into EBs, then released by extrusion/lysis

40
Q

What are two examples of diseases that can be caused by invasive GAS?

A
  • necrotizing fasciitis

- streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

41
Q

Explain how highly virulent strains of GAS are able to avoid the humoral adaptive immune response.

A

Antiphagocytic capsule with hyaluronic acid capsule. Basically acts as a self molecule. Mimicking you and therefore you can’t raise an antibody response against that capsule.

42
Q

The innate immune response normally results in infiltration of neutrophils and clearance of bacteria from infected tissues. What two aspects of this process are counteracted by invasive GAS strains, and what are the specific virulence factors involved?

A

Antiphagocytic capsule
anticomplement factors
Enzymes that block neutrophils- streptokinase and streptococcal chemokine protease

Group A strep Strains have a antiphagocytic capsule that prevents against phagocytosis by neutrophils. Some also have proteins with anticomplement (C3b and C5a) functions. C3b is large complement and C5a is small signaling molecule (chemokines) They secrete the enzymes hyaluronidase and lipase to breakdown once inside. Streptococcus pyogenes secretes streptokinase and streptococcal chemokine proteases which, when paired with antic-complement functions, block the abiilty of neutrophils to be called.

43
Q

Skin is an example of a barrier defense against pathogens. What are two other examples of barrier defenses?

A
  • stomach acid

- mucus

44
Q

Most microorganisms that are normally found in the environment, and might enter a wound, are not pathogenic. Why not?

A

Most pathogens do not have the necessary virulence factors to overcome the immune system

45
Q

List the three types of pathogenic mechanism by which bacteria can cause disease after entering a wound, and give a different, named example bacterial species for each one.

A
  • Disseminated infection- leptospirosis by Leptospira spp.
  • Localized infection- Staphylococcus aureus v
  • Systemic Intoxication from localized infection- tetanus by clostridium tetani